Transfusion, Transplant and Radiation Flashcards

1
Q

LINAC

A
  • X-rays from linear accelerator (LINAC); electron accelerated toward positive target –> when it hits target it decelerates and gives off a photon which interacts w/ electrons in tissue (knocks a tissue electron out of its orbit)–> indirect damage via free radicals OR direct DNA damage
  • Electron interacts w/ water –> radical which damage DNA
  • OR electron directly interacts w/ DNA
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2
Q

Radiation Units

A
  • Absorbed dose - Rads or Grays
    • 1 gray = 100 rads
  • Equivalent dose = absorbed dose x radiation quality (measured in Sieverts)
    • Gamma and Xrays have radiation quality of 1 so 1 gray = 1 Sievert
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3
Q

4 R’s of Radiation

A
  • 1- Repair - normal tissue can repair the sublethal DNA breaks that tumor cells cannot (must wait enough time b/n fractions for normal tissue to repair)
  • 2- Reassortment - during specific phases of cell cycle there are different radio-sensitivities so waiting for next fraction gives time for tumor cells to reach a new, more susceptible phase of cell cycle (inc damage to tumor)
    • Mitotic most susceptible
    • Late S phase least susceptible
  • 3- Re-oxygenation - oxygenated cells more sensitive b/c more free radical production
    • Killing oxygenated cells near capillaries dec diffusion distance to less oxygenated cells (these cells now closer to capillary - more susceptible to next fraction of radiation)
  • 4- Re-population - if radiation not completed soon enough the tumor cells can regrow
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4
Q

What are the 2 main uses of HSC transplant?

A
  • 1- RESCUE; use chemo +/- radiation to ablate existing BM then replace w/ HSCT
  • 2- IMMUNOTHERAPEUTIC; use donor cells that recognize antigens on tumor cells as foreign and mediate immune response against them (“graft v leukemia” GVL)
    • More intense - higher mortality - lower chance relapse
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5
Q

HLA System

A
  • Found on chromosome 6; usually inherit complete haplotype from ea parent so siblings have 25% chance matching
  • Major
    • Class I - HLA-A, B, C
    • Class II - HLA-DR, DQ, DP
  • Minor - initiate weaker immune response
  • Need 6/8 or 8/10 match in adult donor
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6
Q

Pre-HSC Transplant Regimen

A
  • Goal = destroy tumor cells + immunosuppress for engraftment
  • Myeloablatives = busulfan, cyclophosphamide, melphalan, etoposide
  • Immunosup = fludarabine, ATG, alemtuzumab
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7
Q

GVHD

A
  • (graft v host disease) - mediated by minor HLA; tissue injury –> inflammation and cytokines –> donor T cells attack host cells
  • Immunosuppress for 100+ days after transplant to prevent (steroids, calcineurin inhibitors, ATG)
  • Seen as maculopapular rash, nausea/vomiting, diarrhea, elevated LFTs
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8
Q

3 Phases of Post HSC Transplant Infection + Prophylaxis

A
  • Phase I - (b/f engraftment) HSV/RSV/Candida
  • Phase II - (100 days post-engraftment) - CMV, RSV, enteric, EBV, Candida, Aspergillus, PJP
  • Phase III - (after day 100) encapsulated bacteria (functional asplenia), CMV, VZV, aspergilus, PJP, other fungi
  • **Typical prophylaxis = antiviral (acyclovir), antifungal (fluconazol), abx (cipro)
  • PJP prophylaxis = bactrim, pentamide, dapsone
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9
Q

ABO Serology

A
  • Carb antigens on RBC surface added to surface by glycosyl transferase (A and B genes code for the enzyme that adds the carb to the RBC surface)
  • A (40%) - n-acetylgalactosamine on surface; anti-B antibodies
  • B (10%) - galactose on surface; anti-A antibodies
  • AB (5%) - no antibodies
  • O (45%) - both anti-A and anti-B antibodies
  • Antibodies form by 3-4 mo
    • Usually IgM
    • Cause hemolytic transfusion reactions and organ transplant rejection
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10
Q

Rh Serology

A
  • Rh - protein antigen that spans RBC membrane; most important is D antigen in 85% individuals
  • Rh - patient can make anti-D antibody if exposed to Rh+ blood (pregnancy or transfusion)
    • IgG antibodies that can cause extravascular hemolysis
    • Hemolytic disease of newborn - when mom’s anti-D hemolyzes fetal red cells (prevent w/ Rh Ig anti-D that neutralizes mom’s anti-D)
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11
Q

Type

Screen

Crossmatch

A
  • Type - determine ABO/Rh type and
    • To determine type, incubate pt RBCs w/ anti-A, anti-B and anti-D ab then look for agglutination (ex- blood type A will agglutinated if given anti-A ab)
  • Screen - screen pt plasma for unexpected antibodies w/ indirect anti-globulin test
    • Indirect anti-globulin - add reagent red cells to pt serum to sensitize it then enhance w/ Coombs reagent
      • IgG more sig than IgM b/c bind at body temp or higher
      • Ex) Rh, Kell, Kidd, Duffy, Ss
    • Use type and screen when transfusion may be needed but not expected
  • Crossmatch - pt serum incubated w/ donor RBCs to sensitize them; then add Coomb’s reagent to enhance
    • Full 30 min if antibody screen is pos
    • Abbreviated 5 min if antibody screen is neg
    • Type and cross is used when transfusion is expected
  • Uncrossmatched- give Group O if life threatening
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12
Q

Packed Red Cells

A
  • 350 cc (RBCs, anti-coagulant preservative for storage and some plasma)
  • Ea unit is expected to inc Hb by 1gram/dl and inc HCT by 3%
  • Can store for 42 days w/ anti-coag preservative
  • Indications - symptomatic anemia
    - Acute MI, infarction need higher HCT
    - Esp if cardio-pulmonary problems
    - If HCT < 21%
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13
Q

Whole Blood Platelets

A
  • Ea unit derived from one unit of whole blood = 8 x 10^10 platelets and all coagulation factors
  • Recommend 4 units for adults
  • Stored for 5 days at room temp
  • Indications
    • Prophylaxis if platelets <10,000
    • Sig bleeding or undergoing procedure and platelets <50,000
    • Platelets <30,000 if less significant procedure
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14
Q

Apharesis Platelets

A
  • 1 dose equal to 4 units of whole blood platelets; so can come from single donor (HLA type)
  • Also store for 5 days at room temp
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15
Q

Plasma (FFP)

A
  • 200-250 ml of plasma coming from 1 unit whole blood
  • Frozen for up to 1 yr and thawed when needed
  • Give 3-5 units in an adult
  • Contains all coagulation factors
  • Indications
    • To reverse coagulopathy (INR >1.5) if bleeding or undergoing surgery
    • Immediate reversal of Warfarin
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16
Q

Cryoprecipitate

A
  • From units of plasma; contains conc dose of fibrinogen
  • Also stored frozen for up to 1 yr
  • 4 units - raise fibrinogen level by 10-20 mg/dl
  • Indications - fibrinogen levels < 100 mg/dl
17
Q

6 Step Response to Transfusion Reaction

A
  • 1- STOP transfusion
  • 2- Keep IV open w/ NaCl
  • 3- Check product tags and pt ID
  • 4- Notify blood bank
  • 5- Send blood and urine sample to blood bank for analysis
  • 6- Send unit, tags and admin to blood bank
18
Q

Acute Hemolytic Rxn

A
  • fever, chills, back pain,chest pain, nausea, flushing, red urine, dyspnea, bleeding, DIC, hemoglobinuria, acute kidney failure (free Hb and red cell fragments damage tubules)
  • Usually due to human error
  • Group O pt has highest risk b/c highest titer of A and B antibodies
  • Immediate stop and aggressive fluid replacement; diuretics to maintain urine outflow
19
Q

Febrile Non-Hemolytic Rxn

A
  • fever, chills, HTN, tachycardia, flushing
  • Usually self-limited
  • White cells in blood product release IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha –> fever and chills
  • STOP transfusion and give Tylenol and meperidine for chills
  • Give leukoreduced blood in future
20
Q

Allergic Transfusion Rxn

A
  • (most common in 1%)
  • Usually urticaria but can also be pruritus
  • IgE against protein in donor plasma –> histamine release
  • STOP transfusion, administer anti-histamines, if better then can slowly re-start transfusions
21
Q

Transfusion Septic Rxn

A
  • if bacteria in donated blood (most commonly from skin)
  • Fevers, chills, hypotension
  • Screen donor and clean donation site
22
Q

Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury

A
  • (TRALI) - ARDS from transfusion
  • Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema (during or w/in 6 hrs transfusion)
  • Fever, chills, hypotension, hypoxemia
  • Anti-WBC antibodies from donor bind the host’s WBCs and aggregate in lungs –> occlusion of lung circulation –> cytokines –> inc vascular permeability (EDEMA)
  • STOP transfusion, oxygen support, mechanical ventilation (95% will recover)
23
Q

Transfusion Associated Circulation Overload

A

(TACO)

  • Cardiogenic pulmonary edema by giving too much volume
  • B natriuretic factor may be elevated
  • Tx - slow transfusion and give diuretics
24
Q

What is the most commonly transmitted virus via transfusion?

A

CMV