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Training Flashcards

1
Q

There are how many hours in one calendar day?

A

There are 24 hours in one calendar day

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2
Q

There are how many minutes in one hour?

A

60

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3
Q

The sun travels from?

A

From East to West

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4
Q

In the a.m./p.m. system of telling time, a day starts when and progresses to when?

A

A day starts at 12 midnight and progresses to 12 noon

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5
Q

a.m. stands for?

A

“ante meridian”

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6
Q

“Meridian” means?

A

“noon” or “midday”

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7
Q

After passing 12 noon, the afternoon (or evening) hours are counted from?

A

12 noon to 12 midnight

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8
Q

p.m. stands for

A

“post meridian”

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9
Q

“Ante” is the Latin prefix meaning?

A

“before”

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10
Q

“Post” is Latin for?

A

“after”

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11
Q

Which time system is always used when talking to a passenger?

A

Conventional time or the a.m./p.m. system

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12
Q

which time is used to tell time at SkyWest Airlines

A

The 24-hour clock

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13
Q

Conventional clocks only mark how many hours?

A

12 hours

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14
Q

In order to convert p.m. hours from conventional time to 24 hour clock time you add how many hours to the conventional time?

A

Add 12 to the conventional p.m. hours

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15
Q

How to pronounce military time 1546?

A

“fifteen forty six”

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16
Q

What is the conventional and military time for one o’clock p.m.?

A

Conventional: 1:00pm
Military: 1300 “thirteen hundred”

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17
Q

What is the conventional and military time for seven fifteen a.m.?

A

Conventional: 7:15 am
Military: 0715 “oh seven fifteen”

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18
Q

What is the conventional and military time for five in the morning?

A

Conventional: 5:00 am
Military: 0500 “oh five hundred”

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19
Q

What is the conventional and military time for noon?

A

Conventional: 12:00 pm
Military: 1200 “ twelve hundred”

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20
Q

True or false:

The “O” on the twenty four hour clock is pronounced as zero (0) when stating military time.

A

False, it is pronounced as “oh”

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21
Q

Atlanta, Georgia is in what time zone?

A

Eastern standard time

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22
Q

Denver, Colorado is in which time zone?

A

Mountain standard time

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23
Q

If it is 0600 in Tampa, Florida what time is it in San Diego, California?

A

3 hours difference so 0300 (3:00am)

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24
Q

True or false: Phoenix, Arizona does observe daylight savings

A

True

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25
Q

What does ABS stand for?

A

Automated Briefing System

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26
Q

What is the abbreviation for aircraft?

A

AC

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27
Q

What does ACAA stand for?

A

 Air Carrier Access Act

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28
Q

What is the abbreviation for Americans with Disability Act

A

ADA

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29
Q

AE stands for what?

A

 American Eagle

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30
Q

What is the abbreviation for Automated External Defibrillator?

A

AED

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31
Q

AFT stand for?

A

Rearward

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32
Q

AFT FA stands for?

A

 Rearward Flight Attendant

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33
Q

APU stands for?

A

 Auxiliary Power Unit

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34
Q

AS stands for?

A

 Alaska Airlines, Operated by SkyWest Airlines

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35
Q

ASAP stands for?

A

 Aviation Safety Action Program

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36
Q

What is the abbreviation for Air Traffic Control?

A

ATC

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37
Q

What is the abbreviation for Biohazard Cleaning Kit

A

BCK

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38
Q

What does CDK stand for?

A

 Communicable Diseases Kit

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39
Q

CFA stands for what?    

A

Chief Flight Attendant

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40
Q

FAPM stands for what?

A

Flight Attendant Policy Manual

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41
Q

CRJ stands for what?

A

Canadair Regional Jet

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42
Q

CRM stands for?

A

Crew Resource Management

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43
Q

CRO stands for?

A

 Complaint Resolution Official

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44
Q

CSA stands for?

A

 Customer Service Agent

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45
Q

DGHM stands for?

A

 Dangerous Goods and Hazardous Materials

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46
Q

 Delta Connection

A

DLC

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47
Q

What does DOT stand for?

A

 Department of Transportation

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48
Q

What is the abbreviation for Direct View Panel

A

DVP

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49
Q

What does EDK stand for?

A

 Extended Delay Kit

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50
Q

What does EGD stand for?

A

 Extended Ground Delay

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51
Q

What does EMB 120 stand for?

A

 Embraer Brasilia Aircraft

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52
Q

What does ERJ 175 stand for?

A

 Embraer Regional Jet

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53
Q

What does EMK stand for?

A

Emergency Medical Kit

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54
Q

What does EOW stand for?

A

 Extended Overwater Operation

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55
Q

What does ERJ 175 stand for?

A

 Embraer Regional Jet

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56
Q

What does ETA stand for?

A

Estimated Time of Arrival

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57
Q

What does ETD stand for?

A

Estimated Time of Departure

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58
Q

What does FA stand for?

A

Flight attendant

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59
Q

What does FO stand for?

A

First officer

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60
Q

What does FAA stand for?

A

 Federal Aviation Administration

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61
Q

What does FAK stand for?

A

 First Aid Kit

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62
Q

What does FAM stand for?

A

Federal Air Marshal

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63
Q

What does FAR stand for?

A

 Federal Aviation Regulation

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64
Q

What does FFDO stand for?

A

 Federal Flight Deck Officer

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65
Q

What does FFOD stand for?

A

 First Flight of the Day

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66
Q

What does FWD stand for?

A

Forward

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67
Q

What does FWD FA stand for?

A

Forward flight attendant

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68
Q

What does GPU stand for?

A

Ground Power Unit

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69
Q

What does GSU stand for?

A

 Ground Security Coordinator

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70
Q

What does GSD stand for?

A

Galley service door

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71
Q

What does HHD stand for?

A

 EasyPurchase Handheld Device

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72
Q

What does ICE stand for?

A

 Immigration Custom Enforcement

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73
Q

What does ID stand for?

A

 Identification

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74
Q

What does INOP stand for?

A

 Inoperative

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75
Q

What does IOE stand for?

A

Initial Operating Experience

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76
Q

What does IOR stand for?

A

 Irregular Operations Report

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77
Q

What does LEO stand for?

A

Law Enforcement Officer

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78
Q

What does LSK stand for?

A

Lavatory Supply Kit

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79
Q

What does M2 stand for?

A

Delta Connection Cashless Sales Device

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80
Q

What does MCD stand for?

A

 Main Cabin Door

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81
Q

What does MDT stand for?

A

Manual Deploy Tool

82
Q

What does MOD stand for?

A

 Manager On Duty

83
Q

What does MX stand for?

A

 Mechanical

84
Q

What does NRPS stand for?

A

 Non-Revenue Positive Space

85
Q

What does NRSA stand for?

A

 Non-Revenue Space Available

86
Q

What does OCC stand for?

A

 Operational Control Center

87
Q

What does OJI stand for?

A

On-the-Job Injury

88
Q

What does OO stand for?

A

SkyWest Airlines

89
Q

PA stand for?

A

 Public Address

90
Q

PAX stand for?

A

Passenger

91
Q

PBE stand for?

A

Protective Breathing Equipment

92
Q

PBS stands for?

A

Preferential Bidding System

93
Q

PED stands for?

A

Portable Electronic Device

94
Q

POB stands for?

A

Portable Oxygen Bottle

95
Q

POC stands for?

A

Portable Oxygen Concentrator

96
Q

POS stands for?

A

Alaska Airlines Point of Sale Cashless Sales

97
Q

PSU stands for?

A

Passenger Service Unit

98
Q

PIC stands for?

A

Pilot-in-Command/Captain

99
Q

PIN stands for?

A

Passenger Index Number

100
Q

QR stands for?

A

 Quick Reference

101
Q

RON stands for?

A

Remain Overnight

102
Q

SIDA stands for?

A

Security Identification Display Area

103
Q

SSI stands for?

A

Sensitive Security Information

104
Q

TAFB stands for?

A

Time Away From Base

105
Q

TR stands for?

A

Temporary Revision

106
Q

TSA stands for?

A

Transportation Security Administration

107
Q

UAX stands for?

A

United Airlines Express

108
Q

UMNR stands for?

A

Unaccompanied Minor

109
Q

USE stands for?

A

US Airways Express, Operated by SkyWest

110
Q

VSI stands for?

A

Visual Service Indicator

111
Q

WX stands for

A

Weather

112
Q

The period of time beginning when an aircraft first moves under its own power from the ramp blocks and ending when the aircraft comes to rest at the ramp blocks at any station or other point of termination.

A

Actual Block to Block

113
Q

 Refers to the rear portion of the aircraft.

A

AFT

114
Q

A device that is used or intended to be used for flight in the air

A

Aircraft

115
Q

Speed at which the aircraft is traveling through the air; it may be less or more than the relation to the ground

A

Airspeed

116
Q

A service operated by the appropriate authority to promote a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of aircraft.

A

Air Traffic Control

117
Q

 The height of an aircraft above sea level usually expressed in feet.

A

Altitude

118
Q

An electronic device used to maintain control of the aircraft when desired by the crew.

A

Auto Pilot

119
Q

To turn or tip the airplane either to the right or to the left in order to change direction of the aircraft.

A

Bank

120
Q

A schedule built by the company, which may consist of trips, reserve days and days off.

A

Bid

121
Q

A wall that divides the cabin interior wholly or partially.

A

Bulkhead

122
Q

A 24-hour period starting at 0001 local time and ending at 2400 local time.

A

Calendar Day

123
Q

A pilot who is in command of an aircraft and crew while on duty and is responsible for the manipulation of the flight controls of an aircraft.

A

Captain/PIC

124
Q

Company material/company mail carried onboard the aircraft from city to city.

A

COMAT

125
Q

 Seating arrangement onboard the aircraft.

A

Configuration

126
Q

A required plane change to arrive at a destination.

A

Connection

127
Q

A person assigned to perform a duty in an aircraft during flight time.

A

Crewmember

128
Q

Effective utilization and communication with all resources to achieve safe, efficient flight operations.

A

Crew Resource Management

129
Q

The group that assigns flight attendants to trips based upon need.

A

Crew support

130
Q

Bombardier Canadair Regional Jet – 50 passengers, one-class cabin.

A

CRJ 200

131
Q

Bombardier Canadair Regional Jet – 65 passengers, 9 first class and 56 economy seats.

A

CRJ 700 (65 Pax)

132
Q

 Bombardier Canadair Regional Jet – 70 passengers, one-class cabin.

A

CRJ 700 (70 Pax - AS) 

133
Q

Bombardier Canadair Regional Jet – 70 passengers, 6 first class and 64 economy plus/economy seats.

A

CRJ 700 (70 Pax - UAX) NextGen

134
Q

Bombardier Canadair Regional Jet – 76 passengers, 12 first class and 64 coach seats.

A

CRJ 900 (76 Pax)

135
Q

An employee who has the responsibility for assisting customers, whether it’s a customer relations, frontline, gate, cargo, or ground operations employee. Flight attendants interact with customer service representatives in boarding and deplaning passengers.

A

Customer service agent

136
Q

Transportation of a crewmember from one point to another in order to cover a trip or return to base.

A

Deadheading

137
Q

Most direct flight making intermediate stops.

A

Direct Flight

138
Q

The city designated by the company where flight attendants are based.

A

Domicile

139
Q

The time beginning at the report for duty time and terminating at the release from duty time.

A

Duty Time

140
Q

Embraer Brasilia 120 - 30 passenger turbo-prop aircraft. One class cabin. Has three variants (AFT Galley, FWD Galley, FWD Galley with Cart).

A

EMB 120

141
Q

Embraer Regional Jet – 76 passengers, 12 first class and 64 economy plus/economy seats.

A

ERJ 175

142
Q

A flight set up to move aircraft from one station to another without passengers.

A

Ferry Flight

143
Q

A pilot second-in-command whose duty is also to assist or relieve the Captain/PIC in the manipulation of the controls of an aircraft, including takeoff and landing.

A

First officer

144
Q

Movement of an airplane from its point of origin to its final destination.

A

Flight

145
Q

Individual qualified to perform safety duties and deliver customer service in the aircraft cabin.

A

Flight Attendant

146
Q

The actual elapsed time from departure to arrival for purposes of pay.

A

Flight Time

147
Q

Refers to front portion of the aircraft.

A

Forward

148
Q

Flight attendant who teaches training courses or performs IOE and line checks.

A

Ground Instructor

149
Q

Building in which aircraft maintenance is performed and administrative offices and training are housed.

A

Hangar

150
Q

Wind blowing directly against the course of an aircraft.

A

Head Wind

151
Q

The team assigned to hire, train and manage flight attendants and handle the in flight aspects of each flight.

A

Inflight Operations

152
Q

Transportation segment of two or more airlines or commercial operators. (two flights on different carriers.)

A

Interline

153
Q

A scheduled stop between the origination of a flight and the termination of a flight.

A

Intermediate Stop

154
Q

Collapsible seat in the cabin or flight deck, for use by the flight attendant in the cabin and an observer in the flight deck.

A

Jumpseat

155
Q

 Conducts IOE training and administers line checks.

A

Lead Instructor

156
Q

That portion of the flight between two cities.

A

Leg

157
Q

A flight attendant whose schedule entitles him/her to hold a schedule built by the company.

A

Line holder

158
Q

Ropes used during water evacuations.

A

Life Lines

159
Q

 Most direct route making no stops.

A

Non Stop Flight 

160
Q

Check airmen, FAA inspectors, pilots and other individuals authorized to occupy the flight deck jumpseat.

A

Observer

161
Q

The company office at an airport concerned with the loading and working of a flight.

A

Operations

162
Q

The city where a flight begins.

A

Originating Station

163
Q

The set of procedures and checks that must be performed on the aircraft to ensure the aircraft is airworthy.

A

Preflight Inspection

164
Q

The time spent by a reserve crewmember on stand-by status at an airport designated by the Company.

A

Ready Reserve

165
Q

The 12 hour block of time as indicated on the schedule that a reserve line holder must be available to work.

A

Reserve status

166
Q

A schedule built by the Company utilizing PBS indicating reserve availability periods, assignments, and days off.

A

Reserve Line

167
Q

The period of time during which a flight attendant is relieved from duty away from his/her domicile for the purpose of legal rest.

A

Remain Overnight

168
Q

From point of origin, to a destination point and return to point of origin.

A

Round Trip

169
Q

Wind blowing in the same direction the airplane is traveling, thus increasing the ground speed.

A

Tail Wind

170
Q

To operate an aircraft under its own power on the ground, except when involved in takeoff and landing.

A

Taxi

171
Q

The aircraft or crew used to operate two or more flights, one going and one returning to the home base, within the same day.

A

Turn (local)

172
Q

A child traveling alone.

A

Unaccompanied Minor

173
Q

The time spent away from work, usually used for illness.

A

User Time

174
Q

The time spent away from work, usually used for rest, recreation, or travel.

A

Vacation Time

175
Q

True or false: Female hair can be worn down if it is shoulder length.

A

True.
Hair longer than shoulder-length (top of the shoulders) must be pulled back when serving food and/or beverages. When hair extends beyond the waist, it must be worn up or in a secured ponytail.

176
Q

True or false:

Male hair length cannot extend past the top of the collar.

A

True

177
Q

True or false:

Females must wear mascara.

A

True.

Mascara (black, brown or clear) and lip gloss or tint (natural shade) is required to be worn

178
Q 
The following items can be used to conceal a tattoo that is visible on your hand.
A. Band Aid
B. Make-up
C. Gloves
D. None of the above
A

D. None of the above

Visible tattoos are not permitted

179
Q

True or False: Sunglasses can be worn while inside the hangar.

A

False. Can only be worn outdoors

180
Q

True or false: Shoes must be fully enclosed.

A

True

181
Q 
Which of the following shoe type is unacceptable?
A. Patent leather loafer B. Leather pump
C. Doc Marten shoe
D. Tennis shoe
E. All of the above shoes are acceptable
A

D. Tennis shoe

182
Q

True or false: Women’s dress length cannot be more that 2 inches above the knee.

A

True

183
Q

True or false: Pants must be neatly pressed to be worn during training.

A

True

184
Q

True or false: Panty hose or full-footed tights must be worn with dresses and/or skirts.

A

True

185
Q

True or false: A jumpseat is a seat in the cabin for use by a flight attendant in the aircraft cabin.

A

True

186
Q 
Procedures and checks that must be performed on the aircraft to ensure airworthiness is:
A. Air Traffic Control 
B. Preflight Inspection 
C. Deadheading
D. Taxi
A

B. Preflight Inspection

187
Q

True or false: Interline is transportation on two or more different airlines.

A

True

188
Q

True or false: Remain overnight is where a flight attendant returns to his/her domicile.

A

False

189
Q 
The portion of flight between two cities is:
A. Direct flight
B. Leg
C. Turn
D. Intermediate stop
A

B. Leg

190
Q 
The company office at an airport concerned with the loading and working of a flight.
A. InFlight Operations 
B. Crew Support
C. Flight Control
D. Operations
A

D. Operations

191
Q

True or false: A tail wind is wind blowing in the same direction the airplane is traveling.

A

True

192
Q 
Building in which aircraft maintenance is performed.
A. Headquarters
B. Hangar
C. Airport Operations 
D. Training Facility
A

B. Hangar

193
Q

A ferry flight is:
A. A flight with revenue passengers on board.
B. A flight that has a mechanical problem.
C. A flight that is set up to move an aircraft from one station to another without passengers.
D. None of the above

A

C. A flight that is set up to move an aircraft from one station to another without passengers

194
Q

True or false: It is the responsibility of the flight attendant to maintain their weight in proportion to their height and represent a physically fit image. Weight must be of such proportion to height that a professional appearance is maintained and the physical ability to perform all job required functions is not hindered

A

True

195
Q

True or false: Chewing gum is permitted while in uniform in view of passengers or the public.

A

False

196
Q

True or false: Visible tattoos or visible body/face/head piercing or any type of plugs are not permitted while in
uniform, with the exception of earrings as stated herein

A

True

197
Q

True or false: Ace bandages, gauze or other wraps used to protect or cover an injury or infection are not
permitted to be worn during training

A

True

198
Q

True or false: Extreme styles of makeup, colors, glitter or sparkles are permitted

A

False they are not

199
Q

True or false: Mustaches must not be longer than the corner of the mouth or extend past the top of the upper
lip.

A

True

200
Q

Maximum sole thickness for woman’s shoes is how many inches?

A

One inch

Training Flashcards (11 decks)

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