Infectious diseases cram Flashcards

Question

Glanders (AKA Farcy, Malleus)

Answer 1

highly contagious disease of horses, mules, donkeys - donkeys usually acute form, horses more chronic - burkholderia mallei - Significant Human Health Risk (ZOONOTIC) - has been used as bioterrorism agent - characterized by nodular lesions of lungs, nasal cavity, and skin; progressive - can cause disease in dogs and cats that eat infected meat - transmitted directly by diseased or latently infected animals; spread in close quarters - horses can recover, but susceptible to recurrence - no vaccine - sensitive to many Abs, but due to zoonotic risk euthanasia recommended - moderately hardy, need to burn/bury contaminated bedding/foodstuffs

Answer 2

-acute noncontagious infectious disease of cattle, sheep, goats, and some antelope species -ehrlichia ruminatium -transmitted by ticks – Amblyomma (transstadially and intrastadially)-can persist in the tick for up to 15 months -tick vectors present in US, shown experimentally capable of transmitting disease -characterized by fever, dyspnea, nervous system signs, hydropericardium, hydrothorax, ascites, and edema of the lungs -experimentally causes disease in white tailed deer -can be transmitted naturally vertically and horizontally -if recover from natural infection immunity 6-18 months -vaccine available, can treat with tetracycline Abs (treat enough to let some natural immunity develop -prevention=prevent introduction of disease carrying ticks -risk to US = can easily be introduced on birds, imported wildlife, ticks present to transmit and carry disease, no vaccine approved in the US

Answer 3

high mortality -pasturella multocidea 6B and 6E (Africa and Asia) -cattle and water buffalos susceptible -transmission oronasal from exposure to infected animals, carrier animals, or fomites -clinical signs respiratory distress, frothing at the mouth, recumbancy, edema of submandibular region, head, neck, brisket -lesions consistent with severe endotoxic shock -if survive immune, vaccine available (best way to control)

Answer 4

-family paramyxoviridae (same group as Nipah virus) -characterized by fever, increased respiratory rate, profuse nasal discharge, can cause jaundice and neuro disease (severe pulmonary edema) -uniformly fatal -horses only species naturally infected -large fruit bats (flying foxes) are reservoirs -have been 4 cases of human illness, with 2 deaths -virus shed in bat’s placental fluids, and also urine -infected horses shed virus in urine, nasal/conjunctival excretions, and feces -no vaccine available -classified as BSL 4 virus; ZOONOTIC -outbreaks in horses controlled by slaughter of infected horses and professional removal of bats

Answer 5

IE notifiable disease -infects Atlantic salmon (esp farmed) -virus is orthomyxovirus -farmed rainbows, browns can be infected, but not clinically ill -sea run brown trout thought to be main carriers of ISAV to susceptible populations of Atlantic Salmon -transmitted when infected fish come in contact with susceptible salmon -generally transmitted horizontally -clinical signs anorexia, darkening of skin, exophthalmia, petechiation of skin -prevention=biosecurity, health pre-screening of prospective brood and production stock, elimination of site to site marine transfers of fish, decrease stocking densities, minimize stress, thorough disinfection of cages between fish -control=rapid identification of ill/diseased fish with destruction

Answer 6

-mosquito born flavivirus -affects horses, humans, pigs -horses and humans neurologic disease -pigs are amplifying host (can cause abortions) -virus naturally circulates between mosquitoes and wild birds -ardeid birds (herons, egrets) natural reservoir. -ZOONOTIC -HUMAN Disease=25% clinical cases fatal; 50% result in neurologic sequelae including psychiatric disturbances, ataxia, and catatonia -horses can have inapparent infections to impaired locomotion, stupor, coma, death -if survive immunity lifelong -vaccines available for horses and swine (not in US) -prevention=elimination of vectors, immunization of horses and swine

Answer 7

- severe acute disease of cattle - lentivirus - characterized by fever, lethargy, lymphadenopathy, oral erosions, diarrhea - clinically disease only in Bali Cattle - unknown method of transmission - if survive immune, no vaccine - recovered animals can carry virus for up to 2 years and be source of infection for other cattle - control cattle movements

Answer 8

tick born acute viral disease -flavivirus -transmitted by Ixodes ticks -characterized by fever, neurologic signs, death -HUMANS can be infected -sheep primarily infected, but cattle, horses, pigs, goats, dogs llamas can be -humans can be infected by tick bite, entrance through skin wound, aerosol exposure, ingestion of contaminated milk -humans can have flu like illness, encephalitis, poliomyelitis like or hemorrhagic fever -in sheep infects brainstem, cerebellum=leads to characteristic clinical signs -vaccine available, natural infection can result in carriers and only partial immunity -control with vaccination and tick treatment

Answer 9

- fatal viral disease of ruminant species - characterized by fever, rhinitis, depression, bilateral keratoconjunctivitis - gammaherpesviruses in Rhadinovirus genus (4 cause disease) - has occurred in 33 ungulate species - major carrier species are wildebeest, sheep and goats - wildebeests infected perinatally by horizontal and intrauterine transmission, infected for life - transmitted mostly by direct contact with nasal and ocular secretions, mechanical vectors and contaminated water might play a role - hallmark microscopic changes are lymphoproliferative inflammation with vasculitis - no vaccine available - prevent contact between carriers and clinically susceptible species best

Answer 10

- noncontagious tick born viral infection of sheep and goats - characterized by fever, hemorrhagic gastroenteritis, abortion, and high mortality - Nairobi sheep disease virus, genus Nairovirus, family bunyaviridae (related to Crimean-Congo Hemorrhagic Fever group) - sheep and goats natural hosts - can infect HUMANS self limiting fever back and abdominal pain, headache, vomiting - tick – Rhipecephalus - recovery leads to life long immunity - vaccines available - control with vaccines and allow stable enzootic state with the virus to occur

Answer 11

acute viral disease of poultry -avian paramyxovirus 1 (family paramyxoviridae) -three pathotypes: lentogenic, mesogenic, and velogenic (foreign highly fatal) -250 species of birds can be infected with this virus -Can infect HUMANS-usually transient conjunctivitis (ZOONOTIC) -direct transmission with infective material including fomites (also introduced from carrier birds) -clinical signs range from mild respiratory/decreased production to acute death and permanent paralysis and other neuro signs -vaccine available for low virulence strains -prevent introduction of carriers/infected birds, biosecurity, -control=euthanasia, vaccination

Answer 12

-paramyxovirus (newly emerged from Malaysia) -acute febrile respiratory and or neurologic disease of pigs -ZOONOTIC -high fatality in HUMANS (40-75%) -pigs are amplifying hosts, main source for human infections -fruit bats (flying foxes) are natural reservoir -pigs infected from direct contact with bat fluids or tissues, pigs transmit to humans by aerosols and direct contact with pig secretions -pigs have fever, cough, and occasionally neuro signs -no commercial vaccine exists (some experimental ones) -prevent by keeping bats out of pig rearing systems -control by mass culling

Answer 13

-acute or subacute contagious viral disease of goats and sheep -characterized by fever, conjunctivitis, erosive stomatitis, gastroenteritis, and pneumonia -paramyoxoviridae, genus morillivirus (related to canine distemper, rinderpest, measles) direct transmission from close contact with ocular, nasal, oral secretions and feces, aerosol transmission too -no known carrier state -recovered immune for up to 4 years -vaccine available (cant distinguish between naturally infected and vaccinated) -no specific treatment, control secondary bacterial complications -eradication best if introduced to new area

Answer 14

- peracute to acute viral disease of the European rabbit only - characterized by extensive hepatic necrosis and DIC - calicivirus - wild rabbits of Oryctolagus genus are susceptible - transmission by direct contact with infected animals or indirectly by fomites - most prominent clinical sign is sudden death after fever - can have neurologic signs and terminal foamy nasal discharge - vaccine is available - prevention of introduction of disease best

Answer 15

peracute or acute arthropod born viral disease -characterized by epidemic hepatitis of ruminants -ZOONOTIC -HUMANS infected after bite of an infected mosquito or contact with infected animal, causes acute influenza illness, minority of patients develop ocular lesions, encephalitis or hepatic disease -family of bunyaviridae, phlebovirus genus -sheep, goats, cattle, camels all susceptible -biologic vectors are mosquitoes -mechanical vectors are biting flies -lambs, kids under 2 weeks die within 24-96 hours -can cause abortion storms at any stage of gestation (fetuses autolyzed) -vaccine available -control difficult due to sporadic long inter-epizootic periods in endemic countries -control=restrict movement with trade; vector control; vaccination

Answer 16

-contagious viral disease of cattle, buffalo, and some wildlife -characterized by fever, oral erosions, diarrhea, lymphoid necrosis, and high mortality in susceptible populations -family paramyoxoviridae, genus morbillivirus (peste des petites, human measles, canine distemper) -direct transmission with nasal-ocular secretions, indirect fomites (aerosol not sign) -recovered and vaccinated animals immune for life -eradicated!!!

Answer 17

-viral disease of coolwater and warmwater finfish -caused by rhabdovirus -goldfish, carp -horizontal transmission shed by infected/diseased fish -clinical signs exophthalmia, edema, inflammation and hemorrhages of swim bladder, ascites, and petechial hemorrhages of gills -no vaccine exists -prevention with enhanced treatment of water supplies by UV or sand filtration systems and health status prescreening of fish -eradication with outbreak

Answer 18

- contagious viral disease of pigs - enterovirus family picornaviridae - characterized by fever, vesicular lesions, and subsequent erosions - HUMANS infected in laboratory settings-similar signs of Coxsackie B5 infections=influenza like - infection through damaged skin, ingestion or inhalation - Problem because lesions indistinguishable to FOOT and MOUTH - no vaccines - prevent introduction by controlling movements of pigs and no garbage feeding - control by test and slaughter

Answer 19

- tickborne disease – Hyalomma tick - caused by Theileria annulata - characterized by anemia, jaundice, ill thrift, dyspnea, hemorrhagic diarrhea - cattle disease - animals can be protected by intentional low dosing of sporozoites - vaccination available

Answer 20

-chronic debilitating disease of cattle and other livestock (sheep, goats, pigs, horses, camels, dogs, cats, monkeys) -anemia primary disorder (emaciation, loss of productivity, fever) -trypanosoma congolense, brucei, vivax -transmitted biologically infected tsetse fly -wild ruminants harbor agents and are reservoirs -humans have own trypanosomes that cause sleeping sickness -evades immune response by sequential shifting of surface glycoproteins -no vaccine -major constraint to ruminant livestock production in many areas of Africa -many drugs available, but resistance problems -tsetse fly eradication most effective solution

Answer 21

-zoonotic mosquito viral born disease of horses and humans -alphavirus togaviridae -ZOONOTIC -humans infected mosquito bite or contact with infected horses; causes flu like syndrome with high fever and frontal headache -some variants cycle from mosquito to rodent with horses and humans incidental -horses are amplifiers in another cycle -unknown origin during interepizootic periods and origin of epizootic VEE -horses clinical signs are subclinical to staggering, blindness to mortality -diffuse necrotizing meningoencephalitis -vaccines available -control equine movement during epizootics, mosquito control; immunization of equines!

Answer 22

-cause by number of marine dwelling caliciviruses -characterized by fever, vesicular lesions, and erosions (indistinguishable from FOOT and MOUTH) -reservoirs are marine mammals and opaleye fish -transmission with contact of infected marine mammals or fish or pig to pig through contaminated meat and contact -no vaccine -don’t feed pigs dead marine mammals -if disease depopulate

Answer 23

-insect tramsmitted acute disease of horses, cattle, and pigs (less frequent in goats/sheep) -vesiculovirus family rhabdoviridae -HUMANS can be infected by contact or aerosols=influenza symptoms with fever, headache, muscle aches, and vesicles in oral cavity -maintenance cycle poorly understood -sand flies, culicoides, black flies -cycles about every 7-10 years in SW US, most likely from Mexico -transmitted by insect vectors, contact and fomites -clinical signs fever, vesicles in mouth, coronary bands and teats of lactating animals -no vaccine in US, is in South America -similar to FOOT and MOUTH -prevent with insect control

Answer 24

acute arthropod viral disease of sheep, cattle, goats - characterized by abortion and neonatal deaths (can see edema of head, icterus) - flavivirus family togaviridae - HUMANS subclinical infections most common, can be flu symptoms - transmitted by aedine mosquitoes - vaccine available but associated with reproductive morbidity - vaccine to control, avoid pregnant animals

Answer 25

-extremely contagious (one of the most contagious diseases know) -characterized by fever, vesicular lesions, erosions -high morbidity low mortality -genus apththovirus family picornaviridae -seven completely immunological distinct types A O C (European) SAT1 SAT2 SAT3 Asia1 -60 subtypes due to short RNA strand, replicates quickly with no” proof reading” so virus always evolving and genetics changing (why no good vaccine) -very susceptible to pH changes -all cloven hoofed animals susceptible (cattle water buffalo yaks most susceptible) -sheep/goats mild or inapparent -amplifying hosts=PIGS -indicator hots=CATTLE -maintenance hosts=SHEEP -wildlife=can be infected, minor role in spread when disease eradicated in domestic animals, goes away in wildlife -all secretions/excretions contagious -transmission direct, indirect with fomites, and feeding contaminated garbage (most common entry method) -animals shed the virus up to 4 days before clinical signs -extremely short incubation period as short as 24-36 hours in outbreaks -cows can be carriers for up to 3.5 years, pigs only 3-4 weeks (African buffalo up to 5 years) -clinical signs cattle= fever, drop in milk production, excessive salivation, lameness, recumbency pigs=same signs, but myocardial infarctions in young -sheep=look at hard palate wont show many clinical signs -vaccines available but no cross protection between serotypes (immunity lasts about 6 months) -difficult to distinguish vaccinated from naturally infected -vaccinated animals can become carriers when exposed to the virus -majority of outbreaks caused by feeding legal or illegal imported garbage products -prevent=control import, garbage feeding regulations; biosecurity; rapid reporting of suspects -control=eradication? Vaccination? Combinations? -public perception, disposal issues, wildlife, many issues raised

Answer 26

Plague, Yellow Fever and Cholera.

Answer 27

Polio and Guinea Worm Disease (dracuncuuliasis)

Answer 28

nchocerciasis (River blindness), Leprosy, Chagas disease (American Trypanoniasis) Malaria - cut in half burden by 2010

Answer 29

gram +, rod, spore forming Increase in drought conditions, alkaline soils, (calcareous soils) “wool sorters disease” “charbon” Occupational-animal handlers. inhale, ingest, cutaneous forms

Answer 30

``` Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae Gram + rod In soil, water, decay matter Diamond skin disease of swine. Occupational disease-vets, farmers, slaughter house workers. ```

Answer 31

Horses: gram-negative bacillus. Man has seldom been infected, despite frequent and often close contact with infected animals. This may be due to exposure to low concentrations of organisms from infected sites in sick animals and the fact that strains virulent for equids are often less virulent for man. There are acute and chronic forms of disease in horses and man. The acute forms are more common in mules/donkeys The acute form is characterized by a high fever, septicemia, respiratory signs and a thick nasal discharge, with death in a few days. Chronic disease can occur in surviving horses with ulcerating nodules on the skin and nasal cavity, and nodules in the lungs. The chronic form of the disease is more common in horses and causes generalized lymphadenopathy, multiple skin nodules that ulcerate and drain, enlargement and nodularity of regional lymphatics on the extremities and in other areas. These animals are carriers and spread the organism. Human cases have occurred primarily in veterinarians, horse caretakers, and abattoir workers. The organism spreads to man by invading the nasal, oral, and conjunctival mucous membranes, by inhalation, and by invading abraded or lacerated skin. Since aerosol spread is efficient, and there is no available vaccine or really dependable therapy, B. mallei has been viewed as a potential BW agent. The disease in Equidae in its natural form poses a minimal threat to military personnel. Mallein test, Eradicated in US.

Answer 32

affects both wild and domestic ruminants. Mycobacterium avian subspecies Paratuberculosis can survive for extended periods in contaminated environments or in manure spread on pasture for over a year. Contaminated soil and bacteria-laden feces coat the teats and udder of the dam and are nursed by the newborn, and infected animals shed mycobacterium in both milk and colostrum. Incubation period is very long and clinical symptoms are more common in animals 2 to 4 years of age. The most common presentation in goats is severe, progressive weight loss leading to emaciation in spite of good nutrition. AGID, ELISA or fecal culture may confirm diagnosis. Johne's disease does affect deer and elk, and these species will probably be part of a forthcoming regulatory program. Phenolics inactivate it b/c of ability to penetrate the lipid-rich cell wall.

Answer 33

Caused by a spirochete and is common worldwide. Flooding after heavy rainfall helps spread the bacteria in the environment. People get leptospirosis by contact with fresh water (lakes, rivers, and streams), damp soil, or vegetation contaminated by the urine of infected animals. The important serotypes recognized in livestock in the United States include Leptospira pomona, L. canicola, L. icterohaemorrhagiae, L. grippotyphosa and L. hardjo. Among domestic animals, swine, cattle, dogs, and horses are most frequently affected. Known wildlife hosts include many of the small rodents, raccoons, foxes, opossums, skunks, deer, and moose. Leptospirosis is generally contracted by the direct splashing of urine from infected or carrier animals into the eyes of susceptible animals. It can also be spread through the skin and mucous membranes from contact with water contaminated with leptospires. Transmission may also occur during breeding through residual urine in the genital tract or through infectious semen. The major sources of contamination are swine, cattle, dogs, and wildlife that have recovered from the disease and have become carriers. Cattle and swine are major sources because of the volume of urine and the extent and duration of leptospires in the urine. A significant percentage of human cases are acquired through direct contact with the urine of infected livestock or with contaminated soil or water. Many epidemics of L. pomona have occurred among persons swimming in water contaminated with the urine of infected livestock. The organism may survive up to six months in alkaline water.

Answer 34

May vary in severity from a mild, in apparent infection to an acute infection that may cause death. Cattle may develop a high fever of 104° to 107°F, depression, loss of appetite, decreased milk production. Hemoglobinuria, anemia, icterus and bloody milk are also seen. Abortion, frequently the only clinical sign reported, usually occurs two to five weeks after initial infection. The fetus has usually been dead for several days before it is expelled. Most abortions occur in the last three months of pregnancy.

Answer 35

The disease in swine is largely subclinical except for abortions, which usually occur during the last two to three weeks of pregnancy. Some aborted fetuses may have been dead a short time. Abortion is not delayed as long in swine; therefore, many infected fetuses contain viable leptospires when aborted

Answer 36

Canine leptospirosis is widespread in the United States. Serotypes in vaccine include: L. grippotyphosa and L. pomona and against the older serotypes, L. canicola and L. icterohemorrhagiae Acutely, a febrile, bacterial disease, with vomiting, muscular stiffness, and nephritis. In severe cases, jaundice and death may occur. Central nervous system signs may occur with or without other clinical signs, and organisms may be present in the brain tissue for extended periods. Chronic leptospirosis is primarily associated with chronic kidney degeneration. Shedding of leptospires in the urine may continue for over a year.

Answer 37

Wild rat populations in urban and rural areas are frequently infected with L. icterohaemorrhagiae

Answer 38

Confirm a diagnosis with demonstration of significant levels of antibodies to leptospires in the serums of recovered animals. Use either plate agglutination test with killed antigens or the microscopic agglutination test, in which living organisms are used as antigens. May also be diagnosed by demonstrating the organism microscopically in tissues by fluorescent antibody and by isolating leptospires in a culture or in laboratory animals following the injection of infected material. Leptospires are most readily isolated from blood or milk taken from animals during the acute phase, or from the urine, kidneys, spinal fluid, and brains of recovered animals.

Answer 39

When leptospirosis is diagnosed in swine or cattle during the early phase, further abortion losses may be reduced or prevented by promptly vaccinating the entire herd against serotypes prevalent in the area. Swine should be vaccinated at 6-month intervals and cattle annually. Additions to the herd should originate from herds that are free of leptospirosis and antibodies on the basis of a complete herd test. The vaccine used in infected herds should be identical with the serotype causing the diseases, as there is little or no cross-protection between vaccine serotypes. The future breeding efficiency of herds that have experienced leptospirosis is usually unaltered. In fact, their value may be enhanced because they are solidly immune against re-infection with the same serotype. Annual vaccination is recommended for dogs with a booster given if an outbreak occurs in the area.

Answer 40

High potential for bio weapon. Very resistant to desiccation and disintergration. Extremely infectious: one organism can cause disease. Worldwide distribution. Airborne dissemination over long distances possible. The incubation period in people is 2 to 4 weeks. Most infections in man are also subclinical. When people do show symptoms, it is usually characterized by a flu-like illness with fever, chills, headache, respiratory signs, muscle pain and malaise. Serious complications can occur including abortion, endocarditis and hepatitis. Cattle, sheep, and goats are reservoirs but other kinds of animals can also have this disease. Most infected animals do not show signs, but the bacteria can be in barnyard dust that contains dried fluids from the births of calves or lambs, manure, or urine. People usually get Q fever by breathing in this contaminated barnyard dust. An rare occasions, people can get Q fever from drinking contaminated milk or from tick bites. Avoid contact with placenta, birth products, fetal membranes, and aborted fetuses of sheep, cattle, and goats. Drink only pasteurized milk and milk products. If you work around pregnant sheep and goats, get vaccinated. Interestingly, no rash associated like w/ other ricketsial infections. Q fever is what the pasteurized temperatures are based on at present: 145 F (68C) for 30 minutes. Or 161F (71C) for 15 seconds. Vaccination is possible but not practiced in this country.

Answer 41

Yersina pestis gram – nonspore former Vectorborne: fleas. Aerosol Epidemically preceded by many rats/small rodents dying Severity #1 septicemia #2 pneumonic #3 bubonic Pneumonic form in Western US from cats High Case fatality rate, survivors spread Dz Bubonic most common CFR 50-60% if untreated

Answer 42

Tularemia, (rabbit fever or deerfly fever). Gram-negative organism Francisella tularensis. Ticks are the most important vectors of F. tularensis, transferring the bacterium between rabbits, hares, and rodents and serving as an interepizootic reservoir. Horseflies, mosquitoes, sucking lice, and biting flies (deer flies as well) may also serve as vectors. In endemic areas, transmission to humans and other domestic vertebrates usually occurs via bites from infected arthropods, or the bacterium may enter scratches or knife cuts exposed to infected animal tissues. Tularemia may also be transmitted by ingestion of infected tissues or contaminated water, and by inhalation of aerosolized particles. Sheep and domestic cats can be a source of infection for man. However, it can also be aerosolized. Both the inhalation of organisms and drinking contaminated water can cause human infection. F tularensis is considered a high-priority (category A) agent for bioterrorist use because it meets the following CDC criteria: can be easily disseminated results in high mortality rate and has the potential for major public health impact might cause public panic and social disruption requires special actions for public health preparedness i.e. drug/vaccine stockpiling

Answer 43

Public health authorities would most likely become aware of an outbreak of unusual respiratory disease in its early stages, but this could be difficult to distinguish from a natural outbreak of community-acquired infection, especially influenza or various atypical pneumonias. Although the majority of individuals with inhalational tularemia develop pneumonia, the initial presentation may be an undifferentiated febrile illness- The incubation period is typically 3 to 5 days, but may range from 1 to 14 days. Fever, chills, malaise, myalgia, and vomiting are followed by more specific signs of disease that depend on route of entry: ulceroglandular, glandular, typhoidal, oropharyngeal, oculoglandular, or pulmonary. All forms of tularemia can progress to pleuropneumonia, meningitis, sepsis, shock, and death. Ulceroglandular tularemia is the most common form (75 to 85% of reported cases). An ulcer is evident at the site of entry, usually the fingers or hands in cases associated with exposure to rabbits, hares, or rodents. Ulceration progresses to necrosis and lymphadenopathy; lymph nodes may suppurate, ulcerate, and become sclerotic. Signs of glandular tularemia are similar, but no skin ulcer is evident. Pulmonary tularemia represents about 30% of contracted infections and is caused by inhalation of aerosolized bacteria. Pneumonia in one or both lungs is the typical clinical sign. Influenza and tularemia share only the epidemiologic characteristic of abrupt onset. The epidemiologic features of inhalational tularemia following use as a biological weapon would include: Point-source outbreak pattern (outbreak begins at point of attack) More likely in urban, nonagricultural setting Unexpected, severe respiratory illness in otherwise healthy persons No differences in susceptibility by age or sex

Answer 44

Tularemia is one of the most infectious pathogenic bacteria known, requiring inoculation or inhalation of as few as 10 organisms to cause disease. It is potential biological weapon because of its extreme infectivity, ease of dissemination, and substantial capacity to cause illness and death. It is a hardy non-spore forming organism that is capable of surviving for weeks at low temperatures in water, moist soil, hay, straw or decaying animal carcasses. Natural reservoirs include small mammals such as mice, rats, squirrels, rabbits. Naturally acquired human infection occurs through: bites of infected arthropods (American Dog Tick: Dermancentor variabilis, Lone Star Tick: Amblyomma Americana and Rocky mountain wood tick; Dermancentor andersoni); mosquitoes, deerflies, handling infectious animal tissues or fluids; direct contact or ingestion of contaminated water, food, or soil; and inhalation of infective aerosols. Human to human transmission has not been documented. Depending on how the person is infected, it can cause flu-like symptoms, skin ulcers, swollen eyes and a sore throat. In the natural setting, tularemia is noted to be a predominately rural disease with clinical presentations including ulceroglandular, oculoglandular, pneumonic, typhoidal and septic forms. Tularensis as a weapon, aerosol release would cause the greatest adverse medical and public health consequences. This would result in the abrupt onset of large numbers of cases of acute, non-specific febrile illness beginning 3 to 5 days later with pleuropneumonitis developing in a significant proportion of cases. Without antibiotic treatment, the clinical course could progress to respiratory failure, shock and death. In pulmonic or septicemic cases of tularemia without antibiotics treatment the mortality rate has been as high as 30-60%. Given the short incubation period of tularemia and incomplete protection of current vaccines against inhalational tularemia, vaccination is not recommended for post-exposure prophylaxis. Given the lack of human-to-human transmission, isolation is not recommended for tularemia patients. Expect a short half-life due to desiccation, solar radiation, and other environmental factors, and a limited risk from secondary dispersal.

Answer 45

Streptobacillus monilformis-acute-chills, febrile, arthalgia, maculopapular rash on extremities. Get from rat bite or food contaminated with rat feces.

Answer 46

Inhalational from soils, surface water and venereal in man. Caseous lesions in lymph nodes. In animals signs are swollen joints, fever, cough, fistulous tracts; in man simulate typhoid fever or TB with empyema, abscesses, osteomyelitis; high case fatality rate.

Answer 47

contagious pustular dermatitis. Seen in virtually every place in the world that raises sheep and goats. It also has the ability to spread to the hands and arms of people handling infected animals. Caused by a virus from the pox family. The virus is very hardy and virus has been found in dried scabs up to twelve years after they have been shed. Animals that contact the disease usually develop a strong immunity and will not be re-infected for at least one year. Is extremely infectious disease with up to 90 percent of a flock showing signs. Prevention: Vaccinate.

Answer 48

Hendra virus (HeV) and Nipah virus (NiV) emerged in the last decade of the twentieth century as the causes of outbreaks of respiratory and neurological disease that infected a number of animal species. In 1994, HeV caused severe respiratory disease and the death of 13 horses and a horse trainer at a stable in Brisbane, Australia. Between September 1998 and April 1999, after spreading unrecognised as a respiratory or encephalitic infection in Malaysian pigs, NiV appeared in the human population there and was the cause of fatal encephalitis. Over one million pigs were culled to stop spread of the disease. HeV has caused the death of four of seven infected people while it has been reported that there have been 400 cases of NiV in humans, with approximately 200 deaths, in Malaysia, Singapore, Bangladesh and India. Fruit bats (flying foxes) in the genus Pteropus are natural hosts of both viruses. HeV infection of horses is characterized progressively by high fevers, facial swelling, severe respiratory difficulty and, terminally, copious frothy nasal discharge. Some horses display neurological signs. The most common post-mortem observations are dilated pulmonary lymphatics, severe pulmonary oedema and congestion. The underlying lesion is generalised degeneration of small blood vessels in a range of organs. Syncytial endothelial cells containing viral antigen are common in capillaries and arterioles. HeV infection of horses is not uniformly fatal and some horses manifesting clinical signs survive infection. Hendra virus does not appear to be highly contagious among horses, and close contact seems to be necessary for it to spread. Infected horses on pastures have rarely transmitted the virus. However, transmission appears to occur more readily in closed environments such as stables.

Answer 49

NiV infection of pigs is highly contagious, but it was not initially identified as a new disease because morbidity and mortality were not marked and clinical signs were not significantly different from other known pig diseases. Observations made during the outbreak investigation and during experimental infections confirmed that NiV infection of pigs is characterised by fever with respiratory involvement. In animals showing disease, nervous signs have been frequently reported, but many infections are subclinical. Some infected animals display an unusual barking cough. Abortion is reported in sows. Immunohistochemical lesions are found in either or both the respiratory system (tracheitis and bronchial and interstitial pneumonia) and the brain (meningitis) of infected animals. Syncytial cells containing viral antigen are seen in small blood vessels, lymphatic vessels and the respiratory epithelium. Both viruses affect companion animals. HeV causes pulmonary disease in cats similar to that observed in horses. Natural infection of dogs with NiV causes a distemper-like syndrome with a high mortality rates; there is serological evidence that some dogs survive infection. Experimentally NiV causes a similar disease to HeV in cats. Syncytial endothelial cells containing viral antigen were demonstrated in both HeV and NiV infections in cats and in NiV infection in dogs. Infection of humans is from animal contact, usually from an amplifier host rather than directly from the natural, reservoir host: NiV from swine and HeV from horses. However investigations of outbreaks of human NiV in Bangladesh have indicated infection from Pteropid bats. Human-to- human transmission has not been seen with HeV or with NiV in Malaysia and Singapore, but human-to-human transmission is suspected in recent outbreaks of NiV in Bangladesh. HeV and NiV are closely related members of the family Paramyxoviridae. Differences between them and other family members have led to their classification in a new genus, Henipavirus, in the subfamily Paramyxovirinae. Requirements for vaccines and diagnostic biologicals: There are no vaccines currently available for NiV.

Answer 50

Contagious disease of equids caused by equine arteritis virus (EAV), an RNA virus that is found in horse populations in many countries. While typically not life-threatening to otherwise healthy adult horses, EAV can cause abortion in pregnant mares; uncommonly, death in young foals; and establish a long-term carrier state in breeding stallions. While various horse breeds appear equally susceptible to EAV, the prevalence of infection can vary widely, with higher seropositivity rates occurring in Standardbreds and Warmbloods. Historically, outbreaks of EVA have been relatively infrequent. However, the number of confirmed occurrences appears to be increasing, likely attributable to increases in: 1) global movement of horses 2) accessability of carrier stallions 3) utilization of shipped cooled or frozen virus-infective semen Transmission most frequently occurs through direct contact with virus-infective respiratory secretions leading to widespread dissemination of the virus among susceptible horses in close proximity. Venereal transmission by infected stallions has a significant role in virus spread on or between breeding farms. Equine arteritis virus can be very efficiently spread through artificial insemination and the use of fresh-cooled or frozen semen. There is limited evidence that virus can also be transmitted via embryo transfer where the donor mare is bred with infective semen from a carrier stallion. The virus has been shown to remain viable for considerable periods of time in raw, extended or frozen semen held at temperatures equal to or less than 4°C. Indirect transmission, though less significant, can occur through contact with virus-contaminated fomites. The majority of primary EAV infections are subclinical or asymptomatic. EVA can vary in clinical severity both between and within outbreaks. EVA cannot be diagnosed based on clinical signs alone, as case presentation is similar to various other infectious and non-infectious equine diseases. Laboratory confirmation is required for diagnosis. Clinical signs, if they occur, typically develop 3 to 7 days post-infection and are variable but may include any combination or all of the following: fever; depression; anorexia; dependent edema (lower limbs, scrotum and prepuce or mammary glands); localized or generalized urticaria; supra or periorbital edema; conjunctivitis; lacrimal discharge and serous to mucoid nasal discharge. Abortion is a frequent sequel to infection in the unprotected, pregnant mare. When pregnant mares are exposed to the virus very close to term, they may not abort but give birth to a congenitally infected foal, affected with a rapidly progressive and fulminant interstitial pneumonia. Foals within a few months of age, if exposed to EAV can develop a life-threatening pneumonia or pneumoenteritis. A carrier state can develop following EAV infection in the post-pubertal colt or stallion. The virus can persist in the reproductive tract of stallions for many years and may result in lifelong infection. The carrier stallion is widely accepted as the natural reservoir of EAV and the source of diversity among naturally occurring strains of the virus.

Answer 51

Vaccine: The current licensed vaccine in N. America is a highly attenuated, modified live virus product. It has been shown to be safe and effective in stallions and non-pregnant mares. Mild post-vaccinal febrile reactions with transient lymphopenia have been observed in a small percentage of first-time vaccinated horses. Primary vaccination provides clinical protection against EVA but does not prevent re-infection and limited replication of challenge virus. However, in first-time vaccinates, the frequency, duration, and amount of vaccine virus that is shed via the respiratory tract is significantly less than that observed with natural infection. Vaccination in the face of an EVA outbreak has been successful in controlling further spread of the virus within 7 to 10 days. Immunization with the MLV vaccine stimulates a rapid protective response which in turn restricts development of the cell-associated viremia and viral shedding via the respiratory tract in horses naturally exposed to infection. As a consequence, the amount of EAV in circulation is greatly decreased, limiting further spread of the virus. Vaccination Schedules: In planning a vaccination program against EVA, it is important to consult with state and/or federal animal health officials to ensure that any such program is in compliance with the state's control program for EVA, if one exists. The indications for vaccination against EVA have been: 1) To protect stallions against infection and subsequent development of the carrier state. 2) To immunize seronegative mares before being bred with EAV-infective semen. 3) To curtail outbreaks in non-breeding populations. Note: It is not possible to differentiate vaccine-induced antibody response from that due to natural infection. It is strongly recommended that prior to vaccination, serum from all first-time vaccinates be tested and confirmed negative for antibodies to EAV by a USDA-approved laboratory . Mares intended for export should be similarly tested.

Answer 52

Outbreak Mitigation Non-breeding population: Vaccination is an effective strategy in containing outbreaks, particularly in congregated groups of horses where isolation may be problematic. Serologic testing, as described above, should be performed on intact males and females that may be intended for future breeding purposes and/or export. Breeding population: Outbreaks of EVA can be complex and can have far reaching implications. Vaccination is a component of outbreak management but should be performed only under the direct supervision of a veterinarian. (Link to AAEP infectious disease guidelines)

Answer 53

Picornavirus Killed by acid or bases Cattle, pigs, cloven hoofed---NOT horses Swine and other cloven-hoofed ruminants. The US has been free of FMD since 1929. Dx ELISA- antigen detection. Pigs serve as amplifiers of the disease, being veritable virus factories. It can be so clinically mild in sheep and goats as to miss it completely. The disease is characterized by fever and blister like lesions on the tongue, mouth, teats, and between the claws. Many affected animals recover, but causes severe losses in the production of meat and milk. The virus has a remarkable capacity for remaining viable in carcasses, in animal byproducts, in water, in such materials as straw and bedding, and even in pastures. Animals, people, or materials that bring the virus into physical contact with susceptible animals can spread FMD viruses. An outbreak can occur when: People wearing contaminated clothes or footwear or using contaminated equipment pass the virus. Contaminated vehicles, facilities are used to hold susceptible animals. Raw or improperly cooked garbage containing infected meat or animal products is fed to susceptible animals. Susceptible animals are exposed to materials such as hay, water, feedstuffs, hides, or biologics contaminated with the virus. A cow can be infected by semen from an infected bull.

Answer 54

Differential Diagnoses: VS, bluetongue, BVD and foot rot in cattle and VES of swine and SVD in pigs. A single infected animal or one contaminated sausage could carry the virus to American livestock. Deer and wildlife populations rapidly could become infected and remain a reservoir for the virus.

Answer 55

Measures being taken to preclude entry/spread of FMD include: (a) U.S. bans on importations of livestock and meat; U.S. government activity at airports and harbors to prevent introduction of the disease. (b) Early detection of the disease by producers and veterinarians, (c) Minimizing possibility that visitors and employees enter facilities without thorough disinfection, (d) Assuring that vehicles are not the means of FMD infection, and (e) Maintaining vigilance on livestock and susceptible livestock.

Answer 56

U.S. beef producers can help prevent entry/spread of FMD by: Realizing that visitors from FMD-affected countries may unknowingly introduce the virus into the U.S., and meat and dairy products from affected countries may harbor the virus. To protect beef cattle operations and the U.S. cattle industry from FMD, guidelines to follow are: (a) provide diagnostic training to employees. (b) Minimize exposure by asking visitors and employees to register, declare animals at home and exposed to, change clothes/footwear and wash hands thoroughly, disinfect via footbath, and restrict animals/equipment entering and leaving the premise. (c) Discourage contact with livestock by international visitors and do not allow meat or animal products from FMD-infected countries to enter your facility. (d) Park all arriving vehicles in a restricted area; have vehicles available for on-premise transport. (e) Receive incoming cattle only during daylight hours, make sure health papers match the cattle, and record truck license numbers. ( f) Maintain vigilance on livestock and susceptible wildlife.

Answer 57

Hantavirus pulmonary( Sin Nombre virus): Syndrome first recognized in 1993, is caused by several related viruses in the genus Hantavirus. The primary reservoir of Sin Nombre Virus is the deer mouse, Peromyscus maniculatus. HPS is a rare but serious, and often deadly, lung infection. Rodents found throughout North America carry the Hantavirus that causes HPS. People get HPS when they breathe in dust that is contaminated with saliva, urine, or droppings from infected rodents. No cure.

Answer 58

Hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome is a viral infection acquired from rodents. Most of the outbreaks were associated where troops had been involved in trench warfare. The prototype virus was named after the Hantaan river in Korea. The group of closely related viruses causing HFRS have recently been classified as the genus Hantavirus, forming a subgroup of the family Bunyaviridae. The virus is usually acquired directly from rodents, in which it establishes a silent but persistent infection. In these rodents, the virus is detected primarily in the lung and kidney, where it is able to persist in the presence of serum antibodies. Large quantities of virus are excreted throughout life. Humans may become infected through minor cuts and abrasions contaminated with rodent urine or feces.

Answer 59

Cercopithecine herpesvirus 1 (B virus), an alphaherpesvirus endemic in Asian macaques, is closely related to herpes simplex virus (HSV). Most macaques carry B virus without overt signs of disease. However, zoonotic infection with B virus in humans usually results in fatal encephalomyelitis or severe neurologic impairment. Although the incidence of human infection with B virus is low, a death rate of >70% before the availability of antiviral therapy makes this virus a serious zoonotic threat.

Answer 60

RNA virus, Genus Pestivirus, family Togaviridae,. Transmitted pig to pig. Cooking destroys. Control: Test and slaughter. Dx virus neutralization. The continuing spread of Classical Swine Fever in Korea is alarming. In Korea's last notification to the OIE the authorities informed that ring vaccination policy for pigs has been applied since 25 Dec 2002 and it seems now that these measures have not been sufficient. Contagious OIE list A viral disease.

Answer 61

Rodent-borne viral infectious disease that presents as aseptic meningitis, encephalitis, or meningoencephalitis. Family Arenaviridae. LCMV is most commonly recognized as causing neurological disease, asymptomatic infection is also common. LCMV is spread by house mouse, Mus musculus. Once infected, these mice can become chronically infected by maintaining virus in their blood and/or persistently shedding virus in their urine, a common characteristic of other Arena virus infections in rodents. Humans become infected by inhaling infectious aerosolized particles of rodent urine, feces, or saliva, ingesting food contaminated with virus, contamination of mucus membranes with infected body fluids, or by directly exposing cuts to blood.

Answer 62

``` Poxviridae- Capripoxviridae; remarkably stable in environment and against chemical agents; mode of transmission not established; prevalent in wet summer months; follows migration routes, roads, trails ```

Answer 63

Acute, sporadic, infectious disease of cattle and cervidae with low morbidity and HIGH mortality. There are two forms: Wildebeest Associated (an alcelaphine herpervirus 1 that wildebeest carry subclinically) and Sheep Associated (ovine herpervirus 2, which is worldwide in distribution). MCF is an often-fatal disease of cattle and wild ruminants. MCF is a generalized viral disease of domestic cattle and buffaloes and many species of wild ruminants characterized by high fever, profuse nasal discharge, corneal opacity, lymphadenopathy, and severe inflammation/ necrosis of the conjunctival, oral, and nasal mucosas and hemorrhagic diarrhea. Transmission to cattle or other susceptible species may occur by inhalation, ingestion of feed or water contaminated with infectious secretions or feces, or possibly mechanically by arthropods. Acutely, head and eye form. Recovery is rare.

Answer 64

Another new paramyxovirus, was discovered in 97, in Australia, in a group of pigs experiencing abortion storms and stillbirths. Some of the farm workers also reported feeling ill. Investigation revealed a colony of fruit bats near the barn. Menangle virus was isolated from the bats, implicating them as a reservoir.

Answer 65

Member of the Orthopoxvirus genus in the family Poxviridae--DNA virus. Infections of index cases result from direct contact with the blood, bodily fluids, or rashes of infected animals. Animal-to-person and person-to-person transmission. In Africa, human infections have been documented through the handling of infected monkeys, Gambian rats or squirrels. There are no drugs or vaccines available for monkeypox, although vaccination against smallpox has been proven to be 85% effective in preventing monkeypox in the past. On June 11, 2003, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) issued a joint order prohibiting the importation of all African rodents into the United States. The joint order also banned within the United States any sale, offering for distribution, transport, or release into the environment, of prairie dogs and six specific genera of African rodents. The joint order was enacted as part of the public health response to the first reported outbreak of monkeypox in the United States. On November 4, 2003, the joint order was replaced by an interim final rule which maintains the bans on importation of African rodents and the sale, distribution, transport, and release into the environment as previously described. Currently, a person may not import into the United States any rodent of African origin, including any rodents that were caught in Africa and then shipped directly to the United States or shipped to other countries before being imported to the United States. The prohibition also applies to rodents whose native habitat is in Africa, even if those rodents were born elsewhere. These animals may still be imported for scientific, exhibition, or educational purposes with a valid permit issued by CDC.

Answer 66

Paramyxovirus 1; infects most birds; respiratory infection may be mild, dramatic drop in production/egg laying for 2-4 weeks; vaccinate; no TX Paramyxovirus 1 or Newcastle Disease is a highly contagious viral disease affecting poultry of all ages. Affected species include chickens, turkeys, pigeons and ducks. The condition is rarely diagnosed in ducks but is a possible cause of production drops/fertility problems. Other species can be infected including mammals occasionally (e.g. conjunctivitis in man). The virus involved is Paramyxovirus PMV-1, which is of variable pathogenicity. Signs are typically of disease of the nervous, respiratory or reproductive systems. Morbidity is usually high and mortality varies 0-100%. Higher mortality is seen in velogenic disease in unvaccinated stock.

Answer 67

Four manifestations have been identified: ND - Velogenic Viscerotropic (VVND) - sometimes called 'asiatic' or exotic. It is highly virulent for chickens, less for turkeys and relatively apathogenic in psittacines. ND - Neurotropic Velogenic - Acute and fatal in chickens of any age causing neurological and some respiratory signs. Intestinal lesions are absent. ND - Mesogenic - Mortality and nervous signs in adult. These viruses have sometimes been used as vaccines in previously immunised birds. ND - Lentogenic - Mild disease, sometimes subclinical. Can affect any age. Strains can be developed as vaccines. Transmission is via aerosols, birds, fomites, visitors and imported psittacines (often asymptomatic). It is not usually vertical (but chicks may become infected in hatcheries from contaminated shells). The virus survives for long periods at ambient temperature, especially in faeces and can persist in houses (in faeces, dust etc). for up to 12 months. However it is quite sensitive to disinfectants, fumigants and sunlight. It is inactivated by temperatures of 56°C for 3 hours or 60°C for 30 min, acid pH, formalin and phenol, and is ether sensitive.

Answer 68

Signs Signs are highly variable and will depend on the nature of the infecting virus (see above), the infective dose and the degree of immunity from previous exposure or vaccination. Figure 28. Severe haemorrhagic and necrotic lesions in proventriculus and Peyers patches in the intestines of a broiler chicken suffering from one of the severe forms of Newcastle disease (viscerotropic velogenic). ``` Sudden Death Depression. Inappetance. Coughing. Dyspnoea. Diarrhoea. Nervous signs. Paralysis. Twisted neck. Severe drop in egg production. Moult. Post-mortem lesions Airsacculitis. Tracheitis. Necrotic plaques in proventriculus, intestine, caecal tonsil. Haemorrhage in proventriculus. Intestinal lesions primarily occur in the viscerotropic form. ```

Answer 69

Diagnosis A presumptive diagnosis may be made on signs, post-mortem lesions, rising titre in serology. It is confirmed by isolation in CE, HA+, HI with ND serum or DID (less cross reactions), IFA. Cross-reactions have mainly been with PMV-3. Pathogenicity evaluated by Mean Death Time in embryos, intracerebral or IV pathogenicity in chicks. Samples - tracheal or cloacal. Differentiate from Infectious bronchitis, laryngotracheitis, infectious coryza, avian influenza, EDS-76, haemorrhagic disease, encephalomyelitis, encephalomalacia, intoxications, middle ear infection/skull osteitis, pneumovirus infection.

Answer 70

Treatment None, antibiotics to control secondary bacteria. Prevention Quarantine, biosecurity, all-in/all-out production, vaccination. It is common to monitor response to vaccination, especially in breeding birds by the use of routine serological monitoring. HI has been used extensively; Elisa is now also used. These tests do not directly evaluate mucosal immunity, however. Vaccination programmes should use vaccines of high potency, which are adequately stored and take into account the local conditions. A typical programme may involve Hitchner B1 vaccine at day old followed by LaSota-type vaccine at 14 days. The LaSota-type vaccine may even repeated at 35-40 days of age if risk is high. Use of spray application is recommended but it needs to be applied with care to achieve good protection with minimal reaction. Inactivated vaccines have largely replaced the use of live vaccines in lay but they do not prevent local infections. To prevent or reduce vaccinal reactions in young chicks it is important that day old have uniform titres of maternal immunity. Vaccinal reactions may present as conjunctivitis, snicking, and occasionally gasping due to a plug of pus in the lower trachea. In some countries it has been customary to provide antibiotics prophylactically during periods of anticipated vaccinal reaction. Use of Mycoplasma gallisepticum free stock under good management reduces the risk of vaccinal reactions.

Answer 71

Eradicated in Indonesia by depopulation of swine. Discovered in 1999. It has caused disease in animals and humans, through contact with infectious animals. Nipah is closely related to Hendra virus from Australia. Nipah and Hendra (Equine Morbillivirus virus) are members of the virus family Paramyxoviridae. They infect a wide range of hosts: significant mortality in humans; public health concern. Natural Host: fruit bats for both Nipah and Hendra. The bats appear to be susceptible to infection with these viruses, but do not become ill. Transmission: from animal to animal, and from animal to human is uncertain, but appears to require close contact with contaminated tissue or body fluids. Unlikely Nipa is easily transmitted to man, although it is suggested that Nipah virus is transmitted from animals to humans more readily than Hendra. In spite frequent contact between fruit bats and humans; no serological evidence of human infection among bat carers. Pigs were the apparent source of infection among most human cases in the Malaysian outbreak of Nipah, but other sources, such as infected dogs and cats, cannot be excluded. Human-to-human transmission of Nipah virus has not been reported. In symptomatic cases, the onset is flu-like symptoms, may progress to encephalitis with convulsions and coma. Treatment: none. Respiratory secretions contain the virus; it is a biohazardous agent.

Answer 72

t’s alive and well in the US for at least 150 years. Pseudorabies is a disease of swine that can also affect cattle, horses, dogs, cats, sheep, and goats. It is an extremely contagious herpesvirus that causes reproductive problems, including abortion, and stillbirths. The virus has never been shown to be contagious to humans. PRV is primarily spread through nose-to-nose contact. If present on inanimate objects, such as boots, clothing, feed, trucks, and equipment, the virus can also spread from herd to herd and farm to farm. Pseudorabies can be prevented primarily through good biosecurity, and a sound vaccination program. ELISA

Answer 73

Morbillivirus; humans not known to be susceptible; inhalation, fomites and direct contact for spread; inactivated by ultraviolet light

Answer 74

Is an acute, febrile, viral disease that affects domestic animals (such as cattle, buffalo, sheep, goats, and camels) and humans (influenza-like illness). RVF is most commonly associated with mosquito-borne epidemics during years of unusually heavy rainfall. Genus Phlebovirus, family Bunyaviridae. Many different species of mosquitoes are vectors for the RVF virus. The abortion rate among pregnant ewes is almost 100%. During epizootics, people may become infected with RVF either by being bitten by infected mosquitoes, or through contact with the blood, other body fluids or organs of infected animals. While most human cases are relatively mild, a small proportion of patients develop a much more severe disease. Spread to humans by Aedes mosquitoes can lead to a flu-like illness with permanent deficits due to retinal damage, and some mortality due to hemorrhagic fever. A sustained program of animal vaccination can prevent RVF. Also called Enzootic Hepatitis because when you open up calves, you see big, pale yellow livers.

Answer 75

he USDA FAD lab confirmed foreign rabbit-calicivirus disease on the basis of hemagglutination tests and electron microscopy. Utah state veterinarian canceled all rabbit shows until the outbreak concluded, and ordered depopulation of the original infected herds. Rabbit calicivirus, also known as viral hemorrhagic disease of rabbits, damages the liver, intestines, and lymphatic tissue and causes terminal, massive blood clots. Another U.S. outbreak of RCV occurred in April 2000. The disease was classified as a foreign animal disease because the causative agent has never been previously confirmed in a rabbit within the borders of the United States. No vaccine is legally available for use in the United States.

Answer 76

Highly contagious disease of ungulates that is one of the most devastating diseases of cattle; cattle plague. Massive European outbreaks in the 18th and 19th century led to the establishment of veterinary schools to find treatment or control measures, while the 1920 epizootic resulted in the establishment of the Office International des Epizooties to report on world-wide incidence. Rinderpest was enzootic in parts of eastern Africa, India, and Pakistan where it may cause only mild or in apparent infection. Infected goats or sheep usually introduces it, with catastrophic effects in susceptible cattle. Clinical signs can vary greatly depending of the strain of virus and the susceptibility of the host. A high fever with inflammation/swelling of the mouth, nasal cavity, and vagina/vulva is seen. Severe lacrimation/salivation occurs, eventually turning purulent and possibly bloodstained. Necrotic lesions occur in the area, and they eventually coalesce so that the mucosa will slough off leaving an underlying raw exposed area. The same lesions occur in the intestine, leading to diarrhea and dysentery. After 3-5 days the temperature becomes subnormal, and shock and prostration lead to death. Control of this disease should be easy by quarantine and vaccination as the virus is quite fragile. However, this has not proven to be the case. An internationally funded vaccination program in Africa in the 1960s failed due to problems with vaccine storage, inability to carry out effective surveillance over large areas, subclinical strains, and political instability. It has been said a good fence would control Rinderpest. ELISA. DIARRHEA, DEHYDRATION, DEATH Eradicated Read attachment!!!!

Answer 77

Simian immunodeficiency virus (SIV) belongs to the family Retroviridae (subfamily Lentiviridae) and is closely related to HIV-1 and HIV-2.

Answer 78

Capripox virus; survive in environment; inactivated by sunlight; mode of transmission thought to be aerosol or dust; not contagious to man

Answer 79

Mimic FMD and VS. Enterovirus; preserved by refrigeration and freezing; can remain viable in hams, sausage and intestinal casings; High Morbidity but Low Mortality Quarantine and slaughter In swine there are 3 non-FMD viruses can cause clinical diseases that mimic FMD: swine vesicular disease virus (never reported in US); vesicular stomatitis virus VS, cyclic in the US; and the FAD vesicular exanthema of swine virus (VES, endogenous to the US and currently eradicated; only reported once in Iceland due to raw garbage from US airbase)

Answer 80

Togaviridae (genus Alphavirus), Flaviviridae, and Bunyaviridae. Arboviral encephalitides have a global distribution, but there are four main virus agents of encephalitis in the United States: EEE, WEE, St. Louis encephalitis (SLE) and La Crosse (LAC) encephalitis, all of which are transmitted by mosquitoes. Another virus, Powassan, is a minor cause of encephalitis in the northern United States, and is transmitted by ticks.

Answer 81

Insect-borne viral disease to which all species of ruminants are susceptible, although sheep are most severely affected. Cattle main mammalian reservoir and are very important in the epidemiology of the disease. It is characterized by changes to the mucous linings of the mouth and nose and the coronary band of the foot. Family Reoviridae, genus Orbivirus. Transmitted by biting midges of the genus Culicoides. The main transmission cycle is between the Culicoides midge and cattle, with sheep being infected when cattle are not present or the midge population is high. Thus, cattle can be used to detect the presence of BTV virus. The clinical signs can vary from in apparent to mild or severe. In sheep, the disease is characterized by fever, increased respiration and hyperemia of the lips, mucous linings of the mouth and nose and eyelids, accompanied by excess salivation and frothing. Nasal discharges are common. Infection during pregnancy may result in abortions. ELISA, AGID

Answer 82

Since the original virus was isolated, other viruses have been isolated that are closely related to California encephalitis. This group of related viruses is now classified as the California serogroup, within the genus Bunyavirus, family Bunyaviridae. Several other human pathogens (e.g., Jamestown Canyon virus, La Crosse virus, and Tahyna virus) also belong to the California serogroup. See a mild encephalitis typically affecting children.

Answer 83

EEE) Eastern equine encephalitis virus, family Togaviridae, genus Alphavirus. Closely related to western and Venezuelan equine encephalitis viruses. Transmitted to horses and humans by mosquitoes. Birds are reservoir source for mosquitoes. EEE is transmitted to horses predominantly from infected asymptomatic wild birds via Aedes spp. mosquitoes. Horses and humans are "dead end" hosts. In horses, cs include unsteadiness and erratic behavior. No effective treatment and seizures resulting in death usually occur within 48-72 hours. Flu-like illness in people with fever, headache, and sore throat, w/ a CFR of 30-50%. The case-fatality for EEE virus is 50-90 percent in horses in Florida.

Answer 84

Family Togaviridae, genus Alphavirus. Mosquitoe is Culex. Tarsalis. Closely related to Eastern and Venezuelan encephalitis. WEE is most commonly reported west of the Mississippi River. Most infected with WEE virus will have either no symptoms or a very mild illness. Most of the severe human cases begin with a sudden onset of fever, headache, stiff neck, vomiting, and lethargy. Within two to four days, the illness may progress into disorientation, irritability, seizures and coma. No treatment. Approximately 20-50% of symptomatic horses are put down or die from WEE infections. Horses and humans are "dead-end" hosts for WEE

Answer 85

Most lethal form of EE, but rare in the US. Horse is AMPLYFYING HOST. The southern states are at the greatest risk like Florida. Togaviridae, alphavirus VEE was weaponized by the United States in the 1950's. Can see colic. Mosquito- Culex

Answer 86

flavivirus related to Japanese encephalitis virus. Mosquito-borne-specific mosquito vectors vary regionally: Gulf Coast, Ohio and Mississippi Valley: (Culex pipiens, Cx. quinquefasciatus); Florida: Cx. nigripalpus; Western States: Cx. Tarsalis. S LE virus is maintained in a mosquito-bird-mosquito cycle, with periodic amplification by peridomestic birds and Culex mosquitoes

Answer 87

flavivirus antigenically related to St. Louis encephalitis virus Fewer than 1 case/year in U.S. civilians/military personnel traveling to and living in Asia Rare outbreaks in U.S. territories in Western Pacific. Mosquito vector is Culex Tritaeniorhynchus

Answer 88

Crows dying. Encephalitis in NY, Aug-Sept 1999 Flavivirus, Same as St Louis and Japanese Encephalitis Vectorborne- mosquito Culex possibly Tiger Possible bird-to-bird transmission Crows nearly 100% Poultry poor sentinel Some birds survive, high titer, persistent carrier? Horses ACUTE ATAXIA Human cases occurred before horses therefore horses POOR sentinels Dx Elisa on CSF, serum Virus isolation- “gold standard”

Answer 89

Viral disease that is spread by mosquitoes (Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus) It causes fever and severe joint pain. Other symptoms include muscle pain, headache, nausea, fatigue and rash. The disease shares some clinical signs with dengue, and can be misdiagnosed in areas where dengue is common. First described during an outbreak in southern Tanzania in 1952. It is an alphavirus of the family Togaviridae. The name ‘chikungunya’ derives from a root verb in the Kimakonde language, meaning "to become contorted" and describes the stooped appearance of sufferers with joint pain. After the bite of an infected mosquito, onset of illness occurs usually between four and eight days but can range from two to 12 days. There is no cure for the disease. Treatment is focused on relieving the symptoms. The proximity of mosquito breeding sites to human habitation is a significant risk factor for chikungunya. The disease occurs in Africa, Asia and the Indian subcontinent. In recent decades mosquito vectors of chikungunya have spread to Europe and the Americas. In 2007, disease transmission was reported for the first time in Europe, in a localized outbreak in north-eastern Italy.

Answer 90

EIA is significant historically because it is the first disease of horses proven to be caused by a “filterable virus” one that can survive a special laboratory filtering procedure and remain infectious. EIAV is the first lentivirus–induced disease proven to be transmitted by insects. And EIA is the first persistent virus for which antigenic drift was defined. Finally, EIA is the first lentivirus–induced disease for which a diagnostic test was approved. Related to HIV. Fever, weight loss, infected for life. Dx: immunodiffusion (COGGINS) test (AGID). Horse fly is vector. EIA is considered a classic blood borne infection. People have played an important role in EIAV transmission over the years by using blood-contaminated materials on different horses. The EIA most frequently is transmitted between horses in close proximity by large biting insects, such as horseflies and deerflies

Answer 91

Schmallenberg virus was discovered in November 2011 and epidemiological, immunological and virological investigations are on-going in several European countries. ETIOLOGY The “Schmallenberg virus” is an enveloped, negative-sense, segmented, single-stranded RNA virus. It belongs to the Bunyaviridae family, within the Orthobunyavirus genus. The Schmallenberg virus is a member of the Simbu serogroup viruses, which includes Shamonda, Akabane, and Aino viruses. Field and laboratory studies indicate a causal relationship between Schmallenberg virus infection and the reported clinical signs. . Resistance to physical and chemical action From extrapolation from the California serogroup of Orthobunyaviruses: Temperature: Infectivity lost (or significantly reduced) at 50–60°C for at least 30 minutes. Chemicals/Disinfectants: Susceptible to common disinfectants (1 % sodium hypochlorite, 2% glutaraldehyde, 70 % ethanol, formaldehyde) Survival: Does not survive outside the host or vector for long periods

Answer 92

EPIDEMIOLOGY According to the epidemiological investigations, reinforced by what is already known about the genetically related Simbu serogroup viruses, Schmallenberg virus affects ruminants. Serological studies indicate that it is not zoonotic. Transmission in animals is by insect vectors and then vertically in utero. Up to May 2012, The Netherlands, Belgium, Germany, United Kingdom, France, Luxembourg, Spain and Italy have reported stillbirth and congenital malformations with PCR positive results.

Answer 93

``` Hosts Confirmed by PCR or virus isolation: Cattle, sheep, goats Bison Confirmed by serology only: Red deer Roe deer Alpaca Mouflons Humans: Epidemiological and virological studies of human populations considered to be at risk did not demonstrate evidence of zoonotic potential. ```

Answer 94

Transmission Vectors: Schmallenberg virus genome was detected in several Culicoides species. Further information is required to determine whether mosquitoes play a role. Vertical transmission across the placenta is proven. Direct transmission from animal to animal is very unlikely. Viremia and incubation period Experimental infection in cattle and sheep showed no clinical signs or mild symptoms at 3 to 5 days post-inoculation with an incubation period of between 1 and 4 days and viraemia lasting for 1 to 5 days.

Answer 95

Clinical diagnosis Manifestation of clinical signs varies by species: bovine adults have shown a mild form of acute disease during the vector season, congenital malformations have affected more species of ruminants (to date: cattle, sheep, goat and bison). Some dairy sheep and cow farms have also reported diarrhoea. Differential diagnosis For the acute infection of the adults: The symptoms are not specific. All possible causes of high fever, diarrhoea and milk reduction should be taken into account. For the malformation of calves, lambs and kids: Other Orthobunyaviruses Bluetongue Pestiviruses Genetic factors Toxic substances

Answer 96

PREVENTION AND CONTROL There is currently no specific treatment or vaccine for Schmallenberg virus. Sanitary prophylaxis Control of potential vectors during the vector-active season may decrease the transmission of virus. Reschedule of breeding outside the vector season should decrease the number of fetal malformations.

Answer 97

Acute, febrile, viral disease NOT in Asia, Sylvatic monkey reservoir- mosquito: Aedes Aegypti: flavivirus. There are three types of transmission cycle for yellow fever: sylvatic, intermediate and urban. Prototypical hemorrhagic fever.

Answer 98

Anaplasmosis marginale. Anemia, fever, icterus. Transmitted by ticks of genus Boophilus and Dermancentor biologically and mechanically by deer and stable flies.

Answer 99

is the general name used to describe several bacterial diseases that affect animals and humans. Human ehrlichiosisis a disease caused by at least three different ehrlichial species in the United States: Ehrlichia chaffeensis, Ehrlichia ewingii, and a third Ehrlichia species provisionally called Ehrlichia muris-like (EML). Ehrlichiae are transmitted to humans by the bite of an infected tick. The lone star tick (Amblyomma americanum) is the primary vector of both Ehrlichia chaffeensis and Ehrlichia ewingii in the United States. Typical symptoms include: fever, headache, fatigue, and muscle aches. Usually, these symptoms occur within 1-2 weeks following a tick bite. Ehrlichiosis is diagnosed based on symptoms, clinical presentation, and later confirmed with specialized laboratory tests. The first line treatment for adults and children of all ages is doxycycline. Ehrlichiosis and other tickborne diseases can be prevented.

Answer 100

febrile, protozoan, tick borne disease of cattle. Boophilus ticks. B. bigemina and B. bovis. Clinical signs are extensive RBC lysis leading to anemia, icterus, hemoglobiuria and death. In 1943, dipping the cows every few weeks completed a tick eradication program. FAD in the States now.

Answer 101

-acute, protozoan, tick borne disease of cattle, characterized by high fever, swelling of lymph’s nodes, emaciation and high mortality. Seen in Africa-Rhodesia. Tick is Rhipcephalus. The protozoan lives inside the RBC’s.

Answer 102

The etiologic agent is unknown. The vector is the argasid (Pajaroello) soft tick, Ornithodoros coriaceus. Last trimester abortions are seen. The disease occurs annually in certain areas of California. Abortions are characterized by a sudden onset with high fetal mortality. The disease is confined to 1st calf heifers (females in their first pregnancy). There are no clinical signs in the dam. The fetus is delivered in a fresh state. Hemorrhages are observed on the ventral surface of the tongue. Straw colored peritoneal and pleural effusions are common. The subcutaneous tissues are often edematous. The liver is swollen and nodular, the spleen enlarged, and the lymph nodes enlarged and edematous. Prevention is accomplished by exposing yearlings and open 2 year-olds to summertime brush areas where the tick lives, and breeding in the fall.

Answer 103

Acute, tick-borne disease of domestic and wild ruminants, including cattle, sheep, goats, deer and antelope. It is caused by the rickettsial bacterium Cowdria ruminantium, which is transmitted by Amblyomma ticks. It is characterized by a rapid rise in body temperature, loss of appetite and respiratory distress, followed by nervous signs, such as circling motions, in coordination, recumbency, and paddling movements of the limbs. Heartwater disease does not affect humans. If this disease enters the United States, mortality rates in susceptible infected species could range from 40% to nearly 100%. Since there is no officially recognized treatment or practical vaccine to protect against the disease, prevention relies on control of its tick vector.

Answer 104

is a tick borne viral disease (bunyaviridae) of sheep and goats characterized by fever and hemorrhagic gastroenteritis and high mortality. Brown Tick, Rhipcephalus. Reportable disease in US and List B on OIE’s list. Man susceptible but infection is rare.

Answer 105

Disease of equids best known for its gastrointestinal signs such as enteritis and diarrhea. This disease is caused by Neorickettsia risticii, an organism that lives inside several different cells of the equine body. This disease has been referred to in the past as equine monocytic ehrlichiosis, or equine ehrlichial colitis. Several studies have been conducted to determine the route of infection and have revealed that a parasite, living in freshwater snails and aquatic insects, is a reservoir for N. risticii. The parasites and N. risticii have been found in adult and immature forms of aquatic insects, such as caddisflies, mayflies, damselflies, dragonflies, and stoneflies. Therefore, the seasonality of PHF is likely related to the seasonality of the flying insect. But how does an equid become infected? These types of insects do not feed on warm blooded mammals; so, it is likely that an equid may ingest an aquatic insect or snail while grazing, or consume a flying insect that has landed in drinking water. It has also been suggested that the insects might be attracted to the barn area by outdoor lights during the night. Tx with oxytetracycline

Answer 106

Most of the parasitic fungi exist as an organism in soil, decaying vegetation and feces, and on decaying animal matter and tissues. The soil and the air is the primary source of most infections, which can be acquired by ingestion, inhalation, or even through the skin abrasions. Those fungi capable of producing infection in hosts, such as histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis, and blastomycosis are regarded as primary systemic mycoses. Opportunistic fungi, such as Aspergillus and Cryptococcus, usually require a host that is debilitated, or immune-suppressed, to establish infection. Clinical diagnosis of fungal infections can only be reached by both the culture and microscopic identification of the organism. Serology may also be used as a diagnostic tool for some fungal disease. Fungal diseases cause significant mortality in dogs and cats. Blastomycosis, histoplasmosis, coccidiomycosis, and cryptococcosis are the four most common fungal diseases. Unlike cats, which are not known to have any age or breed predispositions, young adult, large breed dogs generally are predisposed to these often fatal diseases.

Answer 107

Blastomycosis is a systemic fungal infection, caused by Blastomyces dermatitidis which prefers moist soil enriched with bird or bat droppings. Infection is caused by inhaling fungal spores. In India, Iyer (1983) first reported a case of Blastomycosis in pariah dog. For some reason the dogs most affected are usually young males, two to four years of age, with hunting breeds most likely to pick up the fungus than other dogs. Lesions and nodules consist of numerous, variable sized, irregular pus-filled granulomas that multiply and ulcerate through the skin as cutaneous pustules covered with yellow scabs. The bronchial lymph nodes enlarge and the dog will show signs of a fever and respiratory problems including coughing and nasal discharge. Dry, harsh lung sounds from lung lesions are commonly found. The infection may also involve the urinary tract, with blood in the urine, and difficult urination. If the disease spreads to the eyes and growths develop in the eyeballs, glaucoma, retinal detachment, and blindness can result. Weight loss is evident, accompanied by anorexia, and lameness from nodular lesions on bones (Mordecai et al 2006). Diagnosis can be made from radiographic findings in the lungs or from aspirated samples from lesions. This fungus does not respond well to treatment unless caught early, and the lesions removed surgically. The prognosis is best for dogs without lung disease or even with only a moderate lung disease. With the use of Ketoconazole and Amphotericin B, some symptoms can be reduced without a chance of relapse.

Answer 108

Canine Histoplasmosis is a non-contagious systemic fungal infection caused by Histoplasma capsulatum organism which grows in the soil in tropical and subtropical regions. Bird, chicken and bat manure provide a rich environment for the fungus. Symptoms are similar to blastomycosis and usually appear from about 10 days after exposure. Some forms of the disease are mild and self-limiting, or involve only the lungs and lymph nodes of the chest. Many dogs have a long course of weight loss due to severe diarrhea, characterized by fresh blood, straining, and mucous, high fever, and anemia. The dog may have a chronic cough and show respiratory difficulty due to obstructions and enlargements of the bronchial lymph nodes. Presence of the fungus is determined by rectal scrapings in dogs with diarrhea or needle aspirations of the lymph nodes and lungs. The more acute and widespread the infection is, the less promising is any drug therapy, but with early diagnosis, antifungal drug therapy with ketoconazole may improve the outlook. Hypoallergenic diets should be provided that must contain ingredients not previously encountered by the patient and all other potential sources of offending substances should be excluded, including rawhide chews, table scraps, vitamin and mineral supplements (Edison et al 2006).

Answer 109

"Valley Fever" is caused by a fungal organism called Coccidioides immitis. Valley Fever is a fungal disease found mostly in the dry areas of the Southwestern U.S., and northern Mexico. Dogs are most commonly affected, although many warm-blooded animals can contact it. Infection occurs by the dog inhaling spores from the soil. If infection happens, the inhaled spores burst in the lungs and start growing, usually in the lymph nodes. If the immune system does not kill the fungal organism here, they spread to many parts of the body, involving bone and eye tissue. Hunting dogs are particularly at risk of being exposed to the fungal spores, but even indoor dogs have a chance of exposure following a dust storm when billions of spores become airborne. However, the months of greatest exposure to the spores are May through August, when the fungi stop growing and produce spores to survive the dry, hot summer. Most diagnosis of Valley Fever is based on a history of travel in prevalent areas, clinical signs, and laboratory testing. Clinical signs include a chronic, dry, persistent cough, breathing problems, depression, fever, decreased appetite, lethargy, weight loss, and in some cases, blindness. The lymph nodes may be swollen and enlarged along with extreme pain and lameness as the disease involves the bones or spinal column, and enlarged joints. Since it takes several months for these signs to become apparent, diagnosis is often delayed until the disease has progressed to the point where the dog is very ill. A blood test can confirm Valley Fever and treatment started, with the drug of choice being Ketoconazole, given twice a day. This medication is usually tolerated if given with food. Continuous use is necessary for at least six months before major results can be seen (Ettinger et al 1995).

Answer 110

Cryptococcosis is a fungal disease caused by Cryptococcus neoformans a yeast-like fungus found in soil contaminated with pigeon droppings. It is a rare disease in dogs, with cats seven to ten times more likely to be infected. Dogs, especially young dogs under one year, tend to have the infection quite severely, with the infection first showing up as lesions on the lungs, facial regions, legs, and the cerebral cavities. It rapidly spreads to their central nervous system and eyes. Organs most usually involved include the kidneys, lymph nodes, liver, spleen, thyroid, adrenals, pancreas, heart valves, tonsils, GI tract, and muscles. If the brain is involved the dog will show signs of circling, staggering, behavior changes, accompanied by sneezing, coughing, nasal and eye discharge, and in some cases, blindness. There is little success in treatment when the infection has spread to this point (Reynolds 2006). Fatal disseminated Cryptococcosis with involvement of the skin, eyes and lymph node was diagnosed in 4 year old dog that was unresponsive to the conventional treatment (Pal et al 1996).

Answer 111

Aspergillosis is a fungal disease that in dogs is caused primarily by Aspergillus fumigatus, seen in mostly young dogs--in particular, those breeds with a long nose. The fungus affects the nasal chambers but lesions can occur in several organs, including the eye. It first begins in the posterior region of the nasal cavity with a nasal discharge that may last for months before becoming purulent and bloody. Nasal pain, sneezing and lethargy accompany these symptoms, and as the disease progresses the fungus may destroy and replace the spongy nasal passages with masses of fungi growth. If not diagnosed and treated, the fungi continue to grow into the cranium and the soft tissue around the eye. Since diagnosis of the disease from culture is not always easy, microscopic evaluations of the fungus from areas of the nasal cavities and membranes is also needed for positive identification. Radiographs may show tissue destruction since frontal sinus osteomyelitis will be apparent. Treatment of aspergillosis with systemic drugs and sometimes surgical scraping of the nasal passages is involved, expensive, and of long duration. Iodine flushes have been used with some success followed by systemically administered drags such as ketoconazole, thiabendazole, or itraconazole (Ettinger et al 1995).

Answer 112

Ringworm is a fungal skin disease that in dogs is caused by Microsporum canis (70%), Microsporum gypseum (20%), and Trichophyton mentagrophytes (10%). Typical signs in dogs include hair loss and scaly skin. Dermatophytes zoophilic species: Microsporum canis (cat 1o host), Trichophyton mentagrophytes, T. verrucosum (cow 1o host) The geophilic species of importance is Microsporum gypseum. In dogs: 70% of infections are caused by M. canis. In cats, 90% or more of clinical infections are due to M. canis, depending on geography. Microsporum canis is an important zoonotic agent. Sporotrichosis is a fungal disease caused by Sporothrix schenckii that affects both dogs and humans. It is a rare disease in dogs, with cat and horse infections predominating in veterinary medicine. The disease in dogs is usually nodular skin lesions of the head and trunk. Pythiosis is a disease cause by a water mould of the genus Pythium insidiosum. It occurs primarily in dogs and horses, but can also affect humans. In dogs it affects the gastrointestinal system and lymph nodes, and rarely the skin. Mucormycosis is a collection of fungal and mold diseases in dogs including pythiosis, zygomycosis, and lagenidiosis that affect the gastrointestinal tract and skin.

Answer 113

has a geographic distribution including many tropical areas of the world. The causative agent, Leishmania donovani, is transmitted by sandflies and encysts in macrophage-type cells, causing inflammation and damage in multiple visceral organs. Recently, this disease was found in hunting dogs in numerous locations throughout the eastern United States. Mode of entry and mechanism of spread are not yet understood.

Answer 114

that has been associated with extensive fish die-offs, especially in the Chesapeake Bay. This organism produces a toxin that causes skin ulcers and mortality in fish. When humans are exposed to this toxin, it causes skin lesions, fatigue, and cognitive deficits, especially problems with short-term memory and the learning of new tasks.

Answer 115

AKA nagana, sleeping sickness, is a systemic disease caused by a trypanosome parasite and transmitted by the tsetse fly. Cattle, sheep, goats, pigs, horses, camels, dogs, cats, and monkeys are susceptible to AAT and may suffer syndromes ranging from subclinical mild or chronic infection to acute fatal disease. Ruminants are widely known to be active reservoirs of the trypanosomes. The cardinal clinical sign observed is anemia. Also invariably present are intermittent fever, edema and loss of condition. Abortion may be seen, and infertility of males and females may be a sequellae. No pathognomonic change is seen in AAT. There are two types of the disease that affects humans. West African trypanosomiasis, which causes a chronic infection, is caused by Trypanosoma brucei gambiense. And East African trypanosomiasis, which causes acute illness lasting several weeks, caused by Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense. There is no vaccine or trt.

Answer 116

Chagas disease is caused by the parasite Trypanosoma cruzi. Reduviid bugs, or "kissing bugs". Insects become infected after biting an animal or person who already has Chagas. Infection is spread to humans when an infected bug deposits feces on a person's skin, usually while the person is sleeping. The person accidentally rubs the feces into the bite wound, also transmitted through transplants, breast milk and transfusions. CS eyelid edema* conjunctivitis, myocarditis

Answer 117

seen in immunocompromised people w/ cat scratch fever. cat scratch fever – Transmitted in feces of flea to the cat. Cat scratch disease (CSD) is a bacterial disease caused by Bartonella henselae. (also called Oroya Fever) Most people with CSD have been bitten or scratched by a cat and developed a mild infection at the point of injury. Cats transmit it in their saliva. Lymph nodes, especially those around the head, neck, and upper limbs, become swollen. Additionally, a person with CSD may experience fever, headache, fatigue, and a poor appetite. Rare complications of B. henselae infection are bacillary angiomatosis and Parinaud's oculoglandular syndrome. Malaria (Anopheles mosquitoes), TB and HIV are the leading infectious disease killers. Malaria is a mosquito-borne disease caused by a parasite. People with malaria often experience fever, chills, and flu-like illness. Left untreated, they may develop severe complications and die. I n 2010, an estimated 216 million cases of malaria occurred worldwide and 655,000 people died, most (91%) in the African Region. Among the malaria species that infect humans, Plasmodium vivax and P. ovale can develop dormant liver stages that can reactivate after symptomless intervals of up to 2 (P. vivax) to 4 years (P. ovale). Pregnant women have increased susceptibility to Plasmodium falciparum malaria; in malaria-endemic countries, P. falciparum contributes to 8-14% of low birth weight, which in turn decreases the chance of a baby’s survival. After a single sporozoite (the parasite form inoculated by the female mosquito) of Plasmodium falciparum invades a liver cell, the parasite grows in 6 days and produces 30,000-40,000 daughter cells (merozoites), which are released into the blood when the liver cell ruptures. In the blood, after a single merozoite invades a red blood cell, the parasite grows in 48 hours and produces 8-24 daughter cells, which are released into the blood when the red blood cell ruptures. Under the microscope, Plasmodium knowlesi can resemble either P. falciparum or P. malariae. Thus PCR is often required to confirm infection.

Answer 118

Ricketsia Prowazeki. Reservoir is humans. (sporadically assoc. w/ flying squirrels). Human louse bites person and sheds ricketsia in feces while biting. See fever, chills, headache, and macular rash on trunk.

Answer 119

also called fleaborne or endemic typhus, caused by the organism Rickettsia typhi. Rats and their fleas are the natural reservoirs. The rat flea, Xenopsylla cheopis, and the cat flea, Ctenocephalides felis, are the most common vectors of murine typhus. See a milder form of typhus fever with fever, rash, body aches, and headaches. The infection can be treated with antibiotics. Another organism, R. felis, may also play a role in causing murine typhus. Opossums and domestic cats may also be involved in the transmission.

Answer 120

can be induced with infection by hookworms infecting dogs and cats in the United States: Ancylostoma caninum, Ancylostoma braziliense. Hookworm eggs release infectious larvae that infectious to man and others immediately upon passage in 1 to 3 days. Hookworm larvae cannot penetrate the dermoepidermal junction and usually die in the epidermis.

Answer 121

happens in humans infected with the common ascarids of dogs and cats. If eggs are ingested, larvae can migrate to eye, brain, lung, and liver. Many cases of unilateral blindness are reported to the CDC every year. It is the most common zoonotic infection associated with pet animals in the U.S. Toxocara canis; roundworms. The eggs larvate and become infective 7 to 21 days after passage.

Answer 122

acute poisoning, within a few hours - fish undergoes bacterial degregation after capture and free histamine is formed from histadine. Syndrome of tingling and burning sensation around the mouth, nausea, vomiting, dizziness and rash, seen in a few hours of ingestion. Most cases resolve spontaneously, can use antihistamines. How to avoid seafood disease: what advice would you give to tourists if you were a state public health vet? Possibilities: ensure seafood is cooked at specific temperatures; don’t eat seafood period, eat seafood from certified non-contaminated waters?

Answer 123

Highly invasive, destructive disease caused by larval stage of echinococcus multioccularis. Cysts are in liver, disease often fatal. Distribution limited to areas of Northern Hemisphere like Alaska. The adult tapeworms restricted to wild animals like foxes, although cats and dogs can be sources of human infection. Intermediate hosts are rodents like mice. Maintained in nature in fox-rodent cycles. Transmission: ingest eggs passed in feces of canidae and felidae that have eaten infected rodents. Carried by carnivores. Transmission of Dipylidium and Echinococcus spp. to humans occurs immediately following ingestion of the immediate host (Dipylidium) or eggs (Echinococcus).

Answer 124

tapeworm whose larval stage is destructive. usually in the liver. Definitive host is the dog. They eat viscera of sheep and other ruminants containing hydatid cysts. Cerebral infections occur in man, cattle and horses.

Answer 125

Taenia solium is a tapeworm of humans, with the intermediate form in pigs. Possible to auto-infect through fecal oral route. Infection with larval stage of pork tapeworm is cystericosis, which can be fatal. Grave infections involve the CNS, heart or eye. Man is the definitive host for both the pork and beef tapeworm. Intermediate host for Taenia solium is swine and Taenia saginata for cattle. When humans ingest the intermediate form in inadequately cooked pork, the tapeworm develops in the human intestine. If humans happen to ingest the tapeworm eggs, from human feces, the cystic intermediate form will develop in the human. Unfortunately, this parasitic intermediate stage in humans takes the form of a cyst in the brain. Also known as neurocysticercosis.

Answer 126

Bears and humans final definitive host. Jewish housewives disease. Humans are reservoirs, comes from eating raw or undercooked fish. Fisherman defecate in lakes while ice fishing. Copepods eat eggs, fish eat them and we eat the fish.

Answer 127

Human- enterobius vermicularis Hosts are species specific. Pinworms of one species don’t infect other species. Reservoirs for people are people.

Answer 128

s a commonly transmitted to humans, primarily from dogs and pigs. It is estimated that 30-50% of cases in dogs will be transmitted to humans. This disease is nonseasonal and intensely pruritic.

Answer 129

Infestation of cows or others w/ larvae, which feed on flesh

Answer 130

Mite borne disease caused by Rickettsia tsutsugamushi and characterized by fever, a primary lesion, a macular rash, and lymphadenopathy. R. tsutsugamushi is transmitted in nature by a mite, which feed on forest and rural rodents. Human infection follows a chigger

Answer 131

the most costly zoonotic disease in the U.S. Infection during pregnancy can result in congenital defects, primarily in the CNS. Fresh pork meat is the main source of infection. Systemic coccidian protozoan disease, frequently asymptomatic or presents like Mono. Tissue cysts contain viable organisms that can be reactivated when immunocompromised. Can cause serious complications in AIDS patients leading to death. Primary infection during early pregnancy can result in fetal death or other serious sequellae. Definitive hosts are felidae that acquire infection from eating other infected mammals, like rodents or birds. Intermediate hosts are sheep, goats, rodents, swine, cattle, chickens and birds. Infection may be acquired by eating raw meat or milk. Children in sandboxes where infected cats defecate are at risk.

Answer 132

concerned about transmission of retroviruses from swine? JAVMA 15 April 02, p 1129. Pigs have endogenous retroviruses that are harmless in their hosts but can possibly cause disease in humans. In addition, there is a possibility those porcine endogenous retroviruses (PERVs) segments might combine with human retroviruses segments and form a new virus that may be pathogenic to humans or swine. Most porcine endogenous retroviruses can get into human cells but there are families of pigs that cannot infect human cells. There are genetically engineered pigs that don’t transmit PERVs in the lab.

Answer 133

Diarrhea 10x’s day for weeks, what was etiologic agent? UNKNOWN It is named after Brainerd, Minnesota, the town where the first outbreak occurred in 1983. Patients typically experience 10-20 episodes per day of explosive, watery diarrhea. Although it is thought to be an infectious agent, intensive searches for bacterial, parasitic, and viral pathogens have been unsuccessful. The possibility remains that a chemical toxin causes Brainerd diarrhea, but no such toxin has yet been found.

Answer 134

ossible association to human schizophrenia. Zoonotic potential; transmission potential believed to be nasal secretions and saliva. Consider it on any differential diagnosis for equine neuro dz.

Answer 135

Out of the answers given, VS was most probable, they gave cowpox as a possible answer also. Vesicular Stomatitis (VS) virus is enzootic in the southeastern U.S. VS may produce clinical signs in animals that are similar to FMD. VS virus infection occurs in cattle, swine, equines and wild animals. The disease is characterized by a short febrile period and vesicles in the mouth, udder, interdigital areas and coronary band. Also profuse salivation. Case fatality is low. VS is transmitted through contact with feeding animals; transmucosal or contamination by transcutaneous route. Also arthropod transmission is possible (Phlebotomus, Aedes, etc.) CANNOT DISTINGUISH FROM FMD

Answer 136

PM a contagious, widely distributed disease that affects both domestic and wild birds. High mortality, high morbidity, disseminated through excretions from beaks and nares. Febrile, anorexia, mucoid oral discharges and diarrhea seen. In acute cases, death may be only sign. Vaccinate healthy flocks.

Answer 137

``` Foot and mouth disease Swine vesicular disease Peste des petits ruminants Lumpy skin disease Bluetongue African horse sickness Classical swine fever Newcastle disease Vesicular stomatitis Rinderpest Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia Rift Valley fever Sheep pox and goat pox African swine fever Highly pathogenic avian influenza ```

Answer 138

Type I hypersensitivity A local or generalized reaction after an exposure to an antigen to which the person has become sensititized. Most common type is hay fever. The reaction is mediated by the binding of the antigen to specific IgE present on mast cells. Type II hypersensitivity An antigen-antibody reaction directed against cells, activates complement, which forms a membrane attack complex that kills the cell. Type III hypersensitivity antigen-antibody complexes deposited in tissue, where they activate complement. Systemic lupus erythematosis classic example Type IV hypersensitivity (delayed-type hypersensitivity) does not involve antibody. Therefore, it is often called cell-mediated hypersensitivity. It is delayed because it takes macrophages and T-cells a few hours or days to get there. Classic example is TB test.

Answer 139

Humoral immune response: mediated by immunocompetent B-lymphocytes; B-cells; antibody. Cell-mediated immunity: T-lymphocytes (T-cells)

Answer 140

Tests for Antibody- False-negative results can occur in acute infection when sampled before seroconversion. A greater than fourfold increase in titer of paired samples or a combination of a titer and antigen id is needed to confirm a diagnosis. **Must pull samples in the same lab at the same time!! Direct Complement Fixation (CF) Direct CF is more sensitive than agglutination methods.

Answer 141

detects presence of the organism. False-positive results from cross-reacting antigens can occur. False-negative results can occur if insufficient antigen is present or if shedding is intermittent. As with all nonculture tests, the results must be evaluated in conjunction with clinical findings. Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA) test for antigen If a bird has a positive ELISA result but is clinically healthy, verify that the bird is shedding antigen through isolation of the organism. When a clinically ill bird has a negative ELISA result, a diagnosis of AC cannot be excluded without further testing (e.g., culture, serologic testing, or polymerase chain reaction).

Answer 142

Immunofluorescent Antibody Tests (IFA) Monoclonal or polyclonal antibodies, fluorescein-staining techniques, and fluorescent microscopy are used to identify the organism in impression smears or other specimens. These tests have similar advantages and disadvantages as ELISA. Polymerase Chain Reaction PCR amplification is sensitive and specific for detection of target DNA sequences.

Answer 143

No beef from the U.K has been imported since 1985; no ruminant animals or at-risk ruminant products from countries with BSE since 1989. More than 60 veterinary diagnostic laboratories throughout the U.S. participate in a BSE surveillance program with the National Veterinary Services Laboratory in Ames, IA. In 1997, a FDA regulation banned the use of at-risk, mammalian-derived animal protein byproducts in animal feed, to ensure that, if the rogue-protein prion causing BSE ever entered the U.S., it would be prevented from spreading through cattle feed.

Answer 144

Assure, absolutely, that cattle are not fed meat and bone meal. Do not allow use of air-injection cattle stunning devices. Assure complete removal of the spinal cord from beef carcasses. If Advanced Meat Recovery (AMR) tissue is generated/purchased, do not use tissue recovered from the vertebral column. If AMR tissue or lean beef trimmings is to be purchased, secure affidavits from suppliers regarding raw materials to be used as sources of tissue and randomly test tissues for presence of Glial Fibrillary Acidic Protein for validation. Have an Individual Animal Identification (IAID) traceback system in place

Answer 145

Preparedness—(a) Characterization of FADs worldwide, (b) Foreign intelligence and activities, (c) Education and training, and (d) Emergency management systems. Prevention—(a) Strict regulations on importations of animals and animal products, (b) Control of foreign-origin garbage, (c) Control of domestic feeding of garbage, (d) Restrictions on feeding animal byproducts, (e) Maintaining a strong animal health infrastructure, (f) Active surveillance and monitoring, and (g) Prompt diagnosis. Discovery—(a) Producer (via awareness and previous education) "observes it," (b) Private vet "suspects it," (c) State or federal vet” investigates it, and "reports it” and (e) National Emergency Management Response is activated "stops it." Response—(a) Quarantine; stop movement of animals, (b) Disinfect vehicles and personnel, (c) Slaughter all affected animals, cohorts and progeny, (d) Dispose of affected carcasses, (e) If appropriate, vaccination, and (f) Surveillance and tracking.

Answer 146

Specific examples of TSE's include: scrapie, which affects sheep and goats; bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE), which affects cattle; transmissible mink encephalopathy; feline spongiform encephalopathy; chronic wasting disease (CWD) of mule deer, white-tailed deer, black-tailed deer, and elk; and in humans, Kuru, Fatal familial insomnia, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease: almost all cases of CJD are spontaneous, inherited or iatrogenic. A small number of variant CJD (vCJD) cases have been linked to BSE exposure. No cases of vCJD have been reported in the US. Diagnosis: postmortem examination of brain tissue. A characteristic feature of all TSE's is the lack of a measurable host immune response to the agent. No conventional serologic test can be used to identify infected animals. USDA FSIS as of March 2003, inspectors will sample beef products from Advanced Meat Recovery (AMR: removes muscle tissue from beef carcasses without breaking bones and then it’s labeled as meat) systems on a routine basis to ensure spinal cord tissue is not present. If it is, the product can be re-labeled or recall distributed product from commerce.

Answer 147

crapie was first diagnosed in the US in 1947. The latest program went into effect in 1992. It involves a Flock Certification Program and interstate movement regulations that place restrictions on the movement of sheep and goats from infected and source scrapie flocks. The intent of the certification program is to monitor flocks over a period of 5 years or more and identify flocks that have not displayed evidence of scrapie. Flocks are inspected yearly for compliance with the certification program standards. The older the flock's status date, the lower the risk of that flock having scrapie. APHIS has proposed a rule to strengthen the regulatory program by (1) requiring the identification of mature sheep and goats in interstate commerce, (2) restricting the interstate movement of sheep and goats from the States that do not have effective scrapie control programs, and (3) providing indemnity for scrapie-positive and high-risk animals.

Answer 148

here is no official USDA program. Continue to monitor for reoccurrence of TME disease. The last known case of TME occurred in the US in 1985.

Answer 149

To date, there is no evidence that CWD is transmissible to humans, but a level of concern remains. May 2003 FDA, HHS. FDA is announcing the availability of “Use of Material From Deer and Elk in Animal Feed.'' It describes FDA's current thinking regarding the use in animal feed of material from deer and elk that are positive for CWD or are at high risk for CWD. CWD has impacted free-ranging and farmed cervids in the USA and Canada. Captive elk have been responsible for some of that spread. Regulatory programs vary for state to state. Chronic wasting disease was first diagnosed in a Colorado captive elk research facility in the 60’s. Livestock housed with infected deer or elk, or those having ingested brain tissue of infected animals, have not developed the disease. Currently transmission is believed to be lateral (animal to animal) and to take place through contact with or exchange of bodily fluids such as saliva, urine, feces, or placental tissue. Evidence also exists suggesting that vertical (mother to offspring) and environmental transmission is possible. Feed contamination is not considered to be a likely means of transmission; however, supplemental feeding may concentrate populations of cervids and facilitate animal-to-animal spread. Incubation period is 18 to 24 months. It is uniformly fatal. A protein associated with the disease is found in tonsils. Researchers at Washington State University have discovered a gene that provides 99 percent immunity against the sheep form of CWD. Researchers are now looking for similar inherited immunity in deer and elk. The bovine form of CWD, BSE, has been shown to cross species. No link has yet been established between eating deer and elk meat and human infection, however.

Answer 150

Mycobacterium ulcerans is a bacterium, which causes an ulcerative skin disease, known as Buruli ulcer. The mode of transmission of the infection to humans is unknown, although there is some evidence that it may be transmitted through the bites of infected aquatic insects. Buruli ulcer often starts as painless nodules, usually on the arms or legs. These then develop into large ulcers, with a whitish-yellowish base. Although most ulcers eventually heal, poorly managed patients may develop severe scars and local deformities, including disabling contractures. The disease occurs most frequently in children living in rural tropical environments, near wetlands. It can be treated with antibiotics and surgery.

Answer 151

Bovine TB has affected animal and human health since antiquity. Once the most prevalent infectious disease of cattle and swine in the United States, bovine TB caused more losses among U.S. farm animals in the early part of this century than all other infectious diseases combined. Begun in 1917, the Cooperative State-Federal Tuberculosis Eradication Program, which is administered by USDA’s APHIS, State animal health agencies, and U.S. livestock producers, has nearly eradicated bovine TB from the Nation's livestock population. Mycobacterium tuberculosis affects all warm-blooded animals. TB is a production problem and Trade issue. Pathology depends on route of infection Inhale 🡪 pulmonary Ingest🡪 GI, bones Wound 🡪 local/systemic Zoonosis- M. tuberculosis and M. bovis very similar. (M. bovis not drug resistant). Primarily seen in immigrants- source soft cheese and raw milk. Can establish in free ranging populations i.e. Michigan deer.

Answer 152

For a State to be accredited free of bovine TB, there must have been no confirmed cases of the disease for at least 5 years, and the State must have a set of stringent laws and regulations governing livestock dealers. The State must also maintain surveillance of cattle in marketing channels and require that records be kept that would allow animal health officials to trace infected animals back to their source. Herd Accreditation: Details can be found in "Bovine Tuberculosis Eradication, Uniform Methods and Rules. For a herd to qualify as accredited, a negative finding on two annual TB tests must be attained for all cattle over 24 months of age and cattle of any age that are not natural additions to the herd. Deer and elk herds must test negative for 3 consecutive years. To qualify and continue as an accredited herd, livestock must be tested annually within 10 to 14 months of the anniversary of the original test.

Answer 153

Surveillance and State Status for Tuberculosis The USDA has established five status levels, or stages, for states and zones as they make progress eradicating bovine tuberculosis. These five stages are generally based upon the herd prevalence of bovine tuberculosis. The five stages are: Non-accredited, Accredited Preparatory, Modified Accredited, Modified Accredited Advanced, and Accredited-free. State status for cattle and bison and for captive cervids are established independently of each other. Currently, for cattle and bison, we have 49 States and Territories which are Accredited-Free. Three States currently have either total or partial Modified Accredited or Modified Accredited Advanced Status. For captive cervids, all States and Territories currently hold Modified Accredited Status. States will be able to apply for a change in captive cervid status once the federal regulations have been revised to reflect the status level critieria in the pending UMR for captive cervids.

Answer 154

Accredited Free: free movement. Prevalence: 0%, or 1 infected in previous 12 mos AND meets UMR minimum. If 2 in accredited free state/zone within a 48 month consecutive period, down a level. Qualifications: If 1 infected herd, depopulate and complete epi investigation of outbreak completed within 6 mos of infected herd or lose status.

Answer 155

Modified Accredited Advanced: Movement: 1 negative test required for intact animals; altered may leave state/zone. Herd prevalence: < 0.01% or 1-3 infected herds if < 30,000 herds. Qualifications to advance: Follow UMR, no infex herd for previous 5 yrs. If all affected herds depopulated, qualify for Free status in 3 years.

Answer 156

Modified Accredited: Movement: Herd of origin and individual (the mover) TB test required before interstate/zone travel. Cervidae from Qualified & Monitored (Q&M) herds need only 1 neg test. Intact individual cattle, cervids from recently accredited (12 mos) can move. Altered animals need 1 neg TB test prior to moving. Herd prevalence: 0.1% or max 5-10 infected herds if < 10,000 herds. Qualifications to advance: UMR followed and meet prevalence standards for above level for 2 consec yrs.

Answer 157

Accreditation Preparatory: Movement: Herd of origin and 2 individual TB tests required prior to mvmt (means some planning b/c of test lag time - at least 13 days to CFT day 1, CCT day 10 if neg, and read at 72 hr). Cervids from Q&M herds like above need only 1 neg test. Individuals from Accredited herds need only 1 test (talking about recent additions to the herd of origin). Herd prevalence: 0.5% herd prevalence. Qualifications to advance: Verify herd prevalence of above (0.1%), or < 10 infected herds for 1 yr.

Answer 158

Non-Accredited: Movement for all animals (altered or not) is prohibited. Herd prevalence: > above level or doesn't meet minimum UMR standards. Qualifications to advance: Need authority to enforce UMR, maintain herd census, establish a surveillance system, and have determined above prevalence level.

Answer 159

t all begins with the CFT test which is a screening step in the TB-testing process arranged through state TB regulatory authority (state vet or state ag / vet). The Purified Protein Derivative (PPD) tuberculin is injected intradermally (between the layers of the skin) of the caudal tail fold, under the animal's tail. Some veterinarians will make a mark on the animal's hide to indicate which side of the caudal tail fold was injected. The animal is also given a unique, permanent identification number, usually an ear tag (if a permanent ID number is not already present). The veterinarian or an assistant records the tag number, sex and approximate age of the animal. However, if the animal is individually registered, with a registration number tattoo that corresponds with the registration papers, that tattoo may be used as official identification. The animal should remain easily accessible until the injection site is examined 72 hours later, plus or minus six hours. When each animal in the herd has been injected, the injection portion of the test is complete. The same veterinarian who injected the caudal fold tuberculin must examine the injection site, and the examination must take place 72 hours, plus or minus six hours after the injection. Timing of the injection site examination is very important for an accurate reading. The veterinarian observes each animal. The veterinarian records the tag number and test results and will feel and observe the injection site. In the majority of cases, no response is observed and this is the end of testing for that animal. Even if there is a response to the CFT test, try not to be alarmed. Five to seven percent of the cattle, goat and bison population will respond to the CFT test. This may happen because the animal may have been exposed to another disease that causes a response (e.g., Mycobacterium avium [Bird TB], or paratuberculosis [Johne's Disease]). The animal's condition cannot be accurately determined by observation alone. The herd is quarantined if even one animal is suspect. This means no animals can come into the herd and no animals can move out of the herd, without approval.

Answer 160

done only on animals that respond to the CFT, if your private veterinarian conducted the CFT test be sure your veterinarian contacts State Dept Agric immediately. The CCT test must be done within 10 days of the injection date of the CFT (one week after the reading of the CFT), and must be administered by a state or federal veterinarian. If not done within 10 days, the herd remains quarantined and test is re-administered after 60 days. The state ag will contact herd owner to schedule CCT test appointment for animals that responded to the CFT test as soon as your private veterinarian notifies the department. A section of the neck is shaved in 2 places. CCT test given between the skin layers (intradermally) on the animal's neck (cervical region). Skin thickness is measured using special caliper, then vet injects avian and bovine tuberculin into shaved sites. The animal should remain easily accessible until the injection sites are examined three days later. The same veterinarian who administered the CCT test must examine the injection sites, and the examination must take place approximately 72 hours (three days) plus or minus six hours, after the injection. The veterinarian looks for differences in the two sites, and measures the skin thickness with a special caliper. Don’t be alarmed by the swelling - often the reaction is to the avian TB. Tag number and test results noted. Based on observation, touch, measurement and comparison of the two injection sites, test results for each animal are plotted on the official USDA CCT scattergram. Based on where the results fit on the graph, the animals will be classified as negative, suspect or reactor. Each classification has significant meaning: Negative: Animals CCT neg are considered TB neg. If entire herd tests neg, the quarantine is released. Suspect: Response to the CCT test plot midway on the graph is classified as a suspect. The herd owner must decide whether to have the suspect animal removed from the herd for euthanasia and testing, or re-test on farm after 60 days. (Necessary for accurate results, b/c initial TB test may cause a false response if the animal is tested in less than 60 days.) If the animal is removed for necropsy and further laboratory tests, the herd owner will receive payment for the animal based on the value of the animal as written in PA 466 of 1988, the Animal Industry Act. Shipping costs will also be paid by state ag. The herd will remain under quarantine until at least initial laboratory test results are available. If herd owner opts for a 60-day retest, the herd will remain under quarantine until the second CCT test results are available. Any animal that responds as a suspect to two CCT tests is reclassified as a reactor, and arrangements for removal from the farm are made, with indemnification and shipping paid by state ag. Classification as a suspect does not mean the animal has bovine TB. Bovine TB can only be verified by several laboratory tests after euthanasia. Reactor: Response to the CCT test falls into the reactor range on the official USDA CCT scattergram. An animal can also be classified as a reactor if it plots as a suspect on the graph on two separate CCT tests. R classification does not mean the animal has bovine TB - can only be verified by laboratory tests after kill. Arrangements will be made for reactor animals to be removed from the farm for necropsy and further laboratory tests, and the herd remains quarantined until the laboratory test results are available. If laboratory results upon euthanasia and necropsy show definitive signs of bovine TB, the animal is classified (or in some cases, reclassified) as a reactor. Animals responding to the CFT test that were found negative or suspect to the CCT test may be reclassified as reactors when included in a herd test that results in the confirmation of bovine tuberculosis in the herd, or if the designated tuberculosis epidemiologist determines that the reactor classification is justified. Milk from reactor animals cannot be put into the milk bulk tank or consumed by humans or animals. Livestock producers are advised to keep reactor animals confined and separated from the rest of the herd until they can be removed from the farm, purchased for indemnity and brought to test facility.

Answer 161

Bovine TB suspects by CCT test are re-tested by CCT test at least 60 days after first CCT inj. If suspect on 2nd CCT, automatic reactor and thus subject to UMR regs governing Reactor status.

Answer 162

Phase IV - Necropsy and Laboratory Testing: Animals removed from the farm for further testing first go to designated lab / site for necropsy and histopath. Scientists look for signs of internal lesions, swollen lymph nodes and other signs of disease. Tissue samples collected forwarded to Lab for culturing, further dx testing.

Answer 163

The herd can chose who will conduct the CFT test - may choose a private vet (if accredited and state certified, and arrangements with state vet) instead of a state or fed vet. Most states pay for the first CFT test for the entire herd. A herd owner also has two options if an animal is classified as a CCT suspect during testing: send to slaughter (ID’d, escorted or sealed transport) or quarantine all ins/outs until next test results are either all negative, or if any positive / suspect - until any / all TB cleared by epi investigation. When farm owner is notified that the CCT reactor did indeed have bovine TB, the owner may choose one of two options; either complete herd depopulation (recommended), or the test and removal option all while under quarantine. Test and Remove: Under this program for a bovine TB infected herd, the farm remains under quarantine for an extended period of time: until all testing reveals a bovine TB-negative herd. Each time an animal responds to a CCT test on farm, it is immediately removed and testing will commence again from the beginning of the protocol. When a positive is found, the herd will remain under quarantine and be re-tested no sooner than 60 days after removal of the positive animal. No animals are allowed to leave or enter the farm without prior written permission by state vet. When no positive animals are found on all subsequent testing, the quarantine may be removed from the farm. This process of approximately 6 whole herd tests may take upwards of 24 months providing no additional infected animals are found. Once the quarantine is lifted, yearly tests may be required on the herd for 5 years. Dairy herds in the test and remove plan may continue to sell milk while under quarantine, IF all bovine TB reactors are removed from the farm. Depopulation: Encouraged, since the procedure for testing and removal of the infected animals can be costly and have long-term implications for the farm operation. Depopulation defined by the USDA Bovine TB Erad is the destruction of all livestock exposed to bovine TB in the herd before any restocking of premises with cattle, captive cervids, bison or goats. When the owner chooses to depopulate, indemnity program for state (agriculture) purchases all livestock from the producer. They are removed from the premises and sent to authorized lab for test/slaughter. The farm is disinfected and may be repopulated as soon as a USDA Designated Tuberculosis Epidemiologist (DTE) determines that the premises are clean and free of the risk of re-infection, or after 1 year from removal of the animals. After gross necropsy, a series of tests are conducted. These tests are: Histopathology with acid-fast staining Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) test; Bacterial culturing DNA strain typing. TESTING: all use 0.1 ml, ID Inject on day 0, read at 72 hours Test: PPD (Purified Protein Derivative) M. bovis 1mg/ml less sensitive/more specific Caudal skin fold and visible/palpable change is reactor Injector must be reader Read pigs at 48 hours Comparative Cervical N/S/R only within 10 days or after 60 day of caudal fold Single Cervidae (deer) 4x4 in neck 90-day interval between tests Neg/Suspect/Reactor Double Strength Cervical use 2x strength 60-day interval only on infected herds, or exposed herds. ONLY Neg/Reactor, no Suspects Increase sensitivity, decrease specificity REACTORS: tag, BRAND Left high tailhead with a T, send to slaughter can be passed for cooking (not for humans) or condemned SUSPECT; If suspect by comparative test 3 times 🡪 call reactor REACTOR; can be determined by cervical or caudal test Slaughter surveillance most cases visualized in cattle especially culls Suspect can be sent to slaughter rather than recheck. If S no lesions; then normal food. If S lesion; depends on extent Code Federal Regulations governs interstate and international movement Intrastate State has quarantine authority NOT APHIS TB currently under emergency declaration for eradication Accredited Free – No Dz Modify Accredited – 0.01% Non Accredited – 0.5 %

Answer 164

The disease in cattle, water buffalo, and bison is caused almost exclusively by B abortus ; however, B suis or B melitensis is occasionally implicated in some cattle herds. B suis does not appear to be contagious from cow to cow. Infection spreads rapidly and causes many abortions in unvaccinated cattle. In a herd in which disease is endemic, an infected cow typically aborts only once after exposure; subsequent gestations and lactations appear normal. After exposure, cattle become bacteremic for a short period and develop agglutinins and other antibodies; some resist infection and a small percentage of infected cows recover. A positive serum agglutination test usually precedes an abortion or a normal parturition but may be delayed in ~15% of cows. The incubation period may be variable and is inversely related to stage of gestation at time of exposure. Organisms are shed in milk and uterine discharges, and the cow may become temporarily infertile. Bacteria may be found in the uterus during pregnancy, uterine involution, and infrequently, for a prolonged time in the nongravid uterus. Shedding from the vagina largely disappears with the decrease of fluids following parturition. Some infected cows that previously aborted shed brucellae from the uterus at subsequent normal parturitions. Organisms are shed in milk for a variable length of time—in most cattle for life. Natural transmission occurs by ingestion of organisms, which are present in large numbers in aborted fetuses, fetal membranes, and uterine discharges. Cattle may ingest contaminated feed and water, or lick contaminated genitals of other animals. Venereal transmission by infected bulls to susceptible cows appears to be rare. Transmission may occur by artificial insemination when Brucella -contaminated semen is deposited in the uterus but, reportedly, not when deposited in the midcervix. Brucellae may enter the body through mucous membranes, conjunctivae, wounds, or intact skin. Brucellae have been recovered from fetuses and from manure that has remained in a cool environment for >2 mo. Exposure to direct sunlight kills the organisms within a few hours.

Answer 165

Abortion is the most obvious manifestation. Infections may also cause stillborn or weak calves, retained placentas, and reduced milk yield. Usually, general health is not impaired in uncomplicated abortions. Seminal vesicles, ampullae, testicles, and epididymides may be infected in bulls; therefore, organisms are present in the semen. Agglutinins may be demonstrated in seminal plasma from infected bulls. Testicular abscesses may occur. Longstanding infections may result in arthritic joints in some cattle.

Answer 166

Diagnosis is based on bacteriology or serology. B abortus can be recovered from the placenta but more conveniently in pure culture from the stomach and lungs of an aborted fetus. Most cows cease shedding organisms from the genital tract when uterine involution is complete. Foci of infection remain in some parts of the reticuloendothelial system, especially supramammary lymph nodes, and in the udder. B abortus can frequently be isolated from secretions of nonlactating udders. Serum agglutination tests have been the standard diagnostic method. Agglutination tests may also detect antibodies in milk, whey, semen, and plasma. An ELISA has been developed to detect antibodies in milk and serum. When the standard plate or tube serum agglutination test is used, complete agglutination at dilutions of 1:100 or more in serum samples of nonvaccinated animals, and of 1:200 of animals vaccinated between 4 and 12 mo of age, are considered positive, and the animals are classified as reactors. Other tests that may be used are complement fixation, rivanol precipitation, and acidified antigen procedures. Screening Tests: Brucella milk ring test (BRT): In official control and eradication programs on an area basis, the BRT has been effective in locating infected dairy herds, but there is a high percentage of false positive tests. The brucellosis status of dairy herds in any area can be monitored by implementing the BRT at 3- to 4-mo intervals. Milk samples from individual herds are collected at the farm or milk processing plant. Cows in herds with a positive BRT are individually blood tested, and reactors are slaughtered. Market cattle testing: Nondairy and dairy herds in an area may also be screened for brucellosis by testing serum samples collected from cattle destined for slaughter or replacements through intermediate and terminal markets, or at abattoirs. Reactors are traced to the herd of origin, and the herd is tested. The cost of identifying reactors by this method is minimal compared with that of testing all cattle in all herds. Screening tests, including the brucellosis card (or rose bengal) test and plate test, may be used in markets and laboratories to identify presumptively infected animals, thus reducing the number of more expensive and laborious diagnostic tests. Brucellosis-free areas can be achieved and maintained, effectively and economically, by using the BRT on dairy herds and through market cattle testing. Supplemental tests using sensitive screening methods may be used in cattle in which the brucellosis status is unclear. Use of a battery of these tests improves the probability of detecting infected cattle that have remained in some herds as possible reservoirs of infection. Supplemental tests are also used to clarify the results of plate or card tests, especially in serum samples from vaccinated cattle. These tests, which include complement fixation and rivanol precipitation, are designed to detect primarily the antibodies specifically associated with Brucella infection. Another supplemental diagnostic procedure is testing milk samples from individual udder quarters by serial dilution BRT, which can be used to detect chronic infection in udders of cows that may have equivocal serum test reactions. Interpreting Brucellosis STubeTest or SPlateTest’s: For official vaccinates, anything up to 1:50 is still NEGATIVE (even if 1:50 is neg … as long as the 100 and 200 are neg - she’s neg. For all others: I or + at 1:50 = Suspect, + at 1:100 is reactor. RB51 more specific

Answer 167

Efforts are directed at detection and prevention because no practical treatment is available. Eventual eradication depends on testing and eliminating reactors. The disease has been eradicated from many individual herds and areas by this method. Herds must be tested at regular intervals until 2 or 3 successive tests are negative. Noninfected herds must be protected. The greatest danger is from replacement animals. Additions should be vaccinated calves or nonpregnant heifers. If pregnant or fresh cows are added, they should originate from brucellosis-free areas or herds and be seronegative. Replacements should be isolated for ~30 days and retested before being added to the herd. Vaccination of calves with B abortus Strain 19 or RB51 increases resistance to infection. Resistance may not be complete, and some vaccinated calves may become infected, depending on severity of exposure. A small percentage of vaccinated calves develop antibodies to Strain 19 that may persist for years, which may confuse diagnostic test results. To minimize this problem, calves in the USA are vaccinated with a vaccine that contains 3-10 billion viable B abortus Strain 19 organisms per 2 mL dose. Strain RB51 has largely replaced Strain 19. It is a rough attenuated strain and does not cause production of antibodies, which are detected by most serologic tests. Whole-herd adult cattle vaccination using Strain 19 or RB51 has been practiced in certain high-incidence areas and selected herds in the USA with much success. Vaccination as the sole means of disease control has been effective. Reduction in the number of reactors in a herd is directly related to the percentage of vaccinated animals. However, when proceeding from a control to an eradication program, a test and slaughter program is necessary. The low prevalence of brucellosis in cattle in the USA has resulted in reduced use of vaccines and current emphasis on depopulation of infected herds. Brucellosis is endemic in some nondomesticated bison and elk herds in the USA. Transmission of B abortus to domestic cattle herds is rare. Nevertheless, many controversies have developed concerning possible control methods. Vaccination of some elk populations has been practiced.

Answer 168

Horses would surely be more likely to become infected in a rural environment when in contact with infected animals, mostly cows. I know of no evidence that horse to horse transmission occurs. Nearly all infections in the US have been B. abortus. Equine infections are now non-existent in the US. Commonly called Fistulous Withers or Poll Evil.

Answer 169

is a part of the normal flora of many dogs and cats. It causes no problem in the animal but when inoculated into a human, usually through a bite wound, may cause septicemia with disseminated intravascular coagulation and peripheral gangrene. Individuals with some degree of immunocompromised are especially susceptible but the disease is not confined to this group.

Answer 170

1. Minimize or eliminate exposure of pregnant mares to the eastern tent caterpillar (ETC). 2. Keep pregnant horses out of proximity to wild cherry trees. The wild or black cherry tree is the preferred host for ETC. ETC can travel long distances from the cherry trees. ETC will also infest other trees, including ornamental pear, crabapples, and sometimes oak. 3. Reduce exposure of pregnant mares to endophyte infected tall fescue and perennial ryegrass. Endophyte-infected tall fescue can also cause reproductive problems in mares but has not specifically caused MRLS. Infected tall fescue may accentuate or aggravate MRLS symptoms by interacting with the unknown toxic principle of the eastern tent caterpillar. Farms should minimize exposure of mares to endophyte-infected tall fescue fields, especially late in gestation. In addition, perennial ryegrass can have an endophyte infection that may also result in repro upsets in the pregnant mare Discussion of other factors potentially involved with MRLS but subsequently eliminated, minimized or of secondary importance. Weather. Specifically an early rise in temperatures in the spring followed by late frosts was very similar in the MRLS years of 1981 and 2001. Status: Still under study. 2. Ergot alkaloids (from tall fescue or perennial ryegrass). Tall fescue and ergot alkaloids were investigated for an MRLS correlation in 2001 and 2002 because these alkaloids are known to cause repro problems in mares. Status: Minimized but still under study. Ergot alkaloids are toxins produced in tall fescue in late spring due to the presence of an internal fungus called the endophyte. Perennial ryegrass can also be endophyte-infected and can produce ergot alkaloids, as well. Ergot alkaloids can cause reproductive problems in pregnant mares, primarily prolonged gestation, foaling difficulty and lack of milk. 4. Fungal mycotoxins were suspected because certain ones were known to be able to produce abortions in livestock and because they could have been produced as a result of the unusual weather in 2001 (premature high temperatures followed by late frosts). Status: Eliminated after intensive study in 2002. Mycotoxins are produced by fungi that are commonly present in soil and on plants as a result of stress. http://www.uky.edu/Agriculture/VetScience/mrls/index.htm

Answer 171

A product is called PREEMPT. Question was in newly hatched chicks: colonizing their cecum with live organisms against Salmonella. It works better than vaccination? Yes. Competitive exclusion products are products containing live microorganisms isolated from the gastro-intestinal tract of chickens and other animals. In addition, these products are labeled and/or promoted with therapeutic and/or structure/function claims which include statements about reduction in the level of salmonella and other enteric pathogens. Competitive exclusion products are classified as drugs under the FDA Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.