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KC-130J > TPC Questions > Flashcards

TPC Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the rule with landing at airfields considering the runway’s ACN (Aircraft classification number) and PCN (pavement classification number)?

A

When the ACN is greater than the PCN, the aircraft should generally not land there.

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2
Q

What does the avionics battery power?

A

Avionics battery bus and avionics DC bus

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3
Q

What happens in NO PRESS?

A

Digital electronic controller depressurizes the cabin at the rate set by the AUTO RATE selector. When cabin altitude = aircraft altitude, the outflow and safety valve opens.

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4
Q

Flap retraction schedule?

A

At 100,000 lbs – at Vfuss (135 KIAS)
100,000 to 140,000 – begin at 135 KIAS and end at Vobs + 25 KIAS
above 140,000 raise flaps in 10% increments every 5 knts starting at Vobs + 5 and ending at Vobs + 25

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5
Q

What does squawk 7600 indicate?

A

Radio failure

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6
Q

EPOS/VRU

A

Emergency passenger oxygen system/Victim Rescue Unit is a consumable closed circuit rebreather system designed to provide emergency oxygen during decompression or smoke and fumes.

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7
Q

What is the maximum recommended crab angle during a crosswind landing?

A

5 degrees

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8
Q

When will the PROP 1 NO 119% PROTECT ACAWS appear?

A

NP overspeed automatic shutdown protection may not be available. This occurs during ground start if NP is not 0%. This may occur when starting the engine with a windmilling (from the wind) propeller and the FADEC does not perform the check of the independent overspeed protection circuit.

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9
Q

Essential crew requirements

A

Aircraft commander, copilot, crewmaster 1/2

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10
Q

What are the Aircraft Commander requirements? CNAF

A

Shall: 1. Complete the requirements for and possess to an advanced degree the knowledge, skill and capabilities of a T2P.

  1. Min 700 hours TPT
  2. Min 100 hours TMS
  3. Current instrument rating
  4. Demonstrate positive ability to command and train the officers and enlisted of the flight crew including enforcement f proper discipline
  5. Demonstrate the qualities of leadership and mature judgement required to conduct advanced base of DET unit ops as OIC
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11
Q

ATP-56C What are the altitudes for a HAAR receiver-low join?

A

300’ below AR altitude for receiver, 500’ above for tanker

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12
Q

NFM Ch. 4 Gross weight limitations

A

TAKEOFF Normal - 164,00; Alternate - 175,000; LANDING Recommended - 142,000 / 540 Normal - 164,000 / 300; Alternate - 175,000 / 300

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13
Q

NFM Ch. 5 Crew duty time start/end

A

Crew duty commences 2 hours prior to scheduled takeoff, or whenever first crew member commences crew duties or reports to work. Crew duty terminates 1 hour after engine shutdown, or at the completion of maintenance duties.

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14
Q

GP Holding procedures for leg distance

A

<14,000’ 1 minute; >14,000’ 1.5 minutes or published /assigned DME

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15
Q

GP When do you reduce airspeed prior to holding?

A

3 minutes prior

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16
Q

NFM Ch. 2 What are the normal ground indications for the RADALT

A

+1 to -3 feet

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17
Q

NFM Ch. 15 Aerial refueling manifold

A

3” AR manifold Pressures: 120 psi operating, 240 psi proof, 360 psi burst

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18
Q

NFM Ch. 4 Windmilling propeller limitation

A

Feathered/NG<7% - Fire Handle IN - 3 min; Feathered/NG>7% - Fire Handle IN - 20 min; Windmilling - Fire Handle IN - 5 min; Feathered - Fire Handle PULLED - 6 hours; Windmilling - Fire Handle PULLED - N/A

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19
Q

NFM Ch. 7 When do you place the engine start switch to STOP during a start?

A
  1. No NG within 10 sec 2. No oil pressure within 15 sec of NG 3. No oil pressure within 15 sec of NP 4. ENG FLAMEOUT (C), NO LIGHTOFF (A), STAGNATED START (A)
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20
Q

NFM Ch. 4 Maximum MGT during start, reverse, takeoff and max continuous.

A

Start 807, Reverse 833, Takeoff 852, Max Continuous 833

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21
Q

NTTP Ch. 8 When will CNI provide CARP XTX, CARP VERT or CARP XTX/VERT error? What will happen? When does this occur?

A

30 sec from CARP: -164 yards L/R ->200’ above planned MSL altitude ->200’ or 10% of AGL below planned MSL altitude You will get a red light

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22
Q

NFM Ch. 4What is the normal pressure for the auxiliary hydraulic system?

A

2760 - 3200 psi

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23
Q

NFM Ch. 7 Under what conditions should Heavy/High Speed Landing Procedures be accomplished?

A
  1. 100% flap landings above 155,000
  2. 50% flap landings above 130,000
  3. All 0% flap landings
  4. All landings @ elevations greater than 4000’ MSL
  5. Temperature > ISA +15*, elevation >2000’
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24
Q

NFM Ch. 4 What are the fuel pump pressures?

A

Transfer Pumps - 28-40 PSI Boost Pumps - 15-24 PSI (main tanks only)

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25
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 20 How much does Vmca increase when attempting to maintain wings level with 2-engines out and flaps at 50%?

A

+24 KIAS at light gross weights

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26
Q

NFM Ch. 7 What airspeed should be set approximately 100 ft prior to landing during a crosswind landing?

A

Vthrs+5

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27
Q

NFM Ch. 5 When does crew duty start and end?

A

Crew duty commences 2 hours prior to scheduled takeoff, or whenever first crew members commences crew duties or reports to work. Crew duty terminates 1 hour after engine shutdown, or at the completion or any maintenance duties.

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28
Q

NFM Ch. 2 What does the aux system operate?

A

Cargo ramp, emergency brakes, emergency nose gear extension

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29
Q

NFM Ch. 9 How much additional pressure do the suction boost pumps?

A

200 psi

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30
Q

NFM Ch. 4 Fuel Pump Pressures

A

Transfer Pumps - 28-40 psi Boost Pumps - 15-24 psi

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31
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 20 One engine inop Minimum Control Speed

A

Max airspeed at which when critical engine is made inop, directional control can be maintained with an angle of bank not to exceed 5*.

  1. ATCS operational
  2. No 1 engine failed and feathered
  3. Max takeoff power set
  4. Max rudder 150lbs
  5. Zero rudder trim
  6. Min flying weight
  7. Bank angle <5* away from failed
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32
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 20 How much does Vmca increase while maintaining a wings-levelattitude while three-engine?

A

Flaps Up… Vmca + 23 KIAS Flaps 50%… Vmca + 43 KIAS

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33
Q

NTTP Ch. 5 What are the dive rules of recovery?

A

Descent angle less than -15* at 1500’ AGL
Descent angle less than -10* at 1000’ AGL
Descent angle less than -5* at 500’ AGL

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34
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 20 What is refusal speed?

A

V1 - based on runway available and is defined as the maximum airspeed to which the aircraft can accelerate with engines at takeoff power and then stop within the remainder of the runway available, with two engines in symmetrical reverse, one ground idle, one feathered and maximum anti-skid braking.

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35
Q

NFM Ch. 4 Auto pilot limitations

A

Do not operate autopilot during:

  1. takeoff and landing
  2. > Vh
  3. ILS below 200’ HAT (I) or 100’ HAT (II) or below MDA on NPA, or over localizer
  4. IPRA below 200’ HAT
  5. <500’ AGL for non approach operations
  6. In RVSM, if unable to hold +- 65’
  7. Above 164,000 lbs and (a) below 1000’ AGL (b) during configuration changes (c) during approach operations
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36
Q

DIAGRAMS What does a trouble T indicate?

A

Signifies that the airport has non-standard IFR takeoff minimums.

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37
Q

QRH Ch. 7 Four engine flame out

A

Prop No1/4 auto-feather anytime FADEC detects criteria. No 2/3 windmill or auto-feather depending on MC logic. Below 15,500’, 3-engine, an IB engine auto-feathers after 2sec delay. Above 15,500’ OR 2-engines, an always IB windmills.
A. Aircraft pitch to maintain 15-28% NG (PF)
B. Power levers…FLT IDLE (PF)
C. Crossfeed switches…CLOSED (PM/CM)
D. No 2 & No 3 engine start switches…STOP/START/RELEASE (PM/CM)
E. No 1 ; No 4 engine start switches…STOP/START/RELEASE (PM/CM) STOP 1st to clear fail condition to prevent windmilling prop from auto-feathering

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38
Q

NFM Ch. 4What is the normal pressure for the utility and booster systems?

A

2900 - 3200 psi (15-100% flaps); 1100 - 1390 psi (0-15%)

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39
Q

CNAF Crew day/crew rest requirements

A

Flight crews shall not be scheduled for continuous flight duty in excess of 18 hours. If it becomes operationally necessary to extend beyond 18 hours, 15 hours off shall be provided. Crew rest can be less than 12-hours IOT maintain a 12-hour on/off cycle but shall always include an opportunity for 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep.

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40
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 20 Ground Minimum Control Airspeed assumptions

A
  1. No 1 engine failed and feathered
  2. Max takeoff power set
  3. ATCS operating
  4. Max rudder 150 lbs
  5. Flaps 50%
  6. Minimum takeoff weight
  7. No nosewheel steering
  8. Max lateral deviation 30’
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41
Q

T&R What must an aircraft commander do in order to sign for a plane at night?

A

No pilot shall sign for an aircraft for a night flight without having flown that model within the past 15 days

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42
Q

SOP What is the currency to sign as aircraft commander?

A

Minimum 5 hours with 1 takeoff and 1 landing within the previous 30 days in order to sign as aircraft commander. If uncurrent, must fly as T2Ps.

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43
Q

QRH Ch. 7 What is the airstart envelope?

A

< 250 KIAS, < 25,000’ for JP 5/8/Jet A; < 250 KIAS, < 22,500’ for JP 4

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44
Q

NTTP Ch. 6 How do you fly a random high approach?

A

Designed for the aircraft to fly outside the effective range of small arms and descend within the protected airspace of the base defense zone. Above point of intended landing: >4500’ AGL, 140 KIAS, Gear down, flaps 100%, before landing checklist, Commence 20-25* AOB standard rate descending turn at 2200 fpm rate of descent. 3400’ AGL, 2300’ AGL, 1200’ AGL; Final: 200-300’ and 1/2 mile; Touchdown: 100-300’

45
Q

GP Holding procedures airspeeds

A

0-6000’ - 200 KIAS; 6000-14,000’ - 230 KIAS; >14,000’ - 265 KIAS USAF - 310 KIAS; USN - 230 KIAS

46
Q

NFM Ch. 4 Landing gear extended airspeed

A

168 KIAS

47
Q

CFR Circling Minimums protected airspace

A

A - 1.3, B - 1.5, C - 1.7, D - 2.3, E - 4.5; Circling radius is increased depending on MDA. [C]

48
Q

NFM Ch. 2 How is the outflow valve controlled in AUTO, MAN and WOW?

A

AUTO: valve is pneumatically positioned by differential pressure;
MAN: valve is controlled electrically through the 1553B data buse, MC, ECBU and an electric motor.;
WOW: valve is electrically driven open to allow avionics cooling discharge.

49
Q

CNAF What are the severe weather watch bulletins filing criteria?

A

Pilots shall not file into or through areas with a WW unless:

  • Storm has not progressed as forecaster and VFR can be maintained, IFR with installed and operative weather radar, and/or IFR if VMC conditions exist.
  • Performance characteristics of aircraft permit en route altitude above existing or developing severe storms.
50
Q

QRH Ch. 5 Engine fire shutdown

A

A. Fire handle…Pull (PM)
B. Agent…Discharge (if req) (PM) wait 15 seconds before discharging 2nd bottle
C. Engine start switch…STOP (PM) Do not attempt restart

51
Q

NFM Ch. 4 What conditions must be met to be 540 sink rate limited?

A

Gross Weight: 142,000lb Fuel in No 1 or No 4: 7320lb Fuel in all main tanks: 28,000lb

52
Q

PERFMAN Ch 20 Two engine inop minimum control airspeed

A
  1. No 1 engine failed and windmilling, No 2 engine failed or feathered
  2. Maximum power set on remaining engines
  3. Max rudder 150lbs
  4. Flaps 50%
  5. Min flying weight
  6. 5* away from failed engines
  7. Rudder trim required for 3* approach with 3 engines 8. Gear down
53
Q

NFM Ch. 4 What is the APU duty cycle?

A

Limited to 1 minute on and 4 minutes off. No limit to the number of duty cycles

54
Q

NTRP Ch. 9 Chaff nomenclature

A

RR-170/AL for actual; RR-188/AL for training

55
Q

NFM Ch. 7 Maximum MGT before conducting a start

A

175 degrees

56
Q

NFM Ch. 2 Howdoes the safety valve operate?

A

Electrically controlled and pneumatically opened for emergency depressurization. Normal closed during pressurized operation. Opens during emergency depressurization, aux vent, or no-pressure operation, or while in AUTO with WOW and bleed air manifold is pressurized.

57
Q

NFM Ch. 15 How long is the warm up period for the ALE 47 CMDS?

A

5 sec

58
Q

NFM Ch. 4 What are the takeoff crosswind limitations?

A

If the aircraft is not pointed into the wind +/- 45 degrees, and the wind is greater than 15, but less than 35 knots, the limitations is 2500 HP until indicated airspeed is greater than 35 KIAS.

59
Q

SOP What consideration should be given when selecting an airfield?

A

Landing at the nearest suitable military or civilian field which has at least 6000’ of runway.

60
Q

NFM Ch. 12 What conditions are conducive to windshear?

A

Temp change of 10*F or more across a front or if front is moving at 30 knots or more

61
Q

CNAF Who must validate an approach in order for military aircraft to fly it?

A
  1. US TERPS
  2. PANS-OPS
  3. NATO verified by US govt
  4. OPNAV validation of Jeppesen
62
Q

NTTP Ch. 8 What is required to conduct parachute ops above 20,000’?

A

All personnel will pre-breathe 100% oxygen at or below 16,000’ for 30 minutes.

63
Q

NFM Ch. 2 Which booster system component is on the opposite side?

A

The elevator booster package is swapped in the back of the aircraft.

64
Q

NFM Ch. 2 When will the landing gear warning audio alert sound?

A

When the flaps lever is set at >70% with refueling pods NOT attached, or with the flaps set at >80% WITH refueling pods, and the landing gear is not down and locked, the landing gear warning audio will sound. It cannot be silenced until the landing gear is down and locked or the flaps lever is re-positioned.

65
Q

NFM Ch. 2 Why do we enter the nose wheel well from the left side only?

A

Because of the possible hazard of venting liquid oxygen from the oxygen converter in the nose wheel well.

66
Q

NFM Ch. 7 What are low fuel state ops?

A

Defined as operations that result in the aircraft landing at the final destination with less than 6000lbs. At 8000lbs, main tank fuel quantity should be evenly distributed.

67
Q

FAR/AIM What does squawk 7700 indicate?

A

Emergency aircraft

68
Q

SOP Takeoff and Landing Weight Permission

A 
Requiring OPSO notification: 
>155,000 during takeoff, 
>135,000 during landing;   
Requiring CO approval: 
>164,000 during takeoff, 
>142,000 during landing
69
Q

NTTP Ch. 6 What are the minimum runway requirements for ALZ operations?

A

TRAINING (initial)Landing: 3000’ or ground roll + 1000’; Takeoff: 3000’ or ground run + 1000’, or
AMFLMETO + 500’;
SUSTAINMENT TRAINING/OPERATIONAL Landing: Ground roll + 500’; Takeoff: Ground run + 500’ or AMFLMETO

70
Q

ORM What are the four principles of ORM?

A
  1. Accept risk when benefits outweigh costs
  2. Accept no unnecessary risk
  3. Anticipate and manage risk by planning
  4. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level
71
Q

NFM Ch. 7 What is the flight to ground idle transition speed limitation during a high speed landing?

A

145 KTAS

72
Q

CFR Aircraft approach category speeds? What speed is the based on?

A

Speed which aircraft approaches runway to land and to maneuver in event of a circle or missed. A < 90 KIAS B 91-120 KIAS C 121-140 KIAS D 140-165 KIAS E >166 KIAS

73
Q

GP Restricted area - special use airspace

A

Designated airspace within which flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to certain restrictions

74
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 20 What is the penalty for conducting crosswind takeoff?

A

200 feet should be subtracted from the runway distance available for computation of refusal speed.

75
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 20 What are runway condition readings?

A

RCR is a value which relates the average braking effectiveness of the particular runway surface to the braking capability of aircraft when containment is less than 3mm.
Dry - Good - 23;
Wet - Medium - 12;
Icy - Poor - 5

76
Q

NFM Ch. 7 What is the standard climb schedule used in the KC-130?

A

180 KIAS to 10,000’; 170 KIAS to 15,000’; 160 KIAS to 25,000’

77
Q

NFM Ch. 2 What does the booster hydraulic system operate?

A

50% of flight controls

78
Q

NFM Ch. 7 What are some considerations when conducting Heavy/High Speed Landings?

A

Refer to PERFMAN to determine Landing Weight Limited by Max Brake Kinetic Energy: Use 100% flaps, Consider the 139 GS NG tire speed during touch down and 145 KTAS propeller ground range limit. Fly an approach at 145 KIAS if above 151,000 lbs. Extend flaps in 10* increments. Consider using MAX E approach and landing speeds. Monitor stall carat carefully during configuration changes and power-off scenarios. Setup proper glidepath to avoid heavy sink rates. Should go around at 100’ if displaced +75’ laterally or +/- 1* off glidepath.

79
Q

FAR/AIM What is Vy and when is it used?

A

Vy is best rate of climb and used to gain altitude and reach cruising altitude quickly.

80
Q

NFM Ch. 15 How long should the IRCM be allowed to cool in standby?

A

15 minutes. as little as 5 seconds can be used to meet mission requirements.

81
Q

CNAF OPNAV requirements for un-pressurized aircraft with oxygen

A

All occupants shall use supplemental oxygen above 10,000. When oxygen is not available to other occupants, flight between 10,000-13,000’ is limited to 3 hours. Flight above 13,000’ is prohibited. Risk of DCS @ FL220 after 4 hours is 25%

82
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 22 Driftdown

A

If failure of one or two engines should occur during four-engine cruise operation, it may be necessary, due to the loss of power, for the aircraft to descend to a lower altitude. This forced descent is called drift-down.

83
Q

NFM Ch. 6 How does weight affect range?

A

For constant altitude operation, specific range increases with decreasing gross weight. Establish a new HP setting for each 5000 pounds of fuel burned.

84
Q

QRH Ch. 6 Rapid Decompression

A

a. Oxygen … NORMAL 100% ON (All)

85
Q

PERFMAN Ch. 20 What is the increase in Vmca with flaps 50% and one boost system inoperative?

A

+20 KIAS

86
Q

SOP What is the minimum LOX requirements?

A

10L when departing home station. Overwater flights shall not depart home station with less than 18L.

87
Q

QRH Ch. 5 Fire/Smoke/Fumes Elimination

A

a. Crew/Pax … notify (PF/PM)
b. Oxygen … EMER 100% ON (All)
WARNING - If flammable fumes are present or suspected, do not turn on or off electrical equipment not required to carry out the procedure. WARNING - If a fire is near an oxygen component or there is a possibility that the oxygen could increase the fire, consider closing the oxygen manual shutoff valve, provided portable oxygen bottles are adequate.

88
Q

GP Class A airspace

A

Generally, airspace about FL180 to FL600, including the airspace overlying the waters within 12 nm off the coast.

89
Q

QRH Ch. 3 What start malfunctions can be overridden by holding the start switch to START?

A

ENG 1 NO LIGHTOFF, ENG 1 STAGNATED START

90
Q

NFM Ch. 4 What are the fuel balance limits?

A
  1. 1000 lbs between symmetrical
  2. 1500 lbs between wings
  3. One aux full and the other aux empty, provided all other tanks are symmetrical.
91
Q

NFM Ch. 2 How does the asymmetrical flap protection work?

A

There are two asymmetrical sensing switches, one at each of the emergency flap brakes. If a torque tube in the system breaks or a coupling comes apart, the switches sense the resulting out-of-phase condition. When this occurs, DC power is routed by the switches to the emergency flap brake valve to lock the flap brakes. No further movement of the flaps is possible until maintenance resets the flap brakes.

92
Q

NFM Ch. 2 At what flap position will chaff dispensers become inoperative?

A

> 15%

93
Q

PERMAN Ch. 22 Service ceiling

A

Altitude at which the maximum rate of climb at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is 100 fpm.

94
Q

NFM Ch. 7 When do you pull the FIRE HANDLE during a start?

A
  1. ENG FIRE (W)
  2. ENG MGT HI (W)
  3. START VLV OPEN
  4. Visible indications of fire
  5. Visible fluid leak
    WARNING: If MGT rapidly approaches6 o’clock
95
Q

NFM Ch. 6 Constant true airspeed profile

A

To establish TAS, maintain climb power until desired TAS is achieved, then reduce HP for the remainder of the flight to maintain TAS as aircraft becomes lighter .

96
Q

NFM Ch. 15 CMDS Auto

A

Automatically dispenses chaff against radar threat detected by RWR and flares against IR threat detected by MWS.

97
Q

NFM Ch. 7 What do you set in the course while flying a Back Course Localizer?

A

The Localizer Front Course

98
Q

NFM Ch. 15 Counter Measures Dispensing System

A

ALE-47 provides chaff and flares. MWS, LAIRCM, IRCM and RWR send dispense commands. Modes: MAN, SEMI, AUTO, Programs 1-4,5,6

99
Q

NFM Ch. 4 Takeoff and Landing Fuel Management

A
  1. Maximum usable fuel weights.
  2. No 1 and 4 always contain 500 - 1000 lbs more fuel than No 2 and No 3.
  3. Main tanks are full, except for fuel used for taxi, takeoff, and climb; but not less than 7060 lbs in No 1 and No 4, and not less than 6410 in No 2 and No 3 when external tanks contain usable fuel.
  4. Fuel balance is within limits.
100
Q

NFM Ch. 2 How can you override the ATCS?

A

Three rapid depressions of either switch on the throttles within 2 seconds overrides the ATCS. Want to do if WOW and ATCS is erroneously on.

101
Q

NFM Ch. 6 How do you fly a constant true airspeed profile?

A

Maintain climb power until desired TAS is achieved, then reduce HP for the remainder of the flight to maintain TAS as aircraft becomes lighter.

102
Q

FAA What does it mean when a VOR frequency is underlined on a chart?

A

No voice is available, which means flight service would not be able to communicate to you through the VOR.

103
Q

NFM Ch. 7 What is the speed margin for maximum effort landing touchdown speed?

A

Within 3 knots

104
Q

QRH Ch. 5 APU Fire

A

A. APU Fire handle…Pull (P/CP/CM)

B. Agent…Discharge (if req) (P/CP/CM) wait 15 seconds before discharging 2nd bottle

105
Q

GP Diverse departure

A

If airport has at least one IAP, but no departure procedures (because no obstacles penetrate the 40:1 obstacle identification surface), then aircraft can ensure obstacle clearance by conducting a diverse departure. Climb at 200’/nm minimum gradient, runway heading. At 400’ AGL, execute assigned heading turn.

106
Q

NFM Ch. 4 What are the hydraulic accumulator preload pressures for the utility, booster, normal brake, emergency brake and aerial refueling systems?

A

Utility: 1500 +/-100 psi; Booster: 1500 +/-100 psi; Normal Brakes: 1500 +/- 100 psi; Emergency Brakes: 1000 +/-100 psi; AR: 1350 +/-50 psi

107
Q

QRH Ch. 5 Fire/Smoke/Fumes Elimination

A

A. Crew/Pax…Notify (PF/PM)

B. Oxygen…EMER 100% ON (All)

108
Q

CNAF What are the factors to consider when continuing 3-engine?

A

PIC should only proceed to destination after considering:

  1. Nature of emergency and possible mechanical difficulties if continued
  2. Altitude, weight and usable fuel at time of engine loss
  3. Terrain and weather en route and at airfield
  4. Traffic congestion at airfields
  5. Pilot familiarity
  6. Power remaining is sufficient

KC-130J (12 decks)

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