toxo model cram Flashcards

1
Q

Toxicant:

ii. Toxin:

A

Toxicant: man made poison introduced into the environment

ii. Toxin: natural poison produced by a living organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Toxicity

. Toxicosis:

A

Toxicity: the amount or degree of toxin/toxicity it takes to damage an
organism
iv. Toxicosis: disease state induced by the toxin/toxicant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Toxicology

Nanotoxicology

A

Toxicology: the branch of science which studies nature, effects, and
detection of poisons
vi. Nanotoxicology: Branch of toxicology which studies the toxicity of
nanoparticles (ultrafine particle between 1-100 nanometres in diameter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

dose/response:

A

dose/response: any increase in dose will cause a graded increase in
response
1. There are two types of dose-response curves
a. one that describes the graded responses of an individual
to varying doses of the chemical
b. one that describes the distribution of responses to
different doses in a population of individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

NOAEL:

LOAEL

A

NOAEL: No observed adverse effect level

iii. LOAEL: Lowest observed adverse effect level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

LC50:
LD50:

A

LC50: Lethal Concentration 50- concentration required to kill 50% of the
population
v. LD50: Lethal dose 50- dose at which 50% of population dies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Acute toxicology

A

Acute toxicology

  1. Adverse effects of a substance from an exposure for <24hrs
    a. Sub-acute=> 24 hours- 1 month
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Chronic toxicology

A

Chronic toxicology
a. Adverse effects of a substance from an exposure for >3
months
1. Sub chronic= >1-3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

toxic endpoint

A

A toxic endpoint is the result of a study conducted to determine how
dangerous a substance is. The data collected from such studies are used
to report the relative toxicity of the compound to various regulatory
agencies and environmental compliance groups. Toxic endpoints can
include mortality, behavior, reproductive status or physiological and
biochemical changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Developmental toxicity

A

Developmental toxicity focuses on pre-natal development of the
embryo or fetus. Toxicity may manifest as death of the embryo or
fetus, abnormal development or birth defects or retardation of
normal growth patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Reproductive toxicity

A

Reproductive toxicity looks at all aspects of fertility. This includes
the reproductive cycle, sexual behavior, gamete (sperm or egg)
production and transport, fertility (including sperm quality and
quantity), pregnancy outcomes, gestation, childbirth, lactation and
maternal behavior. These studies also examine postnatal survival,
growth and development of offspring. Some studies look at
multiple generations to detect heritable effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

DART studies (developmental and repro studies)

A

DART studies are conducted to ensure the safety of new life-saving drugs
before they go on the market. They are also used to determine the safety
of pesticides and other household or industrial chemicals. Results of
these studies are used to develop safety guidelines to reduce exposure
risks for different populations, including pregnant women, infants and
young children.
ii. Different types of studies are used to evaluate different aspects of
reproduction and development. Generally, DART studies can be divided
into two types, which can sometimes be combined. (developmental and reproductive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Regulatory Requirements for DART Studies

A

Regulatory Requirements for DART Studies
1. In the U.S., the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) have established guidelines for DART studies required for product registration and
approval. Similar regulations are in place in the European Union
(EU) and many other regions around the world. Companies must
present data from DART studies conducted per applicable
regulatory guidelines in order to market and use their products in
these countries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pharmaceuticals, DART studies reg requirements

A

Pharmaceuticals: In the U.S., the FDA approves pharmaceuticals
before they can be marketed. The toxicity tests that are required in
the U.S. are dictated by test guidelines put forth by the
International Conference on Harmonization (ICH).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Three DART tests are required for small molecule pharmaceuticals:

A

Three DART tests are required for small molecule pharmaceuticals:
Embryo-Fetal Development (EFD),
Fertility and Early Embryonic Development (FEED) and a Pre- and Postnatal Development study (PPN). Combination studies may be performed to reduce the number of animals needed and to obtain results more quickly. (This should be
decided on a case-by-case basis, as it may not be appropriate for a given drug.) For large molecule biopharmaceuticals, such as vaccines and
proteins, other laboratory animal species and study designs may be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pesticides and Industrial Chemicals:

DART testing

A

Pesticides and Industrial Chemicals: Pesticides and industrial chemicals must also undergo DART testing to detect toxicity to the reproductive
system, including prenatal and postnatal development of the offspring. In the U.S., the EPA requires DART testing for product registration of
pesticides . For industrial chemicals, testing requirements are regulated by
the EPA’s Toxic Substance Control Act (TSCA). The EU has similar DART testing requirements for registration of pesticides and industrial
chemicals, which are described in the test guidelines put forth by the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD).
Required DART studies depend on the chemical substance and its intended use and may include developmental toxicity, one- and two-generation reproductive toxicity studies, the extended one-generation reproduction study or reproductive screening tests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Target site resistance

A

Target site
1. Historically, the type of resistance that farmers and researchers deal with most often is target-site resistance. Every herbicide has a specific target site in a plant. The herbicide has to bind to that
target site and effectively shut it down in order to kill the weed.
Resistance can occur when changes in the target site stop the herbicide from effectively binding there. One change to the amino acid residue chain in the protein sequence, and all of the sudden you have resistance.”

Target-site mutations are often prompted by repeated applications of the same herbicide site of action. Today, target-site resistance remains the most common type of herbicide resistance seen around the world, encompassing resistance to ALS inhibitors,
ACCase inhibitors and more.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Non-Target-Site resistance

A

Non-Target-Site
1. On the other end of the spectrum, non-target-site resistance, or metabolic resistance, involves more change in the plant than just at the target site alone. In this type of resistance, weeds develop
the ability to rapidly metabolize, or break down, the herbicide before it can cause significant biotoxic effects to the weed. Once an herbicide is inside a plant, it’s going to try and control it,” says
Hager. “With metabolic resistance, the weed is now behaving like the resistant crop and can rapidly metabolize the herbicide and survive.”
2. Though less common than target-site resistance, metabolic resistance is a concern on the rise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Mixed associations

A

Mixed associations

  1. But whether you’re dealing with target-site resistance or non-target-site resistance, the control method remains the same: tank-mixing multiple herbicide modes of action in each application.
  2. The probability that a weed will be resistant to two different herbicides combined is less than the probability of the weed being resistant to each herbicide individually.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

DNA adduct

A

A DNA adduct is a segment of DNA bound to a cancer-causing chemical .
This process could be the start of a cancerous cell, or carcinogenesis .
DNA adducts in scientific experiments are used as biomarkers of exposure and as such are themselves measured to reflect quantitatively, for comparison, the amount of carcinogen exposure to the subject
organism. Under experimental conditions for study, such DNA adducts are induced by known carcinogens , of which commonly used is DMBA ( 7,12-dimethylbenz(a)anthracene ). The presence of such an adduct indicates prior exposure to a potential carcinogen, but does not by itself
indicate the presence of cancer in the subject animal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ADME (Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion)= Acronym used to describe pharmacokinetics

A

Absorption- describes the journey of drug traveling from the site of
administration to the site of action
ii. Distribution- describes reversible transfer of the drug from one location to
another within the body
iii. Metabolism= conversion and breakdown of the drug within the body
iv. excretion= process by which metabolic waste is eliminated from an
organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Environmental Protection Agency :

A

Environmental Protection Agency : an independent executive agency, not a Department. The
administrator is a member of the Cabinet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Toxic

Substances Control Act TSCA

A

The Toxic Substances Control Act of 1976 provides EPA with authority to require reporting, record-keeping
and testing requirements, and restrictions relating to chemical substances and/or mixtures.
Certain substances are generally excluded from TSCA, including, among others, food, drugs,
cosmetics and pesticides. TSCA addresses the production, importation, use, and disposal of
specific chemicals including polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs), asbestos, radon and lead-based
paint.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA)

A

The Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) provides for federal regulation
of pesticide distribution, sale, and use. All pesticides distributed or sold in the United States
must be registered (licensed) by EPA. Before EPA may register a pesticide under FIFRA, the
applicant must show, among other things, that using the pesticide according to specifications
“will not generally cause unreasonable adverse effects on the environment.’’ FIFRA defines the
term ‘‘unreasonable adverse effects on the environment’’ to mean: ‘‘(1) any unreasonable risk to
man or the environment, taking into account the economic, social, and environmental costs and
benefits of the use of any pesticide, or (2) a human dietary risk from residues that result from a
use of a pesticide in or on any food inconsistent with the standard under section 408 of the
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.’’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)

A

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) gives EPA the authority to control hazardous
waste from the “cradle-to-grave.” This includes the generation, transportation, treatment,
storage, and disposal of hazardous waste. RCRA also set forth a framework for the
management of non-hazardous solid wastes. The 1986 amendments to RCRA enabled EPA to
address environmental problems that could result from underground tanks storing petroleum
and other hazardous substances. HSWA - the Federal Hazardous and Solid Waste
Amendments - are the 1984 amendments to RCRA that focused on waste minimization and
phasing out land disposal of hazardous waste as well as corrective action for releases. Some of
the other mandates of this law include increased enforcement authority for EPA, more stringent hazardous waste management standards, and a comprehensive underground storage tank
program.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Clean Air Act (CAA)

A

The Clean Air Act (CAA) is the
comprehensive federal law that regulates air emissions from stationary and mobile sources.
Among other things, this law authorizes EPA to establish National Ambient Air Quality
Standards (NAAQS) to protect public health and public welfare and to regulate emissions of
hazardous air pollutants.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Clean Water Act (CWA)

A

“The Clean Water Act (CWA)
establishes the basic structure for regulating discharges of pollutants into the waters of the
United States and regulating quality standards for surface waters. The basis of the CWA was
enacted in 1948 and was called the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, but the Act was
significantly reorganized and expanded in 1972. “Clean Water Act” became the Act’s common
name with amendments in 1972. Under the CWA, EPA has implemented pollution control
programs such as setting wastewater standards for industry. EPA has also developed national
water quality criteria recommendations for pollutants in surface waters. The CWA made it
unlawful to discharge any pollutant from a point source into navigable waters, unless a permit
was obtained. EPA’s National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit program
controls discharges. Point sources are discrete conveyances such as pipes or man-made
ditches. Individual homes that are connected to a municipal system, use a septic system, or do
not have a surface discharge do not need an NPDES permit; however, industrial, municipal, and
other facilities must obtain permits if their discharges go directly to surface waters”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA)

A

The
Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) was established to protect the quality of drinking water in the
U.S. This law focuses on all waters actually or potentially designed for drinking use, whether
from above ground or underground sources. The Act authorizes EPA to establish minimum
standards to protect tap water and requires all owners or operators of public water systems to
comply with these primary (health-related) standards. The 1996 amendments to SDWA require
that EPA consider a detailed risk and cost assessment, and best available peer-reviewed
science, when developing these standards. State governments, which can be approved to
implement these rules for EPA, also encourage attainment of secondary standards
(nuisance-related). Under the Act, EPA also establishes minimum standards for state programs
to protect underground sources of drinking water from endangerment by underground injection
of fluids.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Animal Feeding

Operations (AFOs)

A

Animal Feeding
Operations (AFOs) are agricultural operations where animals are kept and raised in confined
situations. An AFO is a lot or facility (other than an aquatic animal production facility) where the
following conditions are met: animals have been, are, or will be stabled or confined and fed or
maintained for a total of 45 days or more in any 12-month period, and crops, vegetation, forage
growth, or post-harvest residues are not sustained in the normal growing season over any
portion of the lot or facility. AFOs that meet the regulatory definition of a concentrated animal
feeding operation (CAFO) are regulated under the NPDES permitting program. The NPDES
program regulates the discharge of pollutants from point sources to waters of the United States.
CAFOs are point sources, as defined by the CWA. To be considered a CAFO, a facility must first be defined as an AFO, and meet the criteria established in the CAFO regulation”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and

Liability Act – otherwise known as CERCLA

A

“The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and
Liability Act – otherwise known as CERCLA or Superfund – provides a Federal “Superfund” to
clean up uncontrolled or abandoned hazardous-waste sites as well as accidents, spills, and
other emergency releases of pollutants and contaminants into the environment. Through
CERCLA, EPA was given power to seek out those parties responsible for any release and
assure their cooperation in the cleanup. EPA cleans up orphan sites when potentially
responsible parties cannot be identified or located, or when they fail to act. Through various
enforcement tools, EPA obtains private party cleanup through orders, consent decrees, and
other small party settlements. EPA also recovers costs from financially viable individuals and
companies once a response action has been completed. EPA is authorized to implement the
Act in all 50 states and U.S. territories. Superfund site identification, monitoring, and response
activities in states are coordinated through the state environmental protection or waste
management agencies. The Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA) of 1986
reauthorized CERCLA to continue cleanup activities around the country. Several site-specific
amendments, definitions clarifications, and technical requirements were added to the legislation,
including additional enforcement authorities. Also, Title III of SARA authorized the Emergency
Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA).”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Emergency Planning & Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA)

A

“Authorized by Title III of the Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA), the
Emergency Planning & Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA) was enacted by Congress as
the national legislation on community safety. This law is designed to help local communities
protect public health, safety, and the environment from chemical hazards. To implement
EPCRA, Congress requires each state to appoint a State Emergency Response Commission
(SERC). The SERCs are required to divide their states into Emergency Planning Districts and to
name a Local Emergency Planning Committee (LEPC) for each district. Broad representation by
fire fighters, health officials, government and media representatives, community groups,
industrial facilities, and emergency managers ensures that all necessary elements of the
planning process are represented.” Key areas: Emergency planning, emergency release
notification, hazardous chemical storage reporting requirements, and toxic chemical release
inventory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Pollution

Prevention Act PPA

A

The Pollution
Prevention Act focused industry, government, and public attention on reducing the amount of
pollution through cost-effective changes in production, operation, and raw materials use.
Opportunities for source reduction are often not realized because of existing regulations, and
the industrial resources required for compliance, focus on treatment and disposal. Source
reduction is fundamentally different and more desirable than waste management or pollution
control. Source reduction refers to practices that reduce hazardous substances from being
released into the environment prior to recycling, treatment or disposal. The term includes
equipment or technology modifications, process or procedure modifications, reformulation or
redesign of products, substitution of raw materials, and improvements in housekeeping,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

National Response

Center (NRC)

A

The National Response
Center (NRC) is a part of the federally established National Response System and staffed 24
hours a day by the U.S. Coast Guard. It is the designated federal point of contact for reporting
all oil, chemical, radiological, biological and etiological discharges into the environment,
anywhere in the United States and its territories. The NRC also takes maritime reports of
suspicious activity and security breaches within the waters of the United States and its
territories. Reports to the NRC activate the National Contingency Plan and the federal
government’s response capabilities. It is the responsibility of the NRC staff to notify the
pre-designated On-Scene Coordinator assigned to the area of the incident and to collect
available information on the size and nature of the release, the facility or vessel involved, and
the party(ies) responsible for the release. The NRC maintains reports of all releases and spills in
a national database.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Department of Health and Human Services :
FDA FFDCA
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA)

A

“Section 408 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) authorizes EPA to
set tolerances, or maximum residue limits, for pesticide residues on foods. In the
absence of a tolerance for a pesticide residue, a food containing such a residue is
subject to seizure by the government. Once a tolerance is established, the residue level
in the tolerance is the trigger for enforcement actions. That is, if residues are found
above that level, the commodity will be subject to seizure. In setting tolerances, EPA
must make a finding that the tolerance is “safe.” Safe is defined as meaning that there is
a “reasonable certainty that no harm will result from aggregate exposure to the pesticide
residue.” To make the safety finding, EPA considers, among other things: the toxicity of
the pesticide and its break-down products, aggregate exposure to the pesticide in foods
and from other sources of exposure, and any special risks posed to infants and children.
Some pesticides are exempted from the requirement to have a tolerance. EPA may
grant exemptions in cases where the pesticide residues do not pose a dietary risk under
reasonably foreseeable circumstances.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Department of Health and Human Services :
FDA
Food Quality Protection Act (FQPA)

A

The Food
Quality Protection Act (FQPA) was passed unanimously by Congress and then signed
into law by President Clinton on August 3, 1996. The FQPA amended the Federal
Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) and the Federal Food Drug and
Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) and thus fundamentally changed EPA’s regulation of pesticides.
With regard to tolerances, the FQPA requires that EPA:
-make a safety finding when setting tolerances, i.e., that the pesticide can be used with
“a reasonable certainty of no harm;” use this new safety standard to reassess, over a 10-year period, all pesticide tolerances
that were in place when the FQPA was signed;
-consider the special susceptibility of children to pesticides by using an additional tenfold
(10X) safety factor when setting and reassessing tolerances unless adequate data are
available to support a different factor;
-consider aggregate risk from exposure to a pesticide from multiple sources (food, water,
residential and other non-occupational sources) when assessing tolerances; and
-consider cumulative
exposure to pesticides that have common mechanisms of toxicity.
To implement these FQPA requirements, EPA needed to develop methodologies to
perform more refined pesticide risk assessments, to better reflect real-world situations.
Thus, in a short timeframe, EPA had to develop a variety of new science policies, which
included new guidelines on:
-Use of the 10X safety factor.
-Drinking water exposure.
-Residential exposure.
-Aggregate exposure and risk assessment.
-Cumulative risk assessment for pesticides with a common mechanism of toxicity.
Using these newly-developed methodologies, EPA completed the reassessment of the
9,721 pesticide tolerances during the 10-year timeframe, as required. As a result, EPA
revoked or modified almost 4,000 tolerances.
The FQPA also required EPA to:
-Expedite approval of pesticides meeting the FQPA definition of reduced risk.
-Give special consideration to minor uses of pesticides (i.e., uses for which pesticide
product sales produce small revenues and thus, the registrant might decide to not
generate the data needed to support the minor use).
-Provide a list of pests of significant public health importance (issued in 2002).
-Expedite the review of applications to register antimicrobial pesticide products.
-Screen pesticides for disruption to the endocrine system.
-Significantly, FQPA requires the periodic review cycle for pesticide registrations.
Changes in science and pesticide practices occur over time, and these periodic review
cycles make sure that as changes occur, pesticide products can continue to be used
safely. The Registration Review Program began in 2006 with the goal of reviewing each
pesticide’s registration every 15 years to make sure that the pesticide still meets the
FIFRA standards for registration.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

DHHS
CDC/ATSDR
Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Registry (ATSDR),

A

“ATSDR
protects communities from harmful health effects related to exposure to natural and
man-made hazardous substances. We do this by responding to environmental health
emergencies; investigating emerging environmental health threats; conducting research
on the health impacts of hazardous waste sites; and building capabilities of and
providing actionable guidance to state and local health partners.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Heavy metals

A

Heavy metals (e.g. arsenic, copper, chromium, lead, mercury, iron, zinc)

38
Q

Arsenici. Sources in environment:

A

i. Sources in environment: ores, low levels in soil, except around mining/
smelting sites
ii. Inorganic form- most toxic (trivalent form is more toxic than pentavalent
form)

39
Q

Arsenici.Exposure

A

iii. Exposure
1.Old pesticides, arsenic contaminated soil, contaminated water, ant
baits, thiacetarsamide/ heartworm trt, overdose of feed additives
2. Acute toxicity : Cats most susceptible >horses> cattle/sheep>
swine> birds

40
Q

arsenic clinical signs trivalent

A
Clinical signs to trivalent form
1. Acute
a. Vomiting/ abdominal pain
b. Weakness, staggering ataxia, recumbency
c. Weak, signs of shock
d. Diarrhea
e. rumen/ gastrointestinal atony
2. Subacute
a. Watery diarrhea
b. Beginning stages of kidney disease; oliguria, proteinuria,
polyuria
c. dehydration, acidosis, azotemia
41
Q

arsenic clinical signs pentavalent

A

Clinical signs to pentavalent form
a. ataxia , torticollis, blindness, ‘sitting dog posture’, normal
appetite

42
Q

arsenic lab and lesions

A

Lesions/ lab findings

a. GI irritation, pale swollen kidneys, pale liver
b. Consistent with kidney diseas

43
Q

arsenic treatment

A

Treatment/ prognosis
a. Early intervention: GI detox, supportive therapy
b. Dimercaprol - antidote for arsenic but only effective if given
prior to clinical signs
c. Thiotic acid- more effective in cattle but not approved for
food animals
d. MSMA (mesodimercaptosuccinic acid) and DMSA
(dimercaptosuccinic acid); not well tested in US
e. Prognosis- inorganic (high mortality rate); organic ( high
morbidity)

44
Q

Copper

i. Mostly seen in sheep
ii. Sources

A

feed additives, soil/ plant, plants fertilized with used poultry or
swine manure

45
Q

copper mechanism of damage

A

iii. Mechanism of damage
1. Accumulation in hepatic mitochondria and lysosomes
2. Acute hemolytic crisis- excess copper oxidizes erythrocyte
membranes, increasing fragility and hemolysis
3. Excess copper causes oxidation of hemoglobin, which forms
methemoglobin (does not transport oxygen)

46
Q

copper toxicity mechs

A

iii. Toxicity
1. Accumulation in ruminants associated with
a. molybdenum deficiency- molybdenum binds with copper
and complex is excreted by kidney
b. lack of sulfate- sulfate reduced to sulfides with bind copper
leading to reduced absorption of copper
2. 2-10 week exposure typical in sheep

47
Q

copper diagnosis

A

Diagnosis
1. See signs of hemolytic crisis
2. Lesions
a. Gunmetal kidneys-bluish black kidneys
b. Icterus
c. Microscopic lesion consistent with hepatic disease and
hemolysis
d. Copper accumulation in hepatic cells seen with special
stain (rubeanic acid)
vi. Lab findings
1. Hemoglobinuria, hemoglobinemia, hyperbilrubinemia; elevated
hepatic enzymes
2. Serum/whole blood copper levels
3. Liver/kidney copper levels
4. Differentials (Leptospirosis, bacillary hemoglobinuria, babesiosis,
anaplasmosis, Onions, Brassica, red maple (Acer rubrum),
Phenothiazine anthelmintic toxicoses)

48
Q

copper treatment

A

vi. Treatment
1. Ammonium tetrathiomolybdate: aids in binding and excretion
2. D-penicillamine: effective but expensive and not approved in food
animals
3. In less acute cases: spray molybdenized copper on pasture
viii. vii. Mortality/morbidity
1. Mortality high, easier to prevent
ix. Prevention
1. Feed with proper copper:molybdenum ratio (6:1)

49
Q

copper accumulation dogs mech

A

Chronic hepatic copper accumulation in dogs
1. Etiology
a. Inherited autosomal recessive trait, appears at 2-6 years
old
b. Most common in Bedlington terriers, but also see in West
Highland Terriers, Doberman pinschers and rarely in other
breeds
i. Mechanism
1. 1. Copper accumulates in hepatic
lysosomes until it exceeds capacity
Lysosomes then release copper to
cytoplasm causing necrosis and
inflammation

50
Q

copper accum clin and tx

A

Clinical signs

  1. Consistent with hepatic disease; occasionally hemolytic crisis
  2. Lesions consistent with degree of liver disease
    xii. Lab findings
  3. Elevated liver enzymes, Liver biopsy
    xiii. Treatment
  4. Ongoing chelation therapy with D-penicillamine
  5. Corticosteroids, ascorbic acid
  6. Limit copper intake
51
Q

Chromium sources and signs

A

Chromium

i. Trivalent form is an essential nutrient; hexavalent form is toxic
ii. Sources: paints, tanning, preservatives
iii. Clinica signs: dermatitis, nasal irritation, acute GI

52
Q

lead sources

A

Lead
i. Sources: batteries, drapery weights, fishing sinkers, buckshot, plumbing
solder, paints, primers, older caulk, farm machinery, automotive supplies,
Industry supplies, pesticides
ii. Exposure: ingestion
1. Most cases are subacute: ingestion over several days, or lead
object in GI tract leaches
2. Lead accumulates in soft tissue and bone; crosses placenta and
accumulates in fetal CNS
iii. Toxicologic mechanism not fully understood

53
Q

lead diagnosis

A

Diagnosis lead

  1. Clinical signs
    a. Encephalopathy: seizures, tremors, blindness, depression
    b. Anorexia, colic, elevated blood lead level
    c. Anemia, proteinuria
    d. Neuro, GI, hematopoietic
54
Q

lead tx

A

Treatment lead

  1. Chelation
    a. Calcium disodium EDTA
    b. Not approved for vet use, but FDA allows
    i. Treatment can be toxic
  2. Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) for pet birds
  3. D-Penicillamine
  4. Supplemental therapy- Thiamine, corticosteroids, zinc, diazepam
  5. GI decontamination
  6. Surgery, to remove objects
55
Q

lead public health

A

Public health concerns lead
1. May also be exposure to humans
2. Food animals store lead in bone…meat products should not have
bone/bone meal
3. Milk may have traces of lead
4. Contact authorities for herd outbreaks

56
Q

mercury sources

A

Mercury
i. Exposure: rare; inhalational (vapor) or ingestion
1. Sources: thermometer, preservatives, fungicides, anti-mildew
paints
2. Inorganic forms accumulate in renal cortex; organic accumulates
in brain; both cross placental barrier
ii. Clinical signs: varied depending on form and chronicity. Derm, neuro, GI,
kidney.

57
Q

iron sources

A

Iron sources
i. Sources: Preparations for oral supplementation, ferrous fumarate, ferrous
sulfate, ferrous phosphate, ferrous carbonate, Injectable preparations,
Ferric ammonium citrate; iron-dextran complexes
ii. Exposure: Accidental oral ingestion most common

58
Q

Mechanism of toxicity iron

A

Mechanism of toxicity iron
1. Normal:
a. ferric iron bound to transferrin and transported through
body, Iron needed for oxygen transport by hemoglobin and
myoglobin, Excess iron stored as hemosiderin or ferritin
2. Overdose
a. Excessive dose overwhelms transferring system leading to
excess circulating iron, Unbound iron corrosive and strong
oxidant direct damage to epithelial cells, Mitochondrial
damage causes hepatic necrosis, Increased capillary
permeability and vascular dilatation can lead to
cardiovascular collapse
iv. Toxicity
1. Dose dependent- Injectable more toxic than oral preparations
2. Oral prep levels (Moderately toxic: 20-60 mg/kg BW, Severely
toxic: >60 mg/kg BW, Lethal: >200 mg/kg BW)

59
Q

iron dx

A

Diagnosis iron
1. Clinical signs
a. Oral preps
i. Early signs depression, vomiting, hemorrhagic
diarrhea
ii. May see improvement, followed by hepatic failure,
shock, +/- hemolytic anemia
2. Injectable preps
a. Two syndromes
i. Excessive circulating iron causes depression,
shock, acidosis
ii. Peracute anaphylactic like reaction, very soon after
injection. Likely due to histamine release

60
Q

iron lesions and lab

A

Lesions iron
1. Oral preps: Mucosa necrosis, ulceration, enteritis, +/- hemorrhage,
Congestion of splanchnic vessels, liver,kidney, liver necrosis
2. Injectable preps: edema at injection site, yellowish discoloration to
tissues and draining lymph nodes
vii. Lab findings
1. Elevated serum iron levels, 50-100% above normal range
2. Acidosis; elevated liver enzymes, hemoglobinuria
3. Iron concentrations in liver difficult to interpret

61
Q

iron tx

A

Treatment iron
1. GI decon if ingested in last 4 hours BUT activated charcoal NOT
effective
2. Milk of magnesia will precipitate iron in GI tract
3. Supportive care
4. Chelation
a. Deferoxamine ( Dosage extrapolated from humans; given
rapidly can cause cardiac arrhythmias or histamine
release)
b. Urine will be brown colored at beginning of treatment due
to increased excretion of iron
c. Oral ascorbic acid given concurrently with deferoxamine
enhances excretion
d. Serum iron levels should be monitored daily until normal
range reached
e. Individual animals may have permanent intestinal scarring
or liver damage

62
Q

o. Selenium

i. Sources

A

o. Selenium
i. Sources: plants, feed supplements, industrial,seafood
ii. Exposure: cattle, sheep, horses—grazing
1. Swine/poultry: grain
2. ii. Waterfowl: irrigation of crops causes leaching of selenium into
water
iii. Acute, subacute and chronic-> derm, neuro, GI
iv. Treatment: acetylcysteine in acute/subacute; copper, arsenics,
sulfur-containing proteins

63
Q

mercury tx

A

iii. Treatment
1. Mercuric salts: egg white, activated charcoal, sodium thiosulfate;
sorbitol or saline cathartic, DMSA
2. Alkyl mercurials: when signs apparent, significant damage done.
Selenium and vitamin E somewhat protective
iv. Public health: alkyl mercurials accumulate in edible organs and
muscle—DON’T EAT

64
Q

zinc sources, clinical

A

Zinc
i. Sources: alloys, galvanized coatings, automotive parts, batteries,
fungicides, pennies
ii. Clinical Signs
1. Dogs: GI-> lethargy-> anemia, hemoglobinuria, icterus
2. Livestock: GI-> decreased weight gain, milk production->
moderate anemia, icterus
3. Most species: hemolytic anemia

65
Q
Herbicides: General info
Phenoxy herbicides (2,4-D, MCPA, silvex)
A

Herbicides: General info
1. Sources: agriculture, commercial use in lawns, industrial sites,
road crews
2. Few herbicides are considered hazardous to livestock at
recommended conditions of use
3. Do not generally persist in soil
4. Residues can result from: misuse, urban runoff
5. Consumption of concentrated or mixed herbicide can rarely occur
in cattle and dogs
6. Grazing freshly sprayed pastures or eating treated hay
7. No evidence of residues in meat, milk, eggs
8. Phenoxy herbicides (2,4-D, MCPA, silvex)

66
Q

herbicides exposures

A

Exposures

  1. Dogs with access to freshly sprayed lawns
  2. Cattle that drink concentrates or tank mixes
  3. Potentiate toxic effects of plants
67
Q

herbicides toxicity

A

Toxicity
1. Absorption from stomach/intestines; not as much dermal
2. See acute more than chronic. Dogs and cattle can tolerate daily
doses with little adverse effect

68
Q

herbicide dx

A

Diagnosis
1. Signs:
a. Cattle: anorexia, rumen atony, diarrhea, mucosal
ulceration, bloat, depression, muscle weakness
b. Swine: vomiting, diarrhea, salivation, tremors, ataxia,
weakness
c. Dogs: vomiting, diarrhea, bloody feces, ataxia, weakness,
clonic spasms
Lab
a. Chemistry consistent with liver, kidney, muscle damage
b. Chemical analysis of forage, urine, renal

69
Q

herbicide tx and public helath

A

Treatment
a. Detox: bath, activated charcoal
b. Supportive:No Specific antidotes
v. Public health
1. Applicators, farm workers greatest risk. Some evidence of
increased incidence of Non-Hodgkins lymphoma in humans
2. Residues in animal products- Not a problem

70
Q
Dipyridyl herbicides (Paraquat, diquat)
sources and toxicity
A

Dipyridyl herbicides (Paraquat, diquat)
i. Sources: Concentrated form for ag use and dilute for home lawn; Applied
foliage as contact herbicide to kill vegetation
ii. Toxicity
1. Absorption is limited
2. Concentrates in lung 10x higher than other tissues
3. Oral, dermal
4. Chronic toxicity is hazard causes anorexia, respiratory distress,
pulmonary lesions, death
5. Clay soils limit availability due to binding

71
Q
Dipyridyl herbicides (Paraquat, diquat)
diagnosis and lab
A

Diagnosis

  1. Acute: vomiting/depression; high doses: ataxia, dyspnea, seizures
    a. Respiratory signs in 2-7 days
    b. Subacute or chronic: progressive pulmonary fibrosis
    iv. Lab
  2. Radiographic lung changes
  3. Analysis of urine, source product
72
Q
Dipyridyl herbicides (Paraquat, diquat)
tx
A

Treatment
1. Detox
2. Emetics if noted early
3. Bentonite or Fuller’s Earth: clay to bind herbicide
4. Activated charcoal
5. Clay based kitty litter in emergency but efficacious uncertain
6. Saline cathartic
vi. Supportive therapy
1. Assisted ventilation. NO OXYGEN—exacerbate oxidative damage
to lung
2. Monitor renal function
No specific antidote
a. Biochemical antagonists (Superoxide dismutase,
Acetylcysteine, Niacin/riboflavin, Ascorbic acid)
vii. Prognosis: guarded to grave
viii. Public health: residues in animal products not likely

73
Q

Selected herbicides toxic to ruminants

A

i. Acetemides (propachlor) relatively toxic, anorexia, depression, green
undigested rumen contents
ii. Benzoic acids (chloramben) low doses: weight loss/anorexia. High
doses: bloat, diarrhea, hydropericardium, ascites, enlarged spleen
iii. Carbamates (chloropropham) anorexia, salivation prominent; deaths
occur; pulmonary, hepatic, renal, intestinal congestion
iv. Dinitroanilines (benefin) anorexia, weight loss, bloat, tachypnea.
Congested, enlarged lymph nodes, liver
v. Diphenyl esters (nitrofen) anorexia, depression, hematuria
vi. Nitriles (dichlobenil) anorexia, weight loss; lymphatic, intramuscular
hemorrhages
vii. Organoarsenicals (Methyl-arsonic acid-MSMA) acute, severe
gastroenteritis, watery/hemorrhagic diarrhea
viii. Phthalamic acids (naptalam) congestion of liver, kidneys, intestine
ix. Thiocarbamates (EPTC, Triallate) anticholinesterase activity
x. Triazines (atrazine, simazine) toxic to ruminants; CNS stimulation;
enlarged, friable liver

74
Q

Fungicides general, signs, tx

A

Fungicides
1. Used to treat plants, soil
2. Low toxicity in general so toxicoses is due to flagrant misuse,
accidents, carelessness; little info on farm animals and pets
3. Nonspecific signs- anorexia, depression, weakness, diarrhea
4. Analysis of source product more effective than analysis of animal
tissues
ii. Treatment:
1. Detox & supportive therapy
2. NO specific antidotes

75
Q

Pentachlorophenol
wood preservative
toxicity

A

Pentachlorophenol
1. Available on limited basis as fungicide, herbicide, bactericide,
wood preservative until 1980s EPA severely restricted its use
2. Structural wood preservative; some still available
3. Livestock could be exposed to freshly treated wood
iv. Toxicity:
1. Readily taken up by intestinal tract, skin, lungs
2. See acute and subacute toxicity; not as much as chronic
3. Direct irritant to skin and respiratory tract
4. Neurotoxic effects

76
Q

Pentachlorophenol

clinical signs, lab, tx

A

Clinical signs:
1. Restlessness, fever, hypertension, weakness, seizures
2. ii. Newborn pigs in contact with wood floor develop hyperthermia,
dermal irritation, weakness and die within hours of birth
vi. Lab: analysis of blood/urine
vii. g. Treatment:
1. Detox: emesis, lavage, activated charcoal
2. Supportive therapy: for hyperthermia, dehydration
3. NO specific antidote

77
Q

Rodenticides General info

types

A

Rodenticides General info
a. Third most common source of toxicant exposure in dogs.
Rare in cats or farm animals
2. B. Anticoagulants
a. Source: baits
b. Coumarin derivative: warfarin, brodifacoum, bromadiolone,
difenacoum
c. Indanedione derivative: pindone, chlorophacinone,
diphacinone
d. First generation and second generation. Most current
anticoagulant rodenticides are second generation
i. Brodifacoum most common
ii. Warfarin now rare

78
Q

rodenticides exposure, toxicity

A

Exposure

a. Most common in pets, livestock, wildlife with access
b. Secondary toxicosis rare
4. Toxicity
a. Rate of absorption high
b. Inhibit vitamin K epoxide reductase
c. Ruminants less susceptible than monogastric animals

79
Q

rodenticides dx tx

A

Diagnosis
a. Signs: consistent with coagulopathy. hemorrhages,
hematuria, anemia
b. Lab: increased ACT, PT, PTT
6. Treatment
a. Detox within 8 hrs
b. Supportive
i. Blood transfusion
c. Vitamin K
7. Prognosis: good if hemorrhage is minimal and controlled.
8. Public health: residues in food animals minimal

80
Q

Cholecalciferol (Vitamin D3)

sources

A

Cholecalciferol (Vitamin D3)
1. Sources: baits, vitamin supplements, feed additives
a. Exposure:
b. Baits
c. Excessive vitamin D in feed: most common source in food
animals
d. Excessive use as growth promoter in large breed dogs

81
Q

Cholecalciferol (Vitamin D3)

toxicity, dx

A

c. Toxicity
a. Vitamin D promotes calcium retention
b. Hypercalcemia causes cardiac dysfunction and necrosis of
renal tubules
c. Acute and chronic toxicity seen
3. d. Diagnosis
a. Clinical signs: 12-36 hrs after ingestion
i. Vague early signs progressing to renal failure, and
cardiac signs
b. Lab: serum calcium level >2mg/dl
i. Elevated serum phosphorus
c. Increased kidney enzymes

82
Q

Cholecalciferol (Vitamin D3)

tx

A

e. Treatment
a. Detox: emesis, activated charcoal
b. Supportive care: for kidney failure
c. Corticosteroids reduces intestinal absorption and calcium
excretion
d. Salmon calcitonin: reduce calcium levels
5. Prognosis: guarded

83
Q

Phosphides (zinc, aluminum, calcium)

sources, toxicity

A

Phosphides (zinc, aluminum, calcium)

  1. Sources: rodenticides, grain fumigants
    a. Exposure: ingestion of baits mainly dogs, Phosphine gas
  2. Toxicity
    a. Acute toxicity in dogs
    b. Subacute and chronic not described
84
Q

Phosphides (zinc, aluminum, calcium)

dx

A

Diagnosis

a. Clinical signs: vomiting, tremors, weakness, seizures
b. Rarely see colic in horses and bloat in cattle
4. Lab: analysis of stomach contents…not consistent
a. Stomach contents have acetylene, “dead fish” in odor

85
Q

Phosphides (zinc, aluminum, calcium)

tx and ph

A
  1. Treatment
    a. Detox
    b. Supportive: bicarb to combat acidosis
  2. Public health: vomitus can give off phosphine gas…hazard to
    animal care workers
86
Q

Strychnine
exposure
toxicity

A

Strychnine
1. Source Baits for gophers and squirrels
a. Treated seeds
Exposure: Used in malicious poisoning of dogs, Ingestion
of baits, DOES cause secondary toxicoses, esp. in raptors.
Due to persistence in food and environment
2. Toxicity
a. Causes acute toxicity only
b. Dogs more susceptible than cats
c. Large animals very sensitive
d. Poultry resistant

87
Q

strychnine dx

A

Diagnosis
a. Clinical signs
i. Acute onset of tonic to titanic seizures,
hypersensitivity
ii. Advanced signs: sawhorse stance, hyperthermia
4. Lab: strychnine in urine, stomach contents, liver

88
Q

strychnine

tx

A
Treatment
a. Detox: lavage, activated charcoal, fluids to encourage
excretion
b. Supportive: anti seizure meds, muscle relaxants
c. NO ketamine or morphine
d. Warm, calm, dark environment
e. NO specific antidote
6. Prognosis: good if treated promptly
89
Q
Bromethalin
source
toxicity
dx
lab
tx
A

Bromethalin
1. Source: baits
a. Exposure: ingestion of baits…cats and dogs
2. Toxicity
a. Rapidly absorbed from GI tract
b. Acute and chronic toxicity seen
3. Diagnosis
a. Signs: varied and dose dependent
i. Acute: tremors, hyperexcitability, hyperesthesia,
fever
ii. Subacute: ataxia, neurologic, vomiting
4. Lab: EEG shows abnormalities; inconsistent results from chemical
analysis of bromethalin in stomach contents
5. Treatment
a. Detox: emetics, activated charcoal, saline cathartic
b. Supportive: cerebral edema, fluids, seizure management
c. NO specific antidotes

90
Q

Yellow Phosphorus

A

Yellow Phosphorus
1. glows in the dark:” when exposed to moisture, emits greenish light
a. rare use as rodenticide
b. Exposure: ingestion
Toxicity:
a. Absorbed from GI, respiratory, damaged epithelium
b. HIGHLY toxic
3. Diagnosis
a. Signs: early signs are violent vomiting and diarrhea with
recovery in 24-48 hrs. Breath has “garlic odor”
i. Relapse into depression, severe shock, hepatic
failure, death
b. Lab: consistent with hepatic failure