Training Flashcards
1
Q
There are how many hours in one calendar day?
A
There are 24 hours in one calendar day
2
Q
There are how many minutes in one hour?
A
60
3
Q
The sun travels from?
A
From East to West
4
Q
In the a.m./p.m. system of telling time, a day starts when and progresses to when?
A
A day starts at 12 midnight and progresses to 12 noon
5
Q
a.m. stands for?
A
“ante meridian”
6
Q
“Meridian” means?
A
“noon” or “midday”
7
Q
After passing 12 noon, the afternoon (or evening) hours are counted from?
A
12 noon to 12 midnight
8
Q
p.m. stands for
A
“post meridian”
9
Q
“Ante” is the Latin prefix meaning?
A
“before”
10
Q
“Post” is Latin for?
A
“after”
11
Q
Which time system is always used when talking to a passenger?
A
Conventional time or the a.m./p.m. system
12
Q
which time is used to tell time at SkyWest Airlines
A
The 24-hour clock
13
Q
Conventional clocks only mark how many hours?
A
12 hours
14
Q
In order to convert p.m. hours from conventional time to 24 hour clock time you add how many hours to the conventional time?
A
Add 12 to the conventional p.m. hours
15
Q
How to pronounce military time 1546?
A
“fifteen forty six”
16
Q
What is the conventional and military time for one o’clock p.m.?
A
Conventional: 1:00pm
Military: 1300 “thirteen hundred”
17
Q
What is the conventional and military time for seven fifteen a.m.?
A
Conventional: 7:15 am
Military: 0715 “oh seven fifteen”
18
Q
What is the conventional and military time for five in the morning?
A
Conventional: 5:00 am
Military: 0500 “oh five hundred”
19
Q
What is the conventional and military time for noon?
A
Conventional: 12:00 pm
Military: 1200 “ twelve hundred”
20
Q
True or false:
The “O” on the twenty four hour clock is pronounced as zero (0) when stating military time.
A
False, it is pronounced as “oh”
21
Q
Atlanta, Georgia is in what time zone?
A
Eastern standard time
22
Q
Denver, Colorado is in which time zone?
A
Mountain standard time
23
Q
If it is 0600 in Tampa, Florida what time is it in San Diego, California?
A
3 hours difference so 0300 (3:00am)
24
Q
True or false: Phoenix, Arizona does observe daylight savings
A
True
25
What does ABS stand for?
Automated Briefing System
26
What is the abbreviation for aircraft?
AC
27
What does ACAA stand for?
 Air Carrier Access Act
28
What is the abbreviation for Americans with Disability Act
ADA
29
AE stands for what?
 American Eagle
30
What is the abbreviation for Automated External Defibrillator?
AED
31
AFT stand for?
Rearward
32
AFT FA stands for?
 Rearward Flight Attendant
33
APU stands for?
 Auxiliary Power Unit
34
AS stands for?
 Alaska Airlines, Operated by SkyWest Airlines
35
ASAP stands for?
 Aviation Safety Action Program
36
What is the abbreviation for Air Traffic Control?
ATC
37
What is the abbreviation for Biohazard Cleaning Kit
BCK
38
What does CDK stand for?
 Communicable Diseases Kit
39
CFA stands for what?    
Chief Flight Attendant
40
FAPM stands for what?
Flight Attendant Policy Manual
41
CRJ stands for what?
Canadair Regional Jet
42
CRM stands for?
Crew Resource Management
43
CRO stands for?
 Complaint Resolution Official
44
CSA stands for?
 Customer Service Agent
45
DGHM stands for?
 Dangerous Goods and Hazardous Materials
46
 Delta Connection
DLC
47
What does DOT stand for?
 Department of Transportation
48
What is the abbreviation for Direct View Panel
DVP
49
What does EDK stand for?
 Extended Delay Kit
50
What does EGD stand for?
 Extended Ground Delay
51
What does EMB 120 stand for?
 Embraer Brasilia Aircraft
52
What does ERJ 175 stand for?
 Embraer Regional Jet
53
What does EMK stand for?
Emergency Medical Kit
54
What does EOW stand for?
 Extended Overwater Operation
55
What does ERJ 175 stand for?
 Embraer Regional Jet
56
What does ETA stand for?
Estimated Time of Arrival
57
What does ETD stand for?
Estimated Time of Departure
58
What does FA stand for?
Flight attendant
59
What does FO stand for?
First officer
60
What does FAA stand for?
 Federal Aviation Administration
61
What does FAK stand for?
 First Aid Kit
62
What does FAM stand for?
Federal Air Marshal
63
What does FAR stand for?
 Federal Aviation Regulation
64
What does FFDO stand for?
 Federal Flight Deck Officer
65
What does FFOD stand for?
 First Flight of the Day
66
What does FWD stand for?
Forward
67
What does FWD FA stand for?
Forward flight attendant
68
What does GPU stand for?
Ground Power Unit
69
What does GSU stand for?
 Ground Security Coordinator
70
What does GSD stand for?
Galley service door
71
What does HHD stand for?
 EasyPurchase Handheld Device
72
What does ICE stand for?
 Immigration Custom Enforcement
73
What does ID stand for?
 Identification
74
What does INOP stand for?
 Inoperative
75
What does IOE stand for?
Initial Operating Experience
76
What does IOR stand for?
 Irregular Operations Report
77
What does LEO stand for?
Law Enforcement Officer
78
What does LSK stand for?
Lavatory Supply Kit
79
What does M2 stand for?
Delta Connection Cashless Sales Device
80
What does MCD stand for?
 Main Cabin Door
81
What does MDT stand for?
Manual Deploy Tool
82
What does MOD stand for?
 Manager On Duty
83
What does MX stand for?
 Mechanical
84
What does NRPS stand for?
 Non-Revenue Positive Space
85
What does NRSA stand for?
 Non-Revenue Space Available
86
What does OCC stand for?
 Operational Control Center
87
What does OJI stand for?
On-the-Job Injury
88
What does OO stand for?
SkyWest Airlines
89
PA stand for?
 Public Address
90
PAX stand for?
Passenger
91
PBE stand for?
Protective Breathing Equipment
92
PBS stands for?
Preferential Bidding System
93
PED stands for?
Portable Electronic Device
94
POB stands for?
Portable Oxygen Bottle
95
POC stands for?
Portable Oxygen Concentrator
96
POS stands for?
Alaska Airlines Point of Sale Cashless Sales
97
PSU stands for?
Passenger Service Unit
98
PIC stands for?
Pilot-in-Command/Captain
99
PIN stands for?
Passenger Index Number
100
QR stands for?
 Quick Reference
101
RON stands for?
Remain Overnight
102
SIDA stands for?
Security Identification Display Area
103
SSI stands for?
Sensitive Security Information
104
TAFB stands for?
Time Away From Base
105
TR stands for?
Temporary Revision
106
TSA stands for?
Transportation Security Administration
107
UAX stands for?
United Airlines Express
108
UMNR stands for?
Unaccompanied Minor
109
USE stands for?
US Airways Express, Operated by SkyWest
110
VSI stands for?
Visual Service Indicator
111
WX stands for
Weather
112
The period of time beginning when an aircraft first moves under its own power from the ramp blocks and ending when the aircraft comes to rest at the ramp blocks at any station or other point of termination.
Actual Block to Block
113
 Refers to the rear portion of the aircraft.
AFT
114
A device that is used or intended to be used for flight in the air
Aircraft
115
Speed at which the aircraft is traveling through the air; it may be less or more than the relation to the ground
Airspeed
116
A service operated by the appropriate authority to promote a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of aircraft.
Air Traffic Control
117
 The height of an aircraft above sea level usually expressed in feet.
Altitude
118
An electronic device used to maintain control of the aircraft when desired by the crew.
Auto Pilot
119
To turn or tip the airplane either to the right or to the left in order to change direction of the aircraft.
Bank
120
A schedule built by the company, which may consist of trips, reserve days and days off.
Bid
121
A wall that divides the cabin interior wholly or partially.
Bulkhead
122
A 24-hour period starting at 0001 local time and ending at 2400 local time.
Calendar Day
123
A pilot who is in command of an aircraft and crew while on duty and is responsible for the manipulation of the flight controls of an aircraft.
Captain/PIC
124
Company material/company mail carried onboard the aircraft from city to city.
COMAT
125
 Seating arrangement onboard the aircraft.
Configuration
126
A required plane change to arrive at a destination.
Connection
127
A person assigned to perform a duty in an aircraft during flight time.
Crewmember
128
Effective utilization and communication with all resources to achieve safe, efficient flight operations.
Crew Resource Management
129
The group that assigns flight attendants to trips based upon need.
Crew support
130
Bombardier Canadair Regional Jet – 50 passengers, one-class cabin.
CRJ 200
131
Bombardier Canadair Regional Jet – 65 passengers, 9 first class and 56 economy seats.
CRJ 700 (65 Pax)
132
 Bombardier Canadair Regional Jet – 70 passengers, one-class cabin.
CRJ 700 (70 Pax - AS) 
133
Bombardier Canadair Regional Jet – 70 passengers, 6 first class and 64 economy plus/economy seats.
CRJ 700 (70 Pax - UAX) NextGen
134
Bombardier Canadair Regional Jet – 76 passengers, 12 first class and 64 coach seats.
CRJ 900 (76 Pax)
135
An employee who has the responsibility for assisting customers, whether it’s a customer relations, frontline, gate, cargo, or ground operations employee. Flight attendants interact with customer service representatives in boarding and deplaning passengers.
Customer service agent
136
Transportation of a crewmember from one point to another in order to cover a trip or return to base.
Deadheading
137
Most direct flight making intermediate stops.
Direct Flight
138
The city designated by the company where flight attendants are based.
Domicile
139
The time beginning at the report for duty time and terminating at the release from duty time.
Duty Time
140
Embraer Brasilia 120 - 30 passenger turbo-prop aircraft. One class cabin. Has three variants (AFT Galley, FWD Galley, FWD Galley with Cart).
EMB 120
141
Embraer Regional Jet – 76 passengers, 12 first class and 64 economy plus/economy seats.
ERJ 175
142
A flight set up to move aircraft from one station to another without passengers.
Ferry Flight
143
A pilot second-in-command whose duty is also to assist or relieve the Captain/PIC in the manipulation of the controls of an aircraft, including takeoff and landing.
First officer
144
Movement of an airplane from its point of origin to its final destination.
Flight
145
Individual qualified to perform safety duties and deliver customer service in the aircraft cabin.
Flight Attendant
146
The actual elapsed time from departure to arrival for purposes of pay.
Flight Time
147
Refers to front portion of the aircraft.
Forward
148
Flight attendant who teaches training courses or performs IOE and line checks.
Ground Instructor
149
Building in which aircraft maintenance is performed and administrative offices and training are housed.
Hangar
150
Wind blowing directly against the course of an aircraft.
Head Wind
151
The team assigned to hire, train and manage flight attendants and handle the in flight aspects of each flight.
Inflight Operations
152
Transportation segment of two or more airlines or commercial operators. (two flights on different carriers.)
Interline
153
A scheduled stop between the origination of a flight and the termination of a flight.
Intermediate Stop
154
Collapsible seat in the cabin or flight deck, for use by the flight attendant in the cabin and an observer in the flight deck.
Jumpseat
155
 Conducts IOE training and administers line checks.
Lead Instructor
156
That portion of the flight between two cities.
Leg
157
A flight attendant whose schedule entitles him/her to hold a schedule built by the company.
Line holder
158
Ropes used during water evacuations.
Life Lines
159
 Most direct route making no stops.
Non Stop Flight 
160
Check airmen, FAA inspectors, pilots and other individuals authorized to occupy the flight deck jumpseat.
Observer
161
The company office at an airport concerned with the loading and working of a flight.
Operations
162
The city where a flight begins.
Originating Station
163
The set of procedures and checks that must be performed on the aircraft to ensure the aircraft is airworthy.
Preflight Inspection
164
The time spent by a reserve crewmember on stand-by status at an airport designated by the Company.
Ready Reserve
165
The 12 hour block of time as indicated on the schedule that a reserve line holder must be available to work.
Reserve status
166
A schedule built by the Company utilizing PBS indicating reserve availability periods, assignments, and days off.
Reserve Line
167
The period of time during which a flight attendant is relieved from duty away from his/her domicile for the purpose of legal rest.
Remain Overnight
168
From point of origin, to a destination point and return to point of origin.
Round Trip
169
Wind blowing in the same direction the airplane is traveling, thus increasing the ground speed.
Tail Wind
170
To operate an aircraft under its own power on the ground, except when involved in takeoff and landing.
Taxi
171
The aircraft or crew used to operate two or more flights, one going and one returning to the home base, within the same day.
Turn (local)
172
A child traveling alone.
Unaccompanied Minor
173
The time spent away from work, usually used for illness.
User Time
174
The time spent away from work, usually used for rest, recreation, or travel.
Vacation Time
175
True or false: Female hair can be worn down if it is shoulder length.
True.
Hair longer than shoulder-length (top of the shoulders) must be pulled back when serving food and/or beverages. When hair extends beyond the waist, it must be worn up or in a secured ponytail.
176
True or false:
| Male hair length cannot extend past the top of the collar.
True
177
True or false:
| Females must wear mascara.
True.
| Mascara (black, brown or clear) and lip gloss or tint (natural shade) is required to be worn
178
```
The following items can be used to conceal a tattoo that is visible on your hand.
A. Band Aid
B. Make-up
C. Gloves
D. None of the above
```
D. None of the above
| Visible tattoos are not permitted
179
True or False: Sunglasses can be worn while inside the hangar.
False. Can only be worn outdoors
180
True or false: Shoes must be fully enclosed.
True
181
```
Which of the following shoe type is unacceptable?
A. Patent leather loafer B. Leather pump
C. Doc Marten shoe
D. Tennis shoe
E. All of the above shoes are acceptable
```
D. Tennis shoe
182
True or false: Women's dress length cannot be more that 2 inches above the knee.
True
183
True or false: Pants must be neatly pressed to be worn during training.
True
184
True or false: Panty hose or full-footed tights must be worn with dresses and/or skirts.
True
185
True or false: A jumpseat is a seat in the cabin for use by a flight attendant in the aircraft cabin.
True
186
```
Procedures and checks that must be performed on the aircraft to ensure airworthiness is:
A. Air Traffic Control
B. Preflight Inspection
C. Deadheading
D. Taxi
```
B. Preflight Inspection
187
True or false: Interline is transportation on two or more different airlines.
True
188
True or false: Remain overnight is where a flight attendant returns to his/her domicile.
False
189
```
The portion of flight between two cities is:
A. Direct flight
B. Leg
C. Turn
D. Intermediate stop
```
B. Leg
190
```
The company office at an airport concerned with the loading and working of a flight.
A. InFlight Operations
B. Crew Support
C. Flight Control
D. Operations
```
D. Operations
191
True or false: A tail wind is wind blowing in the same direction the airplane is traveling.
True
192
```
Building in which aircraft maintenance is performed.
A. Headquarters
B. Hangar
C. Airport Operations
D. Training Facility
```
B. Hangar
193
A ferry flight is:
A. A flight with revenue passengers on board.
B. A flight that has a mechanical problem.
C. A flight that is set up to move an aircraft from one station to another without passengers.
D. None of the above
C. A flight that is set up to move an aircraft from one station to another without passengers
194
True or false: It is the responsibility of the flight attendant to maintain their weight in proportion to their height and represent a physically fit image. Weight must be of such proportion to height that a professional appearance is maintained and the physical ability to perform all job required functions is not hindered
True
195
True or false: Chewing gum is permitted while in uniform in view of passengers or the public.
False
196
True or false: Visible tattoos or visible body/face/head piercing or any type of plugs are not permitted while in
uniform, with the exception of earrings as stated herein
True
197
True or false: Ace bandages, gauze or other wraps used to protect or cover an injury or infection are not
permitted to be worn during training
True
198
True or false: Extreme styles of makeup, colors, glitter or sparkles are permitted
False they are not
199
True or false: Mustaches must not be longer than the corner of the mouth or extend past the top of the upper
lip.
True
200
Maximum sole thickness for woman's shoes is how many inches?
One inch
