Training Bulletins 81 - 119 Flashcards
TB #101 - (SEMS) When tactical resources are assigned to the Incident Base, what is their availability status?
- Out-of-service
TB #101 - (SEMS) Resources can be described both by _______ and by ______.
- “Kind” and “Type”
Examples
- Kind = helicopter, fire engine, patrol vehicle, etc.
- Type = Type 1, Type 3, etc.
TB #101 - (SEMS) A staging area is a temporary location at an incident where personnel and equipment are kept while awaiting tactical assignments. This will be located within ______ minute(s) travel time to the area of expected need.
- 5 minutes
TB #101 - The ICS Forms Catalog has been added to the Department library in Volume 5. Operational SEMS forms begin with “ICS Form No. _____” and end with “ICS Form No. _____.”
- ICS Form No. 201
- ICS Form No. 221
TB #101 - (SEMS) Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFR) is airspace restrictions for non-emergency aircraft in the incident area. They are limited to a _____ nautical mile radius and ______ feet in altitude.
- 5 nautical mile
- 2,000 feet
TB #101 - (SEMS) In the staging area, resources are always in a available status. This means they are ready for an assignment within _____ minute(s).
- 3 minutes
There may be more than one staging area for an incident.
TB #101 - (SEMS) Operational Periods is the time scheduled for execution of a given set of operation actions as specified in the Incident Action Plan. Operational Periods can be of various lengths, although usually not over _____ hour(s).
- 24 hours
TB #101 - (SEMS) How many status conditions can tactical resources be in at an incident?
- 3 status conditions
- Assigned resources
- Available resources
- Out-of-service resources
TB #101 - How many organizational levels is SEMS divided into?
- 5 levels
- Field response level
- Local government level
- Operational area
- Regional
- State
TB #101 - (SEMS) All primary services and support activity for the incident are usually located and performed here. What is the name of this incident facility?
- Incident Base
TB #101 - (SEMS) A geographical area in which a task force/strike team leader or supervisor of a single resource is assigned authority and responsibility for coordination of resources and implementation of planned tactics. What is this area called?
- Segment
TB #101 - What level of SEMS is the communication link to the Federal disaster response system?
- State level
TB #101 - (SEMS) Regarding the Incident Base, how many are allowed for each established incident?
- Only one
Normally the Base will not be relocated.
TB #101 - ICS National Training Curriculum is a series of _____ training modules consisting of instructor guides, visuals, test, and student materials.
- 17 modules
TB #101 - (SEMS) What type of numbers are Segments identified with?
- Arabic numbers
TB #101 - The Span of Control pertains to the number of individuals that one supervisor can effectively manage. In ICS, the span of control for any supervisor falls within the range of _____ to _____ individuals.
- 3 to 7 individuals
The rule of thumb is 5 subordinates for every supervisor.
TB #101 - The Standardized Emergency Management System (SEMS) was a result of the 1991 “_____________ Fire” in Oakland. After the fire, Senate Bill 1841 was passed by the State Legislature and made effective January 1, 1993.
- “East Bay Hills Fire”
The intent of this law is to improve the coordination of State and Local emergency response agencies in California.
TB #101 - (SEMS) Supervisors must maintain a Unit Log, ICS Form _____ indicating names of personnel assigned and a listing of major activities during an Operational Period.
- ICS Form 214
TB #103 - When applying Class “B” foam, it is desirable to utilize a high-quality foam stream. At least _____% of the stream flow should land on the flammable liquid.
- 80%
TB #103 - Since less energy is needed to proportion the foam concentrate with water, Hydro-Foam Nozzles can operate effectively at low nozzle pressures of _____ PSI or less.
- 75 PSI or less
TB #103 - In-line Foam Eductor - friction loss is ____ PSI per 100 feet of 1-1/2” hose, or ____ PSI per 100 feet of 1-3/4” hose.
- 35 PSI
- 25 PSI
TB #103 - Connect sufficient 1-1/2” hose to reach from the JRC discharge to reach the Hydro-Foam Nozzle “pigtail.” What is the maximum amount of hose you can use?
- 1,000 feet
TB #103 - (In-line Foam Eductor) What is the desired selected mixture percent for Class “B” flammable liquids/polar solvents?
- 3%
TB #103 - The Bubble Cup spray tip nozzle pressure is 100 PSI and friction loss for 1” hose is _____ PSI per 100 feet.
- 25 PSI
TB #103 - When using the Hydro-Foam Nozzle and JRC together, expect to use _____ gallon(s) of concentrate per minute of operation while water is flowing.
- 20 gallons
TB #103 - The Hydro-Foam Nozzle comes with a reinforced plastic “pigtail” that is _____ feet long.
- 8 feet long
TB #103 -To pump foam using the Hydro-Foam Nozzle and JRC, develop a hose lay to deliver a minimum of _____ GPM at 100 psi from the source of water to the Hydro-Foam Nozzle.
- 660 GPM
TB #103 - The Hydro-Foam Nozzle produces high-quality foam that expands to the optimum Class “B” foam range from ___:1 to ___:1.
- 3:1 to 6:1
TB #103 - What GPM tip must always be used with the 1-1/2” In-line Foam Eductor?
- 125 GPM spray tip
TB #103 - How many feet reach does the Hydro-Foam Nozzle have?
- 180 feet
TB #103 - When calculating the pressure to pump to the JRC, the appliance is ____ PSI (constant), and the 1-1/2” hose is _____ PSI per 100 feet.
- 50 PSI
- 35 PSI
TB #103 - The Hydro Foam Nozzle delivers ______ GPM at 100 PSI.
- 660 GPM
TB #103 - The In-line Foam Eductor has metering that allows foam mixtures ranging from 0.5% to ____% (Williams’ Brand) and 0.25% to ____% (Task Force Tips).
- 6%
- 6%
TB #103 -When using 1-1/2” hose with the In-line Foam Eductor, the hose lay from the eductor to the spray nozzle must be ______ feet.
- 150 feet
TB #103 - The foam proportioned mixture on the Hydro-Foam Nozzle is ____%
- 3%
TB #103 - The Bubble Cup spray tip is capable of producing aspirated foam, with an expansion ratio of ___:1, as well as conventional straight stream and wide protective fog pattern.
- 8:1 expansion ratio
TB #103 - The Hydro-Foam Nozzle and Jet Ratio Controller are carried on all ______________.
- 200 Series Engines
TB #103 - The Task Force Tips Bubble Cup spray tip is both a conventional and aspirating type nozzle. The Bubble Cup tip has a flow range of ___/___ GPM.
- 10/40 GPM
TB #103 - When using 1-3/4” hose with the In-line Foam Eductor, the hose lay from the eductor to the spray nozzle must be ______ feet.
- 250 feet
TB #103 - When 1-1/2” or 1-3/4” hose is utilized to move the in-line educator away from the apparatus and closer to the objective, pump ______ PSI plus the required friction loss.
- 200 PSI
TB #103 - Class “A” foam increases the effectiveness of water by ____ to ____ times.
- 3 to 5 times
TB #104 - (USAR) The Atmospheric Monitor is responsible for determination of atmospheric conditions. This person(s) must be trained to the Confined Space Rescue Operations Level for “___________” confined space rescues (OSHA).
- “Permit required”
TB #104 - (USAR) Supplied Air Respirators used by Rescue Team member(s) involve a separate air supply manifold, which is maintained by a Breathing Air Supply Monitor outside of the confined space. The rescuer is connected by air hose, up to a maximum of ______ feet in length, to the air manifold.
- 300 feet
TB #104 - (USAR) As an incident expands, problems and/or specific needs may increase to a point where the IC cannot effectively manage all of them. The solution is to delegate the responsibility and form the ___________ Staff.
- General Staff
Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Finance/Administration
TB #104 - (USAR) What team will prohibit unauthorized or unprotected personnel from entering the operational area on a USAR incident?
- Perimeter Control Team
This can be a non-USAR company.
TB #104 - (USAR) Statistics show that nearly ____% of all confined space deaths are potential rescuers associated with secondary entries.
- 60%
TB #104 - (USAR) Which team leader is responsible for the execution of all rescue, shoring, extrication, patient packaging and removal operations?
- Rescue Team Leader
TB #104 - (USAR) This “section” will maintain situation and resource status records, document any information relative to the incident, and provide required technical expertise. What section is this?
- Planning Section
TB #104 - OSHA records have shown that _____% of all confined space injuries and deaths are related to atmospheric condition.
- 90%
TB #104 - (USAR) What “section” is responsible for specific functions such as ground support, food, base, supplies, communications, etc.?
- Logistics Section
TB #104 - NFPA Standard on Operations and Training for Technical Rescue Incidents, identifies and establishes levels of functional capability for safely and effectively conducting operations at technical rescue incidents. This is NFPA _______.
- NFPA 1670
TB #104 - (USAR) Regarding confined space PPE’s, unless not practical, a confined space rated harness with upper _______ midpoint attachment shall be worn for entries.
- Upper back midpoint attachment
TB #104 - (USAR) This member is responsible for direct control of the entry portal at a USAR incident. What position is this?
- Attendant
This member will maintain communications with the rescue team(s) and operates at the entry to the rescue site.
TB #104 - (USAR) What “section” has the function to deploy, direct, and coordinate tactical resources engaged in the tactical activities required to meet strategic goals established by the IC?
- Operations Section
TB #104 - This team supports the Rescue Team operations based on incident specific needs. When required for incidents, they will provide rope rescue systems and anchors for rescue and retrieval of patients. What team is this?
- Technical Support Team
TB #104 - NFPA 1670 identifies how many technical rescue incidents types?
- 7 types
- Structural collapse
- Rope rescue
- Confined space operations
- Vehicle and machinery extrication
- Water rescue
- Wilderness search and rescue
- Trench and excavation rescue
TB #104 - (USAR) The __________ assigned to the divisional US&R task force and the officer assigned to US&R 88 should be used to assist the IC with the development of an operational plan.
- Captain II
TB #104 - (USAR) What’s the title of the Supervisor who is responsible for the completion of the “Permit Entry” when a Confined Space Entry Permit is required?
- Rescue Group Supervisor
TB #104 - (USAR) The Technical Safety Officer (TSO) assigned to the Technical Support Team will be responsible for overseeing all operations in the operational area in regards to technical systems and safety. What member from USAR 88 will normally fill this role?
- Apparatus Operator
TB #104 - The ICS system is expandable, based on the needs of the incident. Components may be added or removed as such on large scale, moderate duration incidents lasting ____ to ____ hours.
- 6 to 8 hours
TB #106 - What Chief from the United States Forest Service developed LCES after being involved in several fatal wildland fires?
- Chief Paul Gleason
TB #106 - (LCES) What type of “vision” does the company officer operating on a hoseline with their crew have?
- Surrounding vision
TB #106 - (LCES) This is an area that does not require any protection, such as SCBA’s and hoselines, for the members in order to survive. What is this area called?
- Safety zone (or safe refuge)
TB #106 - The LL in LLCCESS stand for _________ and _________.
- Lookouts
- Location
TB #106 - (LCES) At a multi-story incident, how many floor(s) below the fire may the safety zone be?
- 2 floors below fire
TB #106 - A method of communicating to a company operating inside that the fire conditions are changing is by ________ on the hoseline.
- Pulling on the hoseline
TB #106 - (LCES) How many “watch out” situations have been identified for interior structure firefighting?
- 14 “watch outs”
TB #106 - (LCES) How has communications been best accomplished when members are working at incidents?
- Face to face
TB #106 - (LCES) Our department has adopted the air horn signal as an adjunct to an operational retreat. Sounding the horn for 10 seconds followed by 10 seconds of silence and repeating this cycle _____ time(s) for a total of _____ second(s) indicates that all companies need to retreat to their safe area.
- 3 times
- 50 seconds
TB #106 - (LCES) How many “watch out” situations have been identified for fighting fire in the wildland?
- 18 “watch outs”
TB #107 - Nerve agents belong to a group of chemicals known as ______________, which cause physiological effects similar to many pesticides.
- Organophosphates
TB #107 - Which auto-injector from the Mark 1 Kit should be given first?
- Atropine
TB #107 - Which are the only LAFD members who can administer Mark 1 Kits to affected civilians?
- Only Paramedics
FF/EMT’s may only use for themsleves or another LAFD member.
TB #107 - Survival Technologies, Inc. (STI) has supplied over _____ million auto-injectors to the U.S. Department of Defense and allies since 1958.
- 65 million
TB #107 - Any patient who recieves one dose from the auto-injector should be immediatley placed under medical evaluation for at least _____ hour(s).
- 24 hours
TB #107 - After the intra-muscular injection of 2 PAM Cl, _____ to _____ minutes after, mild to moderate pain may be experienced at the site of injection.
- 40 to 60 minutes
TB #107 - Administer an auto-injector in the thickest part of the thigh. Hold firmly in place for _____ second(s), then remove. Massage the area of injection.
- 10 seconds
TB #107 - The Mark 1 Kit contains Atropine ____ mg, and 2-Pam Chloride ____ mg.
- 2 mg
- 600 mg
TB #107 - What is the shelf life for a Mark 1 auto-injector kit?
- 5 years
TB #107 - Cold weather will affect the physcial state of the auto-injectors since they freeze at temperatures below _____ degrees F.
- 29 degrees F
TB #107 - The Atropine in the Mark 1 Kit has a ________ cap.
- Yellow cap
(Green body)
TB #107 - Division and Battalion Sedans will store the Mark 1 Kit in a marked bag in the __________.
- Trauma box
TB #107 - The 2-Pam Chloride in the Mark 1 Kit has a ______ cap.
- Grey cap
(Black body)
TB #107 - The Mark 1 Kit has auto-injectors that are the antidotes which relieves or counters the effects of poisons such as ___________.
- Nerve agents
TB #107 - Special Duty and Staff Personnel will store the Mark 1 Kit in a trauma box if assigned. If no trauma box is available, the Mark 1 Kit shall be stored in the _____________.
- Glove compartment
TB #107 - What forms are needed for a replacement of lost or stolen Mark 1 Kits?
- F-______
- F-______
- F-225 (to BES)
- F-80 (Medical Supplies Unit)
TB #107 - When replacing lost or stolen Mark 1 Kits, who do you forward the F-225 to?
- Bureau of Emergency Services (BES)
TB #109 - What is the preferred method for delivering oxygen in the prehospital care setting?
- Non-rebreather mask
TB #109 - What covers the exhalation ports on the non-rebreather mask?
- Rubber washers
TB #109 - On the non-rebreather mask, what prevents the patient’s exhaled air from mixing with oxygen in the reservoir?
- One-way valve
TB #109 - (Non-rebreather mask) Set the oxygen regulator flow at a rate that prevents the reservoir bag from collapsing when the patient inhales. The usual setting is _____ LPM.
- 15 LPM
TB #109 - The nasal cannula will have a oxygen setting no less than ____ LPM and no greather than ____ LPM.
- 1 LPM (no less)
- 6 LPM (no greater)
TB #109 - The nasal cannula will deliver a O2 concentration ranges from 24% to ____%.
- 24% to 44%
TB #109 - All Paramedic and EMT resources shall maintain a minimum supply of 3 nasal cannulas, 3 adult non-rebreathers, and 3 pediatric oxygen masks. How much of an additional supply shall be maintained in quarters?
- 1 month supply
TB #109 - How many primary oxygen adjuncts are used in the prehospital care setting?
- 2
- Non-rebreather mask
- Nasal cannula
TB #109 - On the non-rebreather mask, during inhalation, the patient draws in _____% oxygen from the reservoir bag.
- 100%
TB #110 - (Bullard Thermal Imager) For best performance, charge each of the batteries every _____ week(s) at a minimum.
- 2 weeks
TB #110 - When using the Bullard Thermal Imager, cooler objects will appear ________ or darker shades.
- Black
TB #110 - (Bullard Thermal Imager) How often do you replace with a fully charged battery?
- Weekly
TB #110 - When viewing the screen on the Bullard Thermal Imager, what can occur around the hottest objects?
- Haloing
TB #110 - In a very hot environment, actual visible flames may appear as _________ when using the Bullard Thermal Imager.
- White
TB #110 - (Bullard Thermal Imager) What color is the large button on the left side of the unit that turns on the imager?
- Green
TB #110 - To conserve battery life on the Bullard Thermal Imager, put the unit into sleep mode by pressing the ________ sleep button on the left hand side of the unit.
- Yellow
TB #110 - When using the Bullard Thermal Imager, the hottest objects will appear _________ or lighter shades.
- White
TB #110 - (Bullard Thermal Imager) The Thermal Throttle controls the amount of energy that reaches the thermal detector (similar to a pupil in the eye.) Most of the needed adjustment will be accomplished within a __/__ turn of the Thermal Throttle.
- 1/4 turn
TB #110 - When turning on the Bullard Thermal Imager, after approximately _____ second(s), the thermal image will appear accompanied by a calibrating gray scale at the bottom of the screen.
- 20 seconds
TB #110 - (Bullard Thermal Imager) Before using the nickel metal hydride battery for the first time, how many times should it be charged and discharged?
- 3 times
This will enable the battery to achieve maximum life.
TB #110 - The Bullard Thermal Imager requires a few moments to warm up and complete the self-calibration process. It will be fully operational in _____ second(s).
- 45 seconds
TB #112 - On the Foam Tender, the Class “B” foam system is capable of pumping _____ GPM of concentrate.
- 350 GPM of concentrate
TB #112 - When the Foam Tender’s Class “A” Foam setting is at 0.3% (lowest setting), it can produce _________ gallons of solution.
- 60,000 gallons
TB #112 - The Foam Tender is built on what type of chassis?
- Freightliner 112
TB #112 - The Foam Tender has four Class “A” foam metering valves adjustable from ____% to ____%.
- 0.3% to 1.0%
TB #112 - The Foam Tender monitors have a reach of ______ feet when using CAFS.
- 270 feet
TB #112 - If a Foam Tender is needed, how many shall be requested?
- 2
TB #112 - How many passenger(s) can the Foam Tender sit?
- 2 passengers
TB #112 - The Class “B” system on the Foam Tender automatically balances and proportions the foam solution ranging from ____% to ____% despite variations in water pressure or flow.
- 1.0% to 10.0%
TB #112 - The Foam Tender has a ______ gallon Class “A” foam concentrate tank.
- 200 gallon (Class “A” concentrate)
TB #112 - For larger hydrocarbon spills, the Foam Tender has sixteen 4”x10’ polypropylene oil-only Booms designed to be linked together for use on water or land. When saturated, they can absorb up to ____ times their own weight of the product.
- 25 times
TB #112 - The Foam Tender has a ______ gallon Class “B” foam concentrate tank.
- 1000 gallon (Class “B” concentrate)
TB #112 - The Foam Tender has a 1 inch chemical hose reel on both sides of apparatus that are _______ feet each.
- 150 feet
TB #112 - The Foam Tender is equipped with a _____ cubic foot per minute air compressor used for either the compressed air foam system (CAFS) or pneumatic tools such as those used by USAR apparatus.
- 400 CFM
TB #112 - On the Foam Tender, for larger spills, there are sixteen 4” x ___’ polypropylene oil-only booms designed to be linked together for use on water or land.
- 4” x 10’
TB #112 - The Foam Tender is equipped with kits for controlling hydrocarbon spills. The small kit contains ____ pad(s), five 48” socks, and four clean-up bags.
- 50 pads
TB #112 - At _____ PSI, the rear 2-1/2” monitor can produce 2,000 GPM.
- 116 PSI
TB #112 - The Foam Tender has two _____ pound dry chemical “Purple-K” systems.
- 350 pounds
(700 total)
TB #112 - When supplied by an adequate water service, the Foam Tender will flow ________ GPM from various monitors and discharge outlets.
- 4,000 GPM
TB #112- The Foam Tender is equipped with _____ feet of 1-1/2” hose located on the transverse hose bed.
- 400 feet
TB #112 - The Foam Tender relies on a independent pumping apparatus for a water supply. When practical, the Foam Tender should be supplied by up to ______ pumping apparatus.
- 3 pumping apparatus
TB #112 - The Foam Tender’s rear discharge and top mounted rear monitor have the capability of flowing up to _______ GPM each.
- 2000 GPM
TB #112 - On the Foam Tender, the Class “A” foam system is capable of pumping _____ GPM of concentrate.
- 24 GPM of concentrate
TB #112 - Engineers should supply the Foam Tender with a minimum of _____ 4 inch supply lines.
- 2 supply lines
TB #112 - When pumping to the Foam tender, the required flow pressure is _____ PSI, in volume, to the inlets.
- 100 PSI
TB #113 - Forty percent of the gross national product ( ____ million containers) is shipped through the Los Angeles and Long Beach ports annually.
- 25 million
TB #113 - There are 46 ladders located along the Alameda Corridor. They are located along the mid corridor trench every ______ feet.
- 1000 feet
TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) “DC” within a _______ shape indicates “DRAIN CUT OFF” (dike) at that location.
- Square shape
TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) “T” within a ________ shape indicates an “EMERGENCY TELEPHONE.”
- Traingle shape
Telephone boxes are located at the top and bottom of the trench adjacent to the access ladders.
TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) Retractable ladders are lowered with a hand crank. It takes ____ to ____ minutes to lower the retractable ladder to access the bottom of the corridor.
- 1 to 1-1/2 minutes
TB #113 - The Alameda Corridor extends from the ports of Long Beach and Los Angeles on the south to the downtown rail yards on the north, running on a _____ mile strip along Alameda Street and the Southern Pacific’s San Pedro branch right-of-way.
- 20 mile
TB #113 - The east track of the Alameda Corridor is identified as Track #____.
- Track #1
TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) There are ____ access points (ladders) that lead into the corridor from the street level.
- 46 access points
TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) When the retractable ladder is lowered, trains are notfied to slow down to _____ MPH.
- 10 MPH
TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) Trains can take over how far to stop?
- 1 mile
TB #113 - The center track of the Alameda Corridor is identified as Track #____.
- Track #2
TB #113- (Alameda Corridor) If you are working on an incident in the corridor, consider placing companies ____ to ____ miles away on both sides of the incident to act as scouts to warn the Incident Commander of oncoming trains.
- 1-1/2 to 2 miles
TB #113 - For medical emergencies within the Alameda Corridor, you will get a “___” Assignment and a Rescue Ambulance.
- “A” Assignment
TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) In the midcorridor section north of the 91 freeway, trains will descend into a _____ mile long (33’ deep x 51’ wide) trench through the cities of Compton, Lynwood, South Gate, Huntington Park, Vernon, and Los Angeles.
- 10 mile long
TB #113 - How many pump stations does the Alameda Corridor have?
- 2 pump stations
Located
- Nadeau St.
- Greenleaf Ave.
TB #113 - The average speed in the Alameda Corridor is _____ MPH.
- 40 MPH
TB #113 - The Alameda Corridor will eliminate conflicts at ______ street level railroad crossings, improve the roadway on Alameda Street along the corridor, and synchronize traffic.
- 200 crossings
TB #113 - If dispatched for a fire within the Alameda Corridor, you will get a “___” Assignment.
- “B” Assignment
TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) Each Division, Battalion, and fire company will be issued a Knox Box key engraved “________.” This will access the Knox Lock.
- “ACTA”
TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) Each pump station contains a catch basin located under the corridor ( ___ ft deep x 100 ft long x 51 ft wide) with a scrubber.
- 10 feet deep
TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) How many green Botz Dot(s) identify the retractable ladders?
- 2 green Botz Dots
TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) On each side of the corridor, a _____ foot wide water channel takes the runoff from the corridor to the catch basins.
- 4 foot
TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) In the case of a Haz/Mat materials spill, what can be inserted in the water channel to capture runoff?
- Metal dikes
These are provided at the base of each ladder.
TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) Cameras are located at each of the six fixed stair shafts along the corridor, the pump stations, and the north and south ends of the trench. These are provided for corridor security and monitored ____ hour(s) a day by railroad police.
- 24 hours a day
TB #113 - The Ports of Los Angeles and Long Beach are the _____ largest container shipping facilities in the world.
- 3rd largest
TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) The standpipe system is not a looped system. Dry standpipes are located every _____ feet along the corridor.
- 500 feet
TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) “EL” within a ________ shape box indicates an “EMERGENCY LADDER.”
- Diamond shape
TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) Utilities that cross over the corridor will be labeled in accordance with __________ standards.
- National standards
TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) How many green Botz Dot(s) identify the standpipe connections?
- 1 green Botz Dot
TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) “DS” within a ________ shape indicates a “DRY STANDPIPE” connection at that location.
- Circle shape
TB #115 - For a high/lethal exposure to cyanide, after crushing the Amyl Nitrate, tape inside the mask/BVM and ventilate for ____ second(s), remove ampule, then ventilate for 15 seconds.
- 60 seconds
TB #115 - The Paramedic Disaster Cache will be inventoried with the other controlled drugs at least _______ and anytime there is a change in personnel.
- Daily
TB #115 - The Paramedic Disaster Cache is secured in a gray plastic box, and is sealed with a small ________ padlock seal.
- Green padlock seal
TB #115 - There are _____ Mark-1 auto-injectors in the Paramedic Disaster Cache.
- 30 auto-injectors
TB #115 - Who will restock any part of the Paramedic Disaster Cache?
- EMS District Captain
TB #115 - (Paramedic Disaster Cache) Replacement of lost or stolen kits, or contents, shall be requested on an F-225 with an F-80. Where shall the F-225 be forwarded to?
- Bureau of Emergency Services (BES)
TB #115 - There are _____ Amyl Nitrate Ampules in the Paramedic Disaster Cache.
- 36 Amyl Nitrate
(3 boxes of 12)
TB #115 - What exposures does the Amyl Nitrate from the Paramedic Disaster Cache treat?
- Cyanide exposures
TB #115 - (Paramedic Disaster Cache) Over _________ tons of cyanide byproducts are produced annually.
- 300,000 tons
TB #115 - If a patient gets a moderate to high exposure to cyanide, you may detect a bitter ________ odor on the patient’s breath.
- Bitter almond odor
TB #115 - If exposed to cyanide in the eyes, immediately irrigate with water for a minimum of _____ minute(s).
- 10 minutes
TB #115 - For a moderate cyanide exposure, crush the Amyl Nitrate ampule in a _________ and allow the victim to hold and inhale the antidote vapor for ____ second(s).
- 4 x 4 gauze
- 60 seconds
Administer a new ampule every 2-3 minutes.
TB #116 - The maximum speed for the Metro Heavy Rail Line trains are _____ MPH.
- 70 MPH
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) Fire Department apparatus augmenting the combined standpipe system should supply _____ PSI.
- 125 PSI
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) Each car can seat 59 passengers, and has one wheelchair space, but can accommodate a total of ______ passengers in a standing “crush load.”
- 220 passengers “crush load”
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) If the trip switch is pushed, which personnel must respond to re-rack the breakers to restore power?
- Metro personnel
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) The trains are propelled by four traction motors per car, operated from ______ volts direct current (VDC).
- 750 VDC
TB #116 - On the Metro Rail Heavy Line cars, how many extinguisher(s) is each car equipped with?
- 2 extinguishers
10A/60BC
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) There are 2-1/2 inch outlets located approximately every _____ feet in the tunnel and cross passages.
- 250 feet
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) Emergency fans are powered by 200 horsepower electric motors and produce approximately __________ cfm.
- 150,000 cfm
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) The third rail carries _____ volts and can be on either side of the track.
- 750 volts
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) This is the first level below ground, which is the public access level to the tunnel. What is this level?
- Mezzanine Level
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) In the event of catastrophic loss of power, stationary diesel engine generators can be found in the main yard, and at the __________ Station.
- Vermont Station
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) In the event of any possible tunnel evacuation, there are a total of 93 cross passages staggered at approximately _____ foot intervals throughout the tunnel.
- 750 foot intervals
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) What level is the Emergency Management Panel (EMP) located?
- Mezzanine Level
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) When looking at the tunnels from the Union Station (at your back), the “AL” tunnel lies on the ______, and the “AR” tunnel is on the ______.
- “AL” - Left
- “AR” - Right
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) The normal assignment for structure fire incidents is a “____” Assignment.
- “B” Assignment
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) What is the most important area for initial Fire Department operations?
- Emergency Management Panel (EMP)
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) In what room would you reset fire alarms?
- Train Communication and Control Room (TC&C)
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) What level will the Emergency Trip Station (ETS) be found?
- Platform Level
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) Where will you find the Fire Department lock box directly adjacent to?
- Adjacent to the EMP (on the wall)
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) If an actual fire exists, where would the 3rd Task Force respond to?
- Station opposite to incident
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) The batteries are located under the “____” car and provide ______ VDC. A “disconnect switch” is located inside of the _________ compartment.
- “B” car
- 37.5 VDC
- Battery compartment
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) A fire suppression Under-Carriage Deluge System has been installed _________ the tracks at each side of all platforms. The deluge system is only activated _________.
- Between
- Manually
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) The Emergency Trip Station (ETS) is located at each end of the station for each track. What is the ETS indicated by on the wall?
- Blue Light Station (BLS)
TB #116 - This level contains the different control rooms for the station functions, such as the Train Communication and Control Room (TC&C), mechanical room, Department of Water and Power (DWP) power station, and fan room. What level is this?
- Ancillary Level
In some stations, an ancillary level may be encountered as the first level below the street.
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Line) Each car has two extinguishers rated at 10A/______. One is located in the operator’s cab, and the other is between the transverse passenger seats.
- 10A/60BC
TB #116 - The Metro Red and Purple lines currently service _____ station(s).
- 16 stations
TB #116 - Currently the Metro Heavy Rail Red/Purple Line is currently _____ mile(s) in length.
- 17.4 miles
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) The DWP power station room is energized with ________ volts and should not be entered by Fire Department personnel.
- 34,500 volts
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) What color are the emegency exit signs that do not exit to street level?
- Red signs
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) Milepost markers are used in the tunnels between terminals and are marked at distances not to exceed __/__ of a mile.
- 1/10th of a mile
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) Who must be notified prior to pushing the trip switch?
- Rail Operations Center (ROC)
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) Metro has an active fleet of _____ train cars.
- 104 train cars
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) - If you have an actual fire/physical rescue and a single Engine is first on scene, how many members will proceed to the lobby?
- 4 members
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) What color are the emegency exit signs that indicate street level egress?
- Green signs
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) The train configuration is set up with a minimum two car combination, which includes one “A” car (with the controller’s cab), and one “B” car, and up to _____ cars maximum.
- 6 car maximum
Normal configuration is 4 to 6 car trains depending on passenger load.
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) The collector shoe slides along the electrified contact rail to conduct primary power to the car and return regenerative braking power from the car to the contact rail. There are _____ collector shoes on each car.
- 4 collector shoes
When any one of the collector shoes is energized by making contact with the contact rail, all collector shoes are energized, and the entire train is energized (750 VDC).
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) This level is the area where passengers enter and exit trains. Passengers can access this level by elevator, escalator, or stairs. What level is this?
- Platform Level
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) A combined standpipe system is supplied by at least two _____ inch mains and will have two Fire Department Connections per station.
- 8 inch mains
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) The Platform Levels are designed to accommodate a _____ car train.
- 6 car train
Platforms are over 450 feet long.
TB #117 - (Port of LA Red Car Line) If the need arises to warn or stop oncoming railtraffic, red ______ (daytime only), or red flares can be placed between the rails spaced approximately ______ feet in both directions from the incident.
- Red flags
- 500 feet
TB #117 - The Port of LA Waterfront Red Car is on a ______ mile track, which is shared with trains of the Pacific Harborline (PHL) freight railroad.
- 1.5 mile track
TB #117 - (Port of LA Waterfront Red Car Line) The streetcars are powered by _____ volts (DC) distributed to the cars by the direct suspension overhead contact system (OCS).
- 600 volts DC
TB #117 - The Port of LA Waterfront Red Car Line has _____ station(s).
- 4 stations
TB #117 - (Port of LA Waterfront Red Car Line) The entire overhead contact system should be considered energized. The contact wire is held under _______ to _______ pounds of tension.
- 2,500 to 3,000 pounds tension
It is critical that emergency responders do not cut contact wire.
TB #117 - The Port of LA Waterfront Red Car Line has a maximum speed of _____ MPH.
- 20 MPH
TB #117 - (The Port of LA Waterfront Red Car Line) The Red Car has a stopping distance of _____ feet.
- 120 feet
TB #117 - The Port of LA Waterfront Red Car Line has _____ folding bridge(s) on the platform.
- 2 folding bridges
TB #117 - (Port of LA Waterfront Red Car Line) Allow _____ feet of clearance between yourself and a stopped railcar, in case of sudden movement.
- 10 feet
TB #117 - (Port of LA Waterfront Red Car Line) The station platform is _____ feet above the rail, and 54 feet long.
- 4 feet above the rail
TB #117 - (Port of LA Red Car Line) There are _______ signalized highway/rail grade crossings.
- 3 crossings
TB #117 - (Port of LA Waterfront Red Car Line) Streetcars are operated by a _____ person crew.
- 2 person crew
TB #118 - If you need a new operators manual for the Life Pack 12 defibrillator, where do you request a copy from?
- In-Service Training, EMS Training Unit
TB #119 - The Conterra Airway Bag comes with _____ detachable vinyl window pockets for organizing tubing, oxygen delivery, and portable suction devices.
- 2 detachable window pockets
TB #119 - The Conterra Airway Bag has a main compartment that is divided into ______ areas to organize oxygen equipment.
- 3 areas
TB #119 - If the Conterra Airway Bag gets contaminated, clean with a mild detergent and ____% bleach solution.
- 10% bleach solution
TB #81 - Body armor protects against _______ and ________ handgun bullets.
- Low
- Medium
TB #81 - Body armor is not designed to protect against ________ fire.
- Rifle fire
TB #81 - What are the names of the two different body armor vest manufacturers that the Department issues?
- 2.
- “Second Chance”
- “Safariland”
TB #81 - On the __________ body armor vest, the ballistic panels cannot be removed.
- “Second Chance”
TB #81 - Where can you obtain a temporary replacement body armor while your assigned vest is being washed and dried?
- Battalion Office
TB #81 - You must remove the ballistic panels on the ___________ body armor vest before cleaning.
- “Safariland”
TB #81 - When your body armor ballistic panels get damaged, where do you send them?
- S&M
TB #81 - If a body armor vest should need any repairs to the outer shell, they may be made by the _______________.
- Mobile turnout repairman
TB #81 - When body armor is carried on Department apparatus, it shall be stored in a ___________ or in a _______ Rescue Ambulance.
- Compartment
- Locked
TB #81 - Body armor is multi-layers of _________ or ___________.
- Kevlar
- Spectra Shield
TB #81 - The department issued body armor provides a protection Threat Level or Protection Level of ____.
- IIA
TB #82 - What area of the world did the “Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome” (SARS) originate from?
- Asia
TB #82 - If a member has been exposed to SARS, they need to monitor themselves for a fever and check their temperature _______ daily.
- Twice daily
TB #82 - If the initial PPD skin test is negative, a repeat skin test is conducted in ____ week(s).
- 12 weeks
TB #82 - Contact limited to being in the presence of a suspected source patient (person suspected of having a communicable disease). What is this level of exposure?
- Level I
TB #82 - This meningitis is generally less severe and resolves without specific treatment. What type of meningitis is this?
- Viral meningitis
TB #82 - Members who may have been exposed to SARS should be vigilant of a fever greater than ______ degrees F.
- 100.4 degrees F
TB #82 - What immunization is the City’s Occupational Health and Safety Division providing to uniformed personnel?
- Hepatitis B
TB #82 - Members who have been exposed to SARS should be vigilant of fever and respiratory symptoms over the ____ to ____ days following exposure.
- 10 to 14 days
TB #82 - What immediatley happens when a LAFD member has a positive chest x-ray?
- Placed off-duty
TB #82 - Contamination of clothing or intact (non-broken) skin, by blood or body fluids. What level of exposure is this?
- Level II
TB #82 - There is no specific treatment for smallpox disease, the only prevention is vaccination. Historically, smallpox has an overall fatality rate of about ____ percent.
- 30%
TB #82 - If the need to recap a needle arises, what technique shall members use?
- One-hand recap
TB #82 - Where do you discard the ziplock bags filled with the trash that was collected from an EMS incident?
- Hospital
In red-labeled biohazard bag or sharps container.
TB #82 - All exposed members to possible TB shall receieve a Purified Protein Derivative (PPD) at time of exposure unless they have had a negative skin test within the last ______ month(s).
- 3 months
TB #82 - What is needed when a LAFD member converts from a negative to a positive PPD skin test?
- Chest x-ray
TB #82 - Patients who are actively coughing shall have a ______ mask or _________ mask placed on them.
- N95
- Oxygen mask
TB #82 - Exposure of non-intact (broken) skin or mucous/conjunctiva membranes to blood or body fluids. This category also includes needle punctures and human bites. What level of exposure is this?
- Level III
Per Training Bulleting #82, what is the only level of exposure when a F-225 is forwarded to the Medical Liason Unit?
- Level II
DISCREPENCY
Volume 2 - Complete an F-225 or 5020 (State DWC Form 1) for all Level II and III Exposures.
TB #82 - What type of mask shall you wear while decontaminating equipment with possible infectious diseases?
- N95
TB #82 - What level of exposure requires you to complete a F-420, F-166 and DWC Form 1?
- Level III
TB #82 - Rescue ambulance patient care areas, apparatus seats, and equipment should be scrubbed with ____ part(s) bleach to ____ part(s) water when contaminated.
- 1 part bleach to 10 parts water (1:10)
Air dry, never use compressed air.
TB #82 - This meningitis can be quite severe and may result in brain damage, hearing loss, or learning disability. What type of meningitis is this?
- Bacterial meningitis
TB #82 - For a Level I exposure, document in…
- 2.
- F-2 Journal
- PRB
TB #82 - Before leaving the scene of an EMS incident, all trash created by members during the incident shall be collected and placed in ___________.
- Ziplock bags
TB #82 - Interpretation of the PPD test is done _____ to _____ hours after administration at the facility that administered the test. The PPD test will be repeated if not read within the time frame, but no sooner than _____ day(s) after the first test was administered.
- 48 to 72 hours
- 10 days
TB #82 - Disease exposure may be classified as either….
- 2.
- “Bloodborne Pathogen Exposure”
- “Airborne Pathogen Exposure”
TB #83 - African honeybee queens where imported into ________ in 1956.
- Brazil
TB #83 - How far will Africanized Honeybees chase an intruder?
- 1/2 mile
TB #83 - The intent of a hybrid bee was to boost productivity of the ___________ honeybee.
- European honeybee
TB #83 - European honeybees will drive a man or animal as far as _____ yard(s) before ceasing an attack.
- 400 yards
TB #83 - A Class “A” ___% mixture will kill Africanized Honeybees in minutes.
- 1%
TB #83 - Africanized Honeybees have a defensive action that can last up to ____ hour(s) or more.
- 8 hours
TB #83 - If you are attempting to escape from an Africanized Honeybee swarm, how shall you run away?
- Run in a straight line
Staying in one location can be fatal.
TB #83 - The Exclusion Zone will be a minimum of a _____ foot area established around the Africanized Honeybees. This area is subject to change according to swarm activity.
- 300 foot
TB #83 - After killing the Africanized Honeybees, where will you dispose of the insects?
- Rubbish container
Secure from access to children, animals, and birds.
TB #83 - If you are trying to neutralize bees and you have no foam on your apparatus, use a 1 inch hose line with a wide-angle fog spray covering the ground and a _____ foot air space around the victim.
- 30 foot air space
Request a resource with foam capability and be aware that bees may become more agitated with the “water only” option.
TB #83 - Africanized Honeybees have been migrating at a rate of _____ to _____ miles annually through Latin America and into the Southern United States.
- 200 to 300 miles annually
TB #83 - Who monitors the migration of the Africanized Honeybees?
- California Department of Food and Agriculture
TB #83 - Africanized Honeybees have the ability to detect the vibrations of a person or animal walking up to _____ feet away.
- 100 feet
They will then send out large numbers of bees to investigate/attack the disturbance. Once the first sting occurs, the bee releases an “attack pheromone” scent, which fills the air and signals to the hive that an attack has begun.
TB #83 - If a colony of bees is located inside a structure, such as in a wall, attic, or crawl space, the IC shall advise the property owner to select and request a pest control operator listed in the _____________.
- Yellow pages
Fire Department personnel shall not attempt to remove bees located inside a structure.
TB #83 - When Africanized Honeybees have been signaled that an attack has bugun, several hundred bees will join forces to repel the invader with an average defensive action of ____ stings per 30 seconds.
- 85 stings
TB #84 - (Metrolink Commuter Train) Each individual train has a supply of ______ AC volts of power, this can be turned off by shutting off the breaker switch located at the panel.
- 480 AC volts
TB #84 - Metrolink trains have a diesel fuel tank located under the locomotive, on both sides. They have a capacity of ________ gallons.
- 2,200 gallons
TB #84 - How many crew members operate a Metrolink train during operation?
- 2 members (Conductor & Engineer)
TB #84 - What two map sources can you use to locate tunnels for the Metrolink in the Chastworth area?
- 2.
- LAFD 1200’ map
- LA County Thomas Guide Book
TB #84 - Every Metrolink passenger commuter car has windows of double pane Lexan polycarbonate. Lexan is _____ time(s) stronger than safety glass.
- 250 times stronger
TB #84 - The locomotive on the Metrolink train is powered by a _____ Series Engine.
- GM Series Engine
TB #84 - (Metrolink Commuter Train) Engine and electrical power shutdown can be accomplished at the locomotive and control cab area by utilizing the 2 in 1 Engine Stop Button. The engine will shut down within ____ to ____ seconds.
- 30 to 40 seconds
TB #84 - (Metrolink Commuter Train) The control cab steers the train to its destination. It is located in the passenger commuter car (opposite of locomotive) identified with a letter “___” below the control cab window.
- Letter “F”
TB #84 - On a Metrolink train, which crew member is responsible for its entire service and safety?
- Conductor
TB #84 - Metrolink trains will consist of advanced low-pollution diesel locomotives pulling _____ to _____ double-decked passenger cars.
- 4 to 7
TB #84 - (Metrolink Commuter Train) The electrical panel in the passenger commuter car can be found inside a panel door, identified with a “___________” decal on the door.
- “No Smoking” decal
TB #84 - Metrolink trains have fuel cut off buttons located _________ the diesel tank on both sides of locomotive. Push the red button to shut off the Engine and Head End Power (HEP). Hold down for approximately _____ second(s) for fuel cut off.
- Above
- 20 seconds
TB #84 - Metrolink trains can travel up to ______ MPH in certain locations.
- 79 MPH
TB #84 - (Metrolink Commuter Train) The electrical panel will normally be found on the “___” end of the commuter car.
- “A” end
TB #84 - On a Metrolink train, which crew member is responsible to drive the train to its predesignated location?
- Engineer
TB #84 - Metrolink trains can carry a total of ______ passengers. Of these passengers, 149 are sitting.
- 360 passengers total
TB #84 - The Metrolink Commuter Link System has an air brake system with _____ PSI lines running throughout.
- 140 PSI
TB #84 - What agency operates the Metrolink?
- Southern California Regional Rail Authority
TB #84 - The completed Metrolink system will eventually travel over _____ miles and serve over _____ stations which will link the City of Los Angeles with five surrounding counties.
- 400 miles
- 60 stations
TB #84 - On Metrolink passenger cars, don’t cut into the passenger cars with a rotary saw, as the space between the walls contain electrical wires which can cause an electrical shock of up to ______ volts AC.
- 480 volts AC
TB #84 - (Metrolink Commuter Train) The emergency hand brake can be used to park the commuter car in an emergency. The hand brake can be located at the car __________ (between each passenger car). This handle is the color _________.
- Car vestibule
- White
To operate the emergency hand brake, locate the white handle, and pump the handle until the handle no longer moves. The use of the emergency hand brake shall be used only to park the passenger car.
TB #84 - (Metrolink Commuter Train) In the Chatsworth area of Battalion 15, there is a potential hazard due to _____ tunnel(s) with no _________ supply.
- 3 tunnels
- No water supply
Companies should note that there is no water supply or access other than the openings at each end of the tunnels.
TB #86 - What fumigant is used when other pesticide applications and/or standard tent/tarp fumigation techniques are impractical; such as ships, trains, aircraft, grain silos and golf courses with gopher problems?
- Aluminum phosphide
TB #86 - Under the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer and the Clean Air Act, methyl bromide was all but completely phased out of the United States in _______.
- 2005
TB #86 - During fumigation incidents when a rescue may need to be performed, ventilate by placing fire department blowers at a portal on the ___________ side of the structure.
- Windward
LAFD blowers will ventilate the building faster than pest control industry fans.
TB #86 - Hydrogen cyanide was prohibited throughout the US due to regulation stemming from the _______________ Convention in the year _______.
- Chemical Weapons Convention
- 1997
TB #86 - After fumigating with sulfuryl flouride, studies indicate there are less than 1 part per million within ____ hour(s) of clearing and no detectable levels within 24 hours after aeration.
- 6 hours
TB #86 - Sulfuryl flouride is used today in _____% of all fumigations in the United States.
- 95%
TB #86 - There are approximately ________ fumigations in Los Angeles County each year.
- 32,000 fumigations
TB #86 - What is the only fumigant that is approved for use in Los Angeles County?
- Sulfuryl flouride
TB #86 - Compressed Air Foam (CAF) is comprised of water, air and concentrate. What is the combination of these three components called?
- Mix ratio
The consistency of CAF can be adjusted by changing the mix ratio.
TB #86 - What fumigant is used in 95% of all fumigations in the United States?
- Sulfuryl flouride
TB #86 - Chloropicrin (tear gas) becomes unstable at temperatures above _____ degrees F, and can decompose violently above this temperature.
- 140 degrees F
It will off gas at normal atmosphere temperatures and is non-skin absorptive as as gas.
TB #86 - Aluminum phosphide cannot be used inside a structure nor closer than _____ feet from a structure where humans or domestic animals reside.
- 100 feet
TB #86 - All personnel working within _____ feet of the structure at pesticide incidents involving fumigation shall wear full PPE’s with SCBA on air.
- 30 feet
TB #86 - The flammable range of methyl bromide is from 10% to 16% in air, which correlates to the number “___” on the NFPA 704 placard for flammability.
- “1” (on NFPA 704 diamond)
TB #86 - Sulfuryl flouride is nonflammable, colorless, and odorless. What is the warning agent that will always be used with it?
- Chloropicrin (tear gas)
TB #86 - Unlike most other fumigants, this fumigant is skin absorptive and flammable. What fumigant is this describing?
- Methyl bromide
TB #86 - When hydrogen cyanide was phased out for fumigations, what fumigant replaced it?
- Methyl bromide
TB #86 - Aluminum phosphide is colorless with a ________ like odor.
- Garlic-like odor
TB #86 - At a incident where fumigation is being used, all personnel performing rescue or rapid extraction operations shall wear nitrile EMS gloves with either firefighting gloves or the ______ nitrile over-gloves from the Haz/Mat bag as the outer glove.
- Green nitrile over-gloves (Haz/Mat bag)
TB #86 - Effective November 1, _______, state certified fumigators were required to comply with the California Aeration Plan (CAP).
- 2010
TB #86 - Methyl bromide is odorless and is never used without adding an odorant. What is this odorant?
- Chloropicrin (tear gas)
TB #86 - Methyl bromide was phased out of the United States in 2005 because its effects on the _______ Layer.
- Ozone Layer
TB #86 - Sulfuryl flouride can cause frostbite at _____% F (boiling point) as it changes from liquid to gas.
- -67 degrees F
TB #86 - Methyl bromide is currently prohibited with the exception of a handful of agricultural, food processing, and commodity industries exempted from this prohibition. What industry in California would you still encounter this fumigant?
- Strawberry industry
It is used to fumigate strawberry fields soil prior to planting.
TB #86 - Chloropicrin is used during fumigation as a warning agent. It’s vapors are ____ times heavier than air.
- 5.7 heavier than air
TB #86 - Typical fumigations under the California Aeration Plan (CAP) are generally _____ day(s).
- 3 days
TB #86 - On “Day 2” while fumigating under the California Aeration Plan (CAP), aeration with tarpaulins will be in place for a minimum of _____ hour(s).
- 12 hours
TB #86 - Request a full _________ assignment for incidents involving aluminum phosphides.
- Haz/Mat assignment
TB #86 - Sulfuryl flouride is only 1/3 to ____ as effective as methyl bromide.
- 1/3 to 1/2 effective
TB #86 - Effective November 1st, 2010, state certified fumigators were required to comply with the California ___________.
- California Aeration Plan (CAP)
TB #86 - A fumigator must post a notice on the building indicating the ______ and ______ for re-entry.
- Day and time
TB #86 - What is the minimum size hose line that should be used for Emergency Decon at a fumigation incident?
- 1 inch
TB #87 - Proper spinal immobilization requires the patient’s head and spine to be secured to a backboard in a _________ in-line position before the patient is moved.
- Neutral
TB #87 - How many member(s) are required for proper spinal immobilization techniques?
- Two members
TB #87 - For spinal immobilization, the average adult patient requires 1.5 inches of padding between the patient’s occiput and backboard. Women require _____ inches and men require _____ inches on average.
- Women - 1.3 inches
- Men - 1.7 inches
TB #87 - Significant spinal inuries that result in a partial or complete dislocation of the vertebra from its normal alignment in the spinal column is called ____________.
- Subluxation
TB #88 - Compressed Air Foam (CAF) is a combination of water, _______, and ___________.
- Water
- Air
- Foam concentrate
TB #88 - A wet, fluid foam with a fast drain time is best suited for this type of application?
- Direct application
TB #88 - A dry, stiff foam will adhere to vertical surfaces and provide an insulating layer to exposed combustibles. What type of application is this best suited for?
- Indirect application (exposure protection)
TB #88 - Firefighting effectiveness of water improves when a surfactant is added because fog nozzle droplets are _____ times smaller resulting in increased surface area of water applied.
- 3 times
TB #88 - A dry stiff foam will adhere to vertical surfaces. While applying foam for exposure protection, a _____ inch layer is appropriate.
- 1/2 inch
TB #88 - The measure of foam produced compared to the amount of foam solution used to make the foam. What is this called?
- Expansion ratio
- Low - 1:1 to 20:1
- Medium - 20:1 to 200:1
- High - 200:1 to 1,000:1
- Low - flame knockdown, immediate wetting and mop-up
- Medium - putting down barriers, exposure protection and some mop-up applications
- High - effective insulators and suited for exposure protection
TB #88 - Class “A” foam is a synthetic, __________ based, hydrocarbon surfactant, that enhances the fire suppressant properties of plain water.
- Detergent based
TB #88 - If eyes are splashed with foam concentrate or solution, flush with clean water for _____ minute(s).
- 15 minutes
TB #88 - Which LAFD helicopter has an automatic foam injection system?
- Fire 3
TB #88 - What percent of Class “A” foam mixture is utilized for aerial water drops on brush fires?
- 0.1%
TB #88 - To get a 0.1% foam mixture in a LAFD helicopter for water drops, add approximately __/__ gallon of concentrate to the helicopter water tank after the tank is filled with water.
- 1/3 gallon
TB #90 - A sudden full room or area involvement in flame, or the sudden auto ignition of combustible surfaces and/or gases in an area heated by convection and/or radiation, resulting in a sudden and intense rise in temperature. What flash phenomena is this?
- Flashover
TB #90 - How many measurable factors are there in a Class “A” fire?
- 6 measurable factors
- Input heat
- Fuel
- Oxygen
- Proportioning of the fuel/air mixture
- Mixing of the fuel/air mixture
- Uninhibited chain reactions between active fuel/air molecules
TB #90 - This usually occurs after flashover and is defined as rapid flame spread over one or more surfaces during a fire. It is caused by the sudden ignition of combustible vapors that are produced from a heated surface. What flash phenomena is this?
- Flame over
TB #90 - The quantity of heat absorbed by a substance when passing between phases. What is this called?
- Latent heat
TB #90 - A firefighter caught in a flashover, just five feet inside a room, will be exposed to temperatures of _____ to _____ degrees F, and direct flame impingement for at least 2 seconds.
- 1,000 to 1,500 degrees F
During that time, face piece components will melt and portions of protective clothing will ignite and burn before the Firefighter could escape.
TB #90 - The transmission, spread, or distribution of heat through the motion of a heated fluid. What type of heat transfer is this?
- Convection
TB #90 - For backdraft to occur, oxygen content must fall to between ____% to ____%.
- 11% to 15%
TB #90 - (Fire Burns) Tests indicate that exposure to temperatures of only 280 to _____ degrees F will cause extreme pain and severe, full thickness burns to all unprotected skin.
- 280 to 320 degrees F
TB #90 - The transfer of heat through matter without any visible motion of that matter. This is the only method of heat transfer through solid objects. What type of heat transfer is this?
- Conduction
TB #90 - Steam can cause full thickness burns to unprotected skin with less than _____ second(s) of exposure.
- 3 seconds
TB #90 - What is the most dangerous stage of fire development and is one of the major causes of fire ground fatalities?
- Flashover
TB #90 - What type of burns develop faster and are more severe, due to latent heat transfer?
- Steam burns
TB #90 - For a backdraft to occur, explosive products of combustion are _____ to _____ degrees F and higher, well above their ignition temperature. They have mushroomed and pressurized the entire structure.
- 1,000 to 1,800 degrees F
TB #90 - Second degree burns can occur with exposure to only ______ degrees F.
- 111 degrees F
TB #90 - Radiant heat energy from a point source diminishes in intensity with increased distance according to the inverse square law or, if the distance is doubled, the temperature increase to the exposed body is reduced __________.
- Fourfold
TB #90 - BTU or British Thermal Unit is a basic unit of heat. A BTU is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of _____ pound(s) of water _____ degree(s) fahrenheit.
- 1 pound water
- 1 degree fahrenheit
TB #90 - What are the three stages in fire development?
- 3.
- Growth stage
- Fully developed stage
- Decay stage
TB #90 - This heat energy is transmitted similar to light waves and emanates equally in all directions, in straight lines. What type of heat transfer is this?
- Radiation
TB #90 - This is a sudden sporadic generation of flame mixed with smoke at the upper ceiling level just before flashover occurs. What flash phenomena is this?
- Roll over
TB #91 - Paramedic units shall treat cases of “hyperventilation syndrome” as a case of shortness of breath and make base station contact as per Department of Health Services (DHS) Reference Number _______.
- Reference Number 808
TB #91 - The “hyperventilation syndrome” occurs when people breathe _________ or ________ than normal, resulting in an _________ in the pH of the blood.
- Faster or deeper
- Increase in pH
TB #91 - The most common cause of “hyperventilation syndrome” in young people is simple __________.
- Anxiety
TB #91 - Other serious medical problems presenting with hyperventilation and anxiety include the _______ phases of both aspirin overdoses and sepsis.
- Early phases
TB #93 - When a Thermo-Gel coating dries, how do you rehydrate it?
- Spray with a fine mist
TB #93 - When pumping and applying Thermo-Gel, deliver _____ PSI to the nozzle. Add _____ PSI friction loss for the eductor.
- 75 PSI to nozzle
- 60 PSI friction loss (eductor)
TB #93 - What is the stated shelf life for Thermo-Gel?
- No stated shelf life
TB #93 - Only coat the portion of the structure with Thermo-Gel that is threatened by fire. A one gallon container will cover ______ to ______ sq feet.
- 500 to 700 sq feet
TB #93 - Do not get any water inside the Thermo-Gel container. How many drop(s) of water can react with the gel and has the potential to clog the metering valve?
- 1 drop
TB #93 - Thermo-Gel is a liquid concentrate composed of super absorbent __________.
- Polymers
TB #93 - When the threat of fire diminishes, what can normally be used to wash off the Thermo-Gel product?
- Ordinary garden hose
TB #93 - For Thermo-Gel applications, use ______ PSI friction loss per 100 feet of 1 inch hose.
- 10 PSI
TB #93 - The super absorbent polymers in Thermo-Gel can absorb how many times their weight in water?
- Hundreds
TB #93 - Do not delay cleaning the nozzle and metering valve after Thermo-Gel use more than ______ hour(s).
- 12 hours
TB #93 - The LAFD has had some success removing partially dried Thermo-Gel from a surface with a stiff ___________ and sweeping up the dry gel within _____ to _____ hours.
- Stiff bristle brush
- 24 to 48 hours
TB #93 - Before using Thermo-Gel, handshake vigorously for ______ minute(s).
- 2 minutes
TB #93 - What size container is the Thermo-Gel?
- 1 gallon
TB #93 - How often shall you rotate Thermo-Gel containers on the apparatus?
- Monthly
TB #93 - Regarding Thermo-Gel, companies shall carry one case of _____ containers on the apparatus.
- 4 containers
TB #93 - What is the process when foaming agents (such as Class “A” foam) are mixed with air and water to produce air bubbles?
- Aeration
TB #93 - When applying Thermo-Gel, coat the object until white and to a __/__ inch thickness.
- 1/4 inch thickness
TB #93 - How shall you store the Thermo-Gel containers while on the apparatus and in the station?
- On their side
This will keep the product from settling on the bottom of the container.
TB #93 - Tests have demonstrated that air bubbles from foaming agents burst when exposed to temperatures in the range of ______ degrees F.
- 170 degrees F
TB #93 - How often do you shake Thermo-Gel containers that are stored on the apparatus?
- Weekly
TB #93 - Every _____ month(s), Thermal-Gel will be shaken with the Battalion issued shaker for _____ minute(s).
- 6 months
- 5 minutes
TB #93 - Regarding Thermo-Gel, when the probability of brush fires increases, companies shall carry _____ additional case(s) on the apparatus. This brings the total product carried to _____ containers.
- 2 additional cases
- 12 containers
TB #93 - Foam blankets break down _____ to _____ minutes following application.
- 15 to 30 minutes
TB #93 - When applying Thermo-Gel, start with the _______ and then coat the _________ surfaces.
- Roof
- Vertical surfaces
Work back towards the apparatus.
TB #93 - Following application, Thermo-Gel can be expected to remain in place from _____ to _____ hours.
- 6 to 36 hours
TB #94 - Existing fire alarm manual pull boxes may be covered with plastic for protection from the asbestos abatement. How do you identify these covered devices?
- Red duct tape square around device
A cutting device shall be kept immediately adjacent to device.
TB #94 - When asbestos insulation is removed from the structural steel in high-rise buildings, it is required to be replaced within _____ day(s).
- 15 days
TB #94 - On single story buildings, what is the total percent of floor space that can be under active asbestos abatement at any one time?
- 50%
TB #94 - What FPB Unit do you report any illegal or unsafe asbestos abatement projects to?
- High-Rise Unit, FPB
TB #94 - A Division ____ Permit is required when removing over ______ sq feet of asbestos or when the asbestos is removed and reduces the fire resistiveness of any building.
- Division 5 Permit
- 100 sq feet
TB #94 - All existing sprinkler systems shall remain active on asbestos abatement projects. Sprinkler heads may be covered with a thin, 0.___ inch or less, plastic bag during abatement to avoid their contamination.
- 0.003 inch
TB #94 - High-rise buildings constructed prior to _______ used asbestos insulation on steel members.
- 1973
TB #94 - Commercial or habitational occupancies built from the mid 1930’s to the ______’s contain Asbestos Containing Materials (ACM’s) from insulation.
- Mid 1930’s to 1970’s
TB #94 - A Division 5 Permit for asbestos abatement is good for ______ day(s) from the date of issue.
- 180 days
Permit good for only the specific project it was issued for.
TB #94 - (Asbestos) A ___ x ___ inch sign with minimum 3 x 1/2 inch lettering on a contrasting background, indicating which floors are involved in the abatement process shall be immediately adjacent to the fire alarm annunciator panel.
- 12 x 12 inch sign
TB #94 - Asbestos is a fibrous material which is a carcinogen. They are very small from ____ to ____ microns.
- 1 to 20 microns
TB #94 - Wet Asbestos Containing Material (ACM) presents _______ of a hazard.
- Less hazard
TB #94 - Asbestos Containing Materials (ACM’s) have had a wide variety of uses. There are more than _________ products containg ACM’s.
- 3,000 products
TB #94 - What is the minimum width for the red duct tape that is used to identify alarm manual pull boxes that have been covered by plastic for asbestos abatement projects?
- 3 inches
TB #94 - On multiple story buildings (where more than 25 percent of the floor area is undergoing abatement, or under demolition in preparation for abatement), asbestos abatement is permitted on a ____________ basis.
- Floor-by-floor
No two consectutive floors at any time may undergo active abatement simultaneously. A maximum of every other floor, up to a total of three floors out of five, is permitted.
TB #94 -The licensed contractor performing the abatement process shall notify the LAFD in writing a minimum of _____ day(s) prior to the start of any abatement project.
- 10 days
TB #94 - When obtaining a permit for asbestos abatement, how many copy(s) of the plot plan shall be provided by the contractor?
- 3 copies
TB #94 - A LAFD Inspector has been assigned in the FPB for enforcement of Fire Prevention Requirement No. _____ - “Asbestos Abatement.”
- No. 68
TB #94 - Fire alarm pull boxes, FD communication jacks, signaling systems will remain active on asbestos abatement projects. They will be marked with signs containing lettering which is a minimum of ____” x ____” wide.
- 3” x 1/2” wide
On a contrasting background
TB #94 - What is the minimum of marked exits that shall be maintained from each floor during the abatement process?
- 2 exits
TB #94 - A fire watch shall be maintained by the on-site supervisor when the asbestos abatement project is _______ sq feet or more, and whenever the fire protective coating of the building’s structural members is removed.
- 1,000 sq feet
TB #94 - Where is the standard 20” x 14” black on yellow asbestos abatement warning sign placed in a building?
- Fire Control Room (adjacent to fire alram panel)
No Fire Control Room - shall be placed adjacent to the building’s fire alarm annunciator panel, or in a location approved by the Fire Department.
TB #94 - Who are contractors required to notify prior to abestos abatement?
- AQMD - Air Quality Management District
Failure to notify the AQMD will result in substantial fines imposed on the contractor.
TB #94 - When fire watch is required for asbestos projects, each area of the work site must be seen a minimum of once each ______ minutes.
- 30 minutes
This Fire Watch shall continue for a minimum of 30 minutes after the cessation of work.
TB #94 - What FPB Unit issues a Division 5 Permit for asbestos abatement?
- Engineering Unit, FPB
TB #96 - The lightweight yellow Nomex brush overpants are to be worn over the station ___________.
- Work uniform
TB #96 - The goal of the Department is to provide a protective clothing system for (Wildland) fires that will protect members for _________ exposure limits.
- Normal exposure
TB #96 - There are many uses for the firefighter field pack on brush/grass fires (carrying equipment, etc.) How many field pack(s) are assigned to every fire apparatus?
- 1 field pack
TB #96- When wearing full structure PPE’s at a brush fire, this this system may lead to the number one firefighting injury, that of excessive ______________.
- Internal heat stress
TB #97 - Experts have broken non-verbal communication into _____ category(s).
- 5 categories
- Voice signals
- Body signals
- Object signals
- Space signals
- Time signals
TB #97 - The non-verbal messages or “body language” that we send to others is _____ to _____ percent.
- 50 to 60 percent
TB #97 - Regarding “space signals”, it has been shown that an intimate distance reserved for only loved ones is between _____ to _____ inch(s).
- 6 to 18 inches
TB #97 - The message that we send to others is often _____ to _____ percent content (or the words we use).
- 7 to 10 percent
TB #97 - The communication through the tone of our voice is _____ to _____ percent.
- 33 to 40 percent
TB #97 - Belittling, making a fool of, embarrassing, or challenging someone. What term is this describing?
- Facing down
TB #97 - Regarding “space signals”, a personal distance for good friends is between _____ inch(s) to _____ feet.
- 18 inches to 4 feet
TB #97 - Victims deal with their feelings in a variety of ways. What is the most common way how they deal with their feelings?
- Blame
TB #97 - Regarding “space signals”, a social distance for acquaintances is between _____ feet to _____ feet.
- 4 feet to 12 feet
TB #97 - What type of communication can be the most meaningful way in which we communicate with the public?
- Non-verbal communicaiton
TB #97 - Regarding “space signals”, a public distance for strangers is ______ feet and more.
- 12 feet or more
TB #97 - When comparing violent criminals and non-violent convicts “body buffer zones”, how many more times larger do violent criminals require?
- 4 times larger
TB #98 - It has become the legal standard for courts to place greater credence on written documentation than on ________ testimony.
- Oral testimony
TB #98 - What takes priority over documentation of incident information on an EMS call?
- Patient care
TB #98 - As our EMS system evolves, it will become increasingly vital for members to frequently review the “Three P’s” to render proper patient care. What are the three “P’s?”
- 3.
- Policies
- Procedures
- Protocols
TB #99 - In swiftwater, who would be rescued as a second priorty?
- Teammates
TB #99 - In swiftwater, what is the position called when you are floating on your back with your feet facing downstream?
- Defensive body position
TB #99 - The tension diagonal is generally a rope which is tensioned across a channel at a downstream angle of no more than _____ degrees to the current flow or vector.
- 45 degrees
TB #99 - What is the most successfull way to deploy a throwbag when attempting to rescue a victim in the water?
- Underhand throw
This will spool the line out across the victim’s chest and has proven to be most effective. Rather than aiming the throwbag directly at the victim, this affords the victim an increased chance to grab the rope if it falls either upstream or downstream of him.
TB #99 - When attempting to use the rescue net on a swift water incident, from the ready position, the net is dropped into the water when the victim is still ____ to ____ seconds upstream.
- 5 to 10 seconds
TB #99 - River ______ is looking down stream with the river bank to the left.
- River left
TB #99 - A method of victim rescue from moving water is the use of inflated fire hose. The hose for this evolution is _____ to _____ feet (maximum) of 2-1/2 inch firefighting hose.
- 50 to 100 feet
TB #99 - On an annual basis in the United States, approximately _______ to _______ people die in water related emergencies.
- 6,000 to 9,000 people
TB #99 - The most alarming part of the annual statistics regarding drowning deaths, is that up to __/__ of these drownings are “would-be” rescuers.
- 1/3rd
TB #99 - Within Los Angeles County, on an annual basis, what is the average number of swiftwater incidents which are handled by first responders?
- 60 incidents
TB #99 - The ideal inflation pressure when using inflated fire hose for swift water rescue is _____ to _____ PSI.
- 50 to 60 PSI
This gives enough stability to prevent the line from kinking yet may be reached rapidly and safely.
TB #99 - A downstream “____” of water is caused by the convergence of a downstream water flow. This is considered a safe path of downstream travel.
- Downstream “V” (safe)
An upstream “V” is a dangerous downstream path. This is caused by water flowing around an object.
TB #99 - When you are within _____ feet of the water on a swiftwater incident, you must be wearing your specialized protective gear.
- 10 feet
TB #99 - During a swift water incident, after you fill the fire hose with air for a rescue attempt, how high above the water is the hose suspended?
- 1 foot
TB #99 - Regarding swift water, what is the priority?
- Self-rescue
TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) The emergency walkway is a footpath for pedestrian access/egress in the tunnel right of way. It is a minimum ____ inches in width.
- 30 inches in width
There is a walkway area on one side of the track, throughout the Red Line system on both bores of the tunnel to allow emergency personnel access to equipment and trains, and to off-load passengers in cases of extreme emergencies.
