Tort SBAQ's Flashcards

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1
Q

Select which one or more of the following is or are TRUE.

A. The reasonable man test involves assessing risk on the one hand balanced against the practicality of taking the precaution.

B. The reasonable man should never take into account the cost of taking precautions.

C. Children can be expected to be less careful than adults.

D. Learner drivers are expected to exercise the same standard of care as experienced drivers.

E. Doctors can escape liability if they can show there is an established body of medical opinion that would approve of that practice.

A

A, C, D, and E are all true. B is false.

A is true and B is false as shown in Latimer v A.E.C Ltd [1953].
C is true as seen in Mullin v Richards [1998].
D is true as shown in Nettleship v Weston [1971].
E is true as shown in Bolam v Friern Hospital Management Committee [1957].

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2
Q

Is the following statement TRUE or FALSE? A defendant who complies with the accepted practice in their trade or profession will always escape liability in negligence.

A

The statement is FALSE.

Compliance with an accepted trade practice is strong evidence that a defendant has not been negligent, but it is not conclusive. The practice itself may be a negligent one.

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3
Q

The claimant owns property which is next to a cinema. The defendants have commenced work on the cinema, but leave the building locked and unattended at night. Vandals broke in and started a large fire which extensive damage to the claimant’s property.

Why do the defendants not owe the claimant a duty of care in negligence?

A. Because the general rule is that there is no duty of care owed for omissions.

B. Because the duty on an occupier would be too wide if it was held responsible for damage caused to neighbouring property by third parties entering the occupier’s property.

C. Because the claimant’s damage was caused by the defendants’ failure to act and the defendants had no control over the vandals.

D. Because the defendants are not at fault as they did not start the fire.

E. Because there is never a duty of care owed by a defendant to a claimant for the actions of third parties.

A

Option C is correct

-​ defendants can be liable for their omissions if they have a positive duty to exercise control over third parties but this principle does not apply to the facts of the claimant’s case. The defendants were not in a special (proximate) relationship with the vandals and would not be expected to exercise control over them.

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4
Q

A solicitor client’s clients have been diagnosed with a type of mouth cancer, after receiving tooth implants.

The manufacturer has admitted that a duty of care was owed to the solicitor’s clients but denies that it is in breach of their duty of care.

what must the solicitor’s clients must prove on the facts in order to establish that the manufacturer has breached its duty of care?

A. That it would be fair, just and reasonable for the manufacturer to be held liable.

B. That the manufacturer knew of the risk of mouth cancer from the dental implants when they were produced.

C. That there is a foreseeable risk of mouth cancer from using the dental inserts.

D. That the manufacturer fell below the standard of the reasonable dental implant manufacturer.

E. That there was a foreseeable risk of mouth cancer from using the dental implants when the implants were produced.

A

Option E is correct

because the test to be applied is whether the risk of injury is foreseeable in the light of knowledge available to the defendant at the time of the event ie when the dental implants were produced (Roe v Ministry of Health [1954] 2 QB 66).

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5
Q

Which ONE OR MORE of the following is or are TRUE?

A. A claimant will always have their damages reduced if the defendant can show the claimant has failed to take care for their own safety.
B. The court, at a defendant’s request, will always consider whether the claimant’s own lack of care has contributed to their injuries.
C. Contributory negligence is governed by statute.
D. Contributory negligence requires a causal link between the claimant’s carelessness and the actual cause of the accident.

A

B and C are true.

A is false. Damages will not always be reduced. For example, there must be a causal link with the harm suffered.
B is true. The court will always consider this.
C is true. The relevant statute is the Law Reform (Contributory Negligence) Act 1945.
D is false. There must be a link between the carelessness of the claimant and the harm the claimant has suffered.

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6
Q

A claimant suffered a badly broken arm while driving a motorbike. The defendant was driving a car and pulled out of side road into the path of the claimant’s motorbike. The claimant feared that the car would hit their motorbike. In order to avoid this, they swerved quickly and lost control of the motorbike. They broke their arm in the falling from the motorbike. In fact, the defendant car driver managed to swerve around the claimant’s motorbike and avoided a collision.

Which of the following statements best explains how the claimant will be able to show that the fact that they fell off the motorbike did not act as an intervening act that broke the chain of causation?

A. Because the claimant’s act was entirely reasonable in the circumstances that they were in at the time.
B. Because the claimant’s act ought to have been foreseen by the defendant as a likely consequence of their negligence.
C. Because the claimant’s act caused an injury that was reasonably foreseeable.
D. Because the claimant’s act caused an injury of a type that was reasonably foreseeable, even if the precise way it happened was not foreseeable.
E. Because the claimant’s act caused an injury of a type that was reasonably foreseeable, even if the precise extent of the injury was not foreseeable.

A

Option A is correct –​ the test that is applied for when the act of the claimant themselves may be an intervening act and break the chain of causation is whether their act was entirely reasonable in the circumstances that they were in at the time.

Option B is wrong as it is the test that is applied when the negligent act of a third party may break the chain of causation.
Option C is wrong as this is the basic rule for remoteness of damage from The Wagon Mound.
Option D is incorrect as this is the ‘similar in type’ rule for remoteness.
Option E is incorrect as this is the ‘egg-​shell skull’ rule for remoteness.

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7
Q

Hannah owns a pottery business. Due to the negligence of contractors working locally, the supply of electricity to Hannah’s pottery is cut off for 15 hours. Hannah consequently loses the pottery which was being fired in the kilns at the time, together with the profits she would have made on the pottery and is unable to fire any more pottery until the power is restored.

Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

A. Hannah can recover for the damaged pottery, the resulting lost profits and the loss of profits on the other pottery she was unable to fire until the power was restored.

B. Hannah can only recover for the damage to the pottery as the other losses are pure economic losses.

C. Hannah cannot recover for any of her losses as the contractors did not owe her any duty of care.

D. Hannah can recover for the damaged pottery and the resulting lost profits. She cannot, however, recover for the loss of profits on the other pottery she was unable to fire since this is pure economic loss.

A

D is the correct answer.

The damage to the pottery is physical damage and the loss of profit on it is directly consequential on the physical damage – both are, therefore, recoverable. The loss of profits for the 15 hours is not consequential on any physical damage and is, therefore, pure economic loss and not recoverable.
Look at the case of Spartan Steel & Alloys Ltd v Martin.

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8
Q

Assume that a coach carrying a load of passengers is involved in a road accident caused by the negligence of a car driver.

In which ONE of the following claims is it NOT necessary to apply the special rules for pure psychiatric harm?

A. Graham Crosby, the coach driver, suffers a heart attack brought on by the shock of the accident

B. Penny Brown, a passenger on the coach, suffers mild cuts and bruises, and as a result later develops a fear of travelling by coach.

C. Paul Dobson, a passenger on the coach, is not physically injured but later develops a fear of travelling by coach.

D. Jean Smith, the mother of one of the passengers, collapses with shock on hearing of the accident and then suffers from migraines for several weeks afterwards

A

The correct answer is B.

Penny Brown has not suffered from pure psychiatric harm. Her fear of travelling by coach is consequential psychiatric harm, following from her physical injury of cuts and bruises. Therefore, it is not necessary to apply the special rules for pure psychiatric harm to her claim. The usual rules for duty of care will apply. Under the usual rules for duty of care, Penny will be owed a duty of care by the car driver, as this is an established duty situation.

All the claims other than that of Penny Brown do involve pure psychiatric harm because, in each of those cases, the injury suffered was caused without any physical impact on the claimant.

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9
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

In any claim to recover damages for pure psychiatric harm caused, the nature of the psychiatric injury must be:

Caused by a sudden shock, and
Amount to a medically recognised illness

A

The statement is true.

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10
Q

Consider the following facts:

Harold Smith is carefully driving along a road when a car driven by Brian Jones pulls out of a side street at excessive speed and collides with Harold’s car. Harold is killed. The following people all suffer psychiatric harm as a result:

Harold’s wife, who was standing at a nearby bus stop waiting for Harold to pick her up and witnessed the whole accident.
A lady standing next to Harold’s wife at the bus stop, who also witnessed the whole accident.
Harold’s mother, who is told of the accident on the telephone.

Is it TRUE OR FALSE to say that Harold’s wife, the lady at the bus stop, and Harold’s mother are all secondary victims of Brian’s negligence?

A

This statement is true.

They are all classed as secondary victims. However, Brian does not owe a duty of care to all secondary victims. So, the next question you would need to consider would be – when is a secondary victim owed a duty of care?

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11
Q

Which ONE OR MORE of the following is/are NOT pure economic losses?

A. The cost of acquiring a defective product

B. Damage caused to other property by a defective product

C. Financial loss suffered without any physical impact on the claimant or their property

D. The claimant’s loss of earnings following an injury caused by the defendant

A

The correct answers are B and D.

These items are not pure economic losses.Where a defective product causes damage to other property that damage is not pure economic loss.

A loss of earnings following an injury is not pure economic loss. Such loss of earnings is consequential economic loss – following from the physical injury suffered by the claimant.

In contrast, the cost of acquiring a defective product, and financial loss suffered without any physical impact on the claimant or their property, are both correctly described as pure economic loss.

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12
Q

A solicitor has been instructed by a mother and daughter for advice on potential claims that they may have against a cosmetic surgeon. The mother received cosmetic filler treatment to her face in preparation for the daughter’s wedding.

This went wrong and caused substantial swelling and pain to her face. As a result of the treatment the mother was unable to work for three months. The mother is a presenter on an online shopping channel and has lost a significant amount of income.

The daughter felt that she had no choice but to cancel the wedding because her mother would have been unable to attend. The daughter has lost a substantial amount of money as a consequence of this.

Which of the following statements best explains whether the clients would be compensated for their financial losses if the cosmetic surgeons negligence is proven to have caused their loss?

A. Neither the mother nor the daughter would receive compensation for their financial losses because they have suffered pure economic loss.

B. Both the mother and the daughter would receive compensation for their financial losses because there is an established duty of care between doctors and patients.

C. Only the mother would receive compensation for her financial losses because they are owed a duty of care for their pure economic loss. The daughter would not be owed a duty of care for her pure economic loss because there was not a ‘special relationship’ between her and the surgeon.

D. Only the mother would receive compensation for her financial losses because there is an established duty of care between doctors and patients. The daughter’s loss is too remote.

E. Only the mother would receive compensation for her financial losses because there is an established duty of care between doctors and patients. The daughter would not be owed a duty of care for her pure economic loss because there was not a ‘special relationship’ between her and the surgeon.

A

E is the correct answer.

A is wrong because the mother would be compensated for her financial loss as her lost income is consequential on her personal injury ie it is not pure economic loss. It is correct, however, that the daughter has suffered pure economic loss (PEL) and that she would not be compensated for this (see further below).

B is wrong because, while there is an established duty of care between doctors and their patients, this would not assist the daughter as she is not a patient of the surgeon. It is also wrong because the daughter has suffered PEL. The established duty of care is only relevant for personal injury or property damage and not for PEL.

C is incorrect as the mother has not suffered PEL. It is correct, however, that the daughter would not be owed a duty of care for her pure economic loss because there was not a ‘special relationship’ between her and the surgeon. She would not satisfy the test for a ‘special relationship’ from Hedley Byrne v Heller (as expanded upon in Caparo v Dickman).

D is wrong because the daughter would not be owed a duty of care for her PEL. Their claim would therefore fail at the duty of care stage and the question of remoteness is, therefore, irrelevant.

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13
Q

A solicitor is instructed by a client who wishes to bring a claim in negligence for substantial losses arising from an investment they have made in buy-to-let properties. The client had asked a friend, who is an estate agent, to advise on suitable purchases.

The client had no knowledge of the risks involved in buying properties for letting and had made it clear that they would be relying on their friend’s skill and judgment.

The client’s friend recommended buying two houses near to a university with the stated aim that the houses would convert into separate lettings for multiple occupation by students. The client bought the houses on the basis of the friend’s recommendation.

The client later discovered that the houses were unsuitable for multiple occupation and has suffered a substantial loss of income from the houses as a result. The client now wishes to recoup these losses from their friend.

Which of the following statements best explains whether your client is owed a duty of care by their former friend?

A. No, because there can never be a duty of care in respect of negligent advice given in a social situation.

B. No, because your client has suffered pure economic loss.

C. Yes, because the former friend had assumed a responsibility to the client and it was reasonable for the client to rely on the former friend for advice.

D. Yes, because the former friend had assumed a responsibility to the client and the former friend did not exclude their liability by way of a disclaimer.

E. Yes, because it was reasonable for the client to rely on the former friend for advice and the former friend did not exclude their liability by way of a disclaimer.

A

C is correct

it correctly states the two parts of the test for a duty of care to be owed for negligent statements.

A is incorrect because, while it is generally true that there is no duty of care in respect of advice given in a social situation, there are exceptions (as per Chaudhry v Prabhakar [1989] 1 WLR 29).

B is incorrect because, while it is true that there is generally no duty of care for pure economic loss, there are exceptions- in particular for negligent statements (as per Hedley Byrne v Heller & Partners Ltd [1964] AC 465).

D is incorrect as, while an assumption of responsibility is one element of when a ‘special relationship’ may give rise to a duty of care for negligent statements, it must also be reasonable for the claimant to rely on the defendant for advice. Also, the fact that there may or may not have been a disclaimer of liability is not relevant to whether a duty of care was owed.

E is incorrect for similar reasons to D, the difference being that there must also be an assumption of responsibility by the defendant to the claimant.

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14
Q

The duty which an employer owes to employees is said to be non­-delegable.

Which ONE of the following BEST explains the meaning of non­-delegable in this context?

A. The employer is responsible for all harm suffered.

B. The employer has the burden of proving that reasonable care was taken.

C. The employer has a duty to see that reasonable care is taken.

D. The employer is responsible even if reasonable care has been taken.

A

The correct answer is C.

The statement which best describes the non­-delegable nature of the employer’s duty is: the employer has a duty to see that reasonable care is taken.

The employer can delegate a task to another person but cannot delegate the duty of care. So, if the person to whom the task is delegated fails to take reasonable care for the safety of the employer’s employees, the employer will be in breach of duty.

Provided reasonable care has been taken, the employer will not be in breach of duty. The burden of proving lack of reasonable care remains with the claimant employee.

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15
Q

Which one of the following alternatives correctly describes when breach of the employer’s instructions will put an employee outside the course of their employment?

A. When the instructions relate to the manner in which the employee performs their job

B. When the instructions relate to the scope of the employee’s job.

A

The correct answer is B.

Breach of the employer’s instructions will only put the employee outside the course of their employment when the instructions relate to the scope of the employee’s job.

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16
Q

A company asks a local window cleaner to clean the windows of the company’s three-floor office building. The window cleaner is an independent contractor. Whilst the window cleaner is cleaning the windows on the top floor of the building, he negligently drops a metal bucket which is full of water. As the metal bucket falls towards the ground, it hits the hand of a woman who is standing on the pavement beneath. The impact breaks the woman’s thumb. The woman is one of the company’s employees.

Which of the following statements best describes whether the employee can successfully claim damages for her broken thumb from her employer?

A. No, because an employer can only be liable in respect of the negligence of its own employees. An employer cannot be liable in respect of the negligence of independent contractors.

B. No, because it was entirely reasonable for the employer to pay an independent contractor to clean the windows.

C. No, because the harm suffered by the employee was too remote.

D. Yes, because the employer has breached the personal non-delegable duty that it owes to its employee.

E. Yes, because the employer owes an established duty of care to each of its employees.

A

Option D is correct.

Options D and E are both true, but D is the better answer. The employer’s personal non-delegable duty is to ensure that reasonable care is taken. Reasonable care was not taken by the independent contractor and the employer, therefore, has breached the personal non-delegable duty that it owes to its employee. The employer is thus liable in respect of the negligence of the independent contractor (Wilsons & Clyde Coal Co Ltd v English [1937])

Option A refers to vicarious liability. In this scenario the employer is personally liable (primary liability).

Option B is wrong because the fact that it was entirely reasonable for the employer to pay an independent contractor to clean the windows is irrelevant.

Option C is wrong because the harm suffered by the employee was harm of a reasonably foreseeable kind and hence not too remote (The Wagon Mound (No 1) [1961]).

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17
Q

Which ONE OR MORE of the following correctly describe the duty owed by an occupier of premises to their lawful visitors?

A. The same duty common to all visitors.

B. A duty to take reasonable care to see that visitors are reasonably safe.

C. A duty to ensure that visitors do not suffer injury on the premises.

A

The correct answers are A and B.

An occupier owes the same duty common to all visitors.
That is, a duty to take reasonable care to see that visitors are reasonably safe.

(It would not be correct to only say that the duty is to ensure that visitors do not suffer injury, as the duty is not absolute, it is to take reasonable care).

18
Q

Which ONE OR MORE of the following requirements must be satisfied before an occupier owes a duty of care to a trespasser?

A. The occupier must be aware of the danger or have reasonable grounds to believe that it exists.

B. The occupier must know, or have reasonable grounds to believe, that the trespasser is in the area of danger, or may come into the area.

C. The risk is one against which the occupier might reasonably be expected to offer protection.

D. The occupier must have failed to take reasonable care to see that the trespasser does not suffer injury by reason of the danger.

A

The correct answers are A, B and C.

These are all pre­conditions which must be satisfied before the duty of care arises.

Failure by the occupier to take reasonable care relates to breach of the duty once it has arisen.

19
Q

A specialist carpenter is employed by a man to carry out repairs to a wooden floor and wooden staircase in one of the rooms of the man’s house. During the repair work the room in question is closed off by a door on which the man has put a prominent notice reading “Keep Out”.

Which of the following persons is most likely to be able to make a claim for damages against the man under the Occupiers’ Liability Act 1957?

A. The man’s teenage son who enters the room and is injured when he falls through a rotten floorboard.

B. The specialist carpenter who is injured by a splinter when repairing one of the wooden floorboards.

C. A visitor to the man’s house who, after the work to the floor is completed and visually inspected by the man, enters the room with permission and is injured when one of the new floorboards gives way.

D. A visitor to the man’s house who slips on some wood floor treatment oil which the specialist carpenter has spilt in the corridor outside the room.

E. A friend of the man who, after the work to the staircase is completed is injured when sliding down the new wooden bannister.

A

Option D is the best answer.

Although the wood floor treatment oil was spilt by the specialist carpenter this is something the man could easily have checked. So not clearing away the spill or warning the visitor about it in some way is likely to be a breach of his duty as occupier to his visitor.

Options A and E are wrong because a person who exceeds the scope of their permission (either geographical or by purpose) is not a visitor and so not covered by the common duty of care under the OLA 1957. Accordingly neither of the persons in Options A and E would fall under the OLA 1957.

Options B and C are wrong because although the man would owe a duty of care to the persons in Options B and C, the man is unlikely to have breached that duty. For Option B the person injured enters in the course of his calling and should guard against risks incidental to that calling (s2(3)(b) OLA 1957). For Option C the injury appears to be due to the specialist carpenter’s faulty repair work. Provided it was reasonable for the man to have used a contractor carpenter and he checked the carpenter he chose was competent, the man is unlikely to be in breach of duty as the man visually inspected the work but the load bearing adequacy of a floorboard would not be expected to be checked (s2(4)(b) OLA 1957).

20
Q

The manufacturer of a product is liable in NEGLIGENCE if damage is caused by a defect in a product.

Is this statement True of False?

A

The statement is false.

Case law has established the circumstances in which the manufacturer of a product owes a duty of care to the end consumer.

For a successful claim in negligence it is not sufficient to show that damage was caused by a defective product.

The claimant would also need to prove breach of duty – by showing that the manufacturer fell below a reasonable standard of care

21
Q

Is the following statement TRUE OR FALSE?

Under the Consumer Protection Act 1987 a manufacturer will always be liable when a product causes harm.

A

The statement is false.

For a successful claim under the CPA it is not sufficient to show that the product caused harm.

The claimant must show that the product was defective, as defined in the Act.

Also, a manufacturer would not be liable if one of the available defences under the Act could be established.

22
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Loss to business property can only be recovered under the Consumer Protection Act 1987 if it is more than £275 in value.

A

The statement is false.

Loss to business property cannot be recovered under the Act at all!

It is in relation to private property that there is a minimum value of £275.

23
Q

Pamela has her boiler serviced by a firm of heating engineers. The service is carried out negligently and Pamela suffers injury when the boiler subsequently explodes.

Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?

A. Pamela could sue the firm of heating engineers under the Consumer Protection Act 1987.

B. Pamela could only sue the firm of heating engineers in contract.

C. Pamela could only sue the firm of heating engineers in the tort of negligence.

D. Pamela could sue the firm of heating engineers in both contract and the tort of negligence.

A

D is the correct answer.

Pamela has engaged the firm to carry out a service for her and that service has been performed negligently.

Pamela could sue the firm of heating engineers in contract and in the tort of negligence. A repairer can constitute a “manufacturer” and owe a duty of care in negligence.

The repairers are not, however, a potential defendant under the CPA.

24
Q

A claimant decides to purchase a novelty unicorn design hot water bottle from a local shop. She fills it with hot water in accordance with the instructions on the label, from the manufacturer. The claimant is distracted by her phone ringing and quickly closes the bottle. She has not removed any air from the bottle before closing it, which she should have done. She falls asleep and inadvertently rolls onto the bottle, causing it to burst. Unfortunately she sustains serious scalding burns to her body as a result. It becomes apparent that the bottle had a faulty seal and the buildup of air caused the bottle to burst more easily. This problem could only have been identified upon use.

How should a solicitor advise the claimant?

A. The claimant will have a potential claim under the Consumer Protection Act 1987 (‘CPA’) against the shop and the manufacturer of the water bottle. Both the shop and the manufacturer could raise the partial defence of contributory negligence against the claimant.

B. The claimant will have a potential contractual claim against the shop and a possible claim against the manufacturer under the CPA. The manufacturer cannot raise the partial defence of contributory negligence against the claimant under the CPA.

C. The claimant will have a potential claim in negligence against the manufacturer, on the basis that it failed in its duty to act as a reasonable manufacturer. The manufacturer will successfully argue that the problem with the seal should have been identified by the shop.

D. The claimant will have a potential claim under both the CPA and in negligence against the manufacturer. Under both claims the manufacturer could raise the defence of contributory negligence against the claimant.

E. The claimant will not have any potential claims against either the shop or the manufacturer as it was clearly her own actions which caused her injury.

A

Option D is correct.

The claimant will have a potential claim under both the CPA and in negligence against the manufacturer. Under both claims the manufacturer could raise the defence of contributory negligence against the claimant.

Option A is wrong because whilst the manufacturer would be a producer so a claim under the CPA would be possible, the shop is unlikely to be a ‘forgetful supplier’. There is therefore no claim against the shop under the CPA.

Option B is wrong because the manufacturer could potentially raise the partial defence of contributory negligence against the claimant as she did not attempt to remove the air from the water bottle once she filled it and also, she rolled on to it.

Option C is wrong because the problem with the water bottle could only be identified upon use. Therefore, the manufacturer will not be able to argue that the problem with the seal should have been identified by the shop.

Option E wrong as there was clearly a defect with the water bottle which made it unsafe. The claimant will therefore have potential claims.

25
Q

A solicitor is instructed by a manufacturer of exercise bikes. They have been notified of a claim by a customer. The details of the claim are that the customer bought one of the top of the range exercise bikes from a sports shop that has subsequently ceased trading. They took the bike home, opened the packaging that the bike was supplied in by the manufacturer and read the instruction booklet carefully before using it for the first time. The customer is a professional violinist and decided to practise their violin at the same time as trying out the exercise bike. After a couple of minutes the seat post on the bike collapsed. The customer fell off the bike, broke their arm, smashed their glasses worth £150, and caused extensive damage to their very expensive violin. The customer wants compensation for all these losses and also the cost of a replacement bike. The customer has had the bike inspected by an expert who believes that the seat post collapsed due to insufficient welding on the bike. The expert believes that this defect would not have been apparent on a visual inspection of the bike.

All the manufacturer’s products are sold subject to an exclusion of liability clause for all losses, howsoever caused.

Which of the following statements best explains whether the manufacturer may be liable for the customer’s losses in negligence?

A. No, because the manufacturer did not owe a duty of care to the customer. The duty of care was owed by the sports shop.

B. No, because the customer will not be able to prove breach of duty of care by the manufacturer.

C. No, because the manufacturer will be able to rely on its exclusion of liability for all the customer’s losses.

D. Yes, because the customer is likely to succeed in proving liability for all their losses except the cost of the bike.

E. Yes, because the customer is likely to succeed in proving liability for all their losses except the cost of the replacement bike and the damage to the very expensive violin.

A

E is the correct answer.

A is wrong because the duty of care will be owed by the manufacturer. Shops and other suppliers will rarely owe a duty of care in negligence to their customers. The exception to this is where the shop is expected to carry out an intermediate examination of the goods. There is nothing to suggest that the manufacturer expected the sports shop to do this. In fact, the bike appears to have been supplied in packaging by the manufacturer and, according to the expert, an inspection of the bike would not have revealed the defect in any event.

B is wrong because, on the facts given, it cannot be said that the customer will definitely not be able to prove breach of duty. There are facts on which the court can base its inference of breach of duty ie an expert who believes that the seat post collapsed due to insufficient welding on the bike. The court will infer breach of duty unless the manufacturer can rebut the inference of breach of duty by proving that the defect was not due to the defendant’s lack of care but to some later problem, for example the claimant’s own misuse of the product. This is unlikely to be the case on the facts. If the bike had been safe then the claimant’s actions would probably not have been unreasonable - just a little unusual.

C is wrong because the manufacturer cannot exclude liability for the personal injury due to the Consumer Rights Act 2015 and they will only be able to exclude liability for the other losses if the exclusion is deemed fair under the Act.

D is incorrect, because, while the customer may succeed in negligence for all their losses excluding the cost of the bike (as it is pure economic loss), a court may consider that the damage to the violin is too remote. It may not be reasonably foreseeable that a person would be playing a violin on an an exercise bike.

26
Q

A solicitor is instructed by a manufacturer of exercise bikes. They have been notified of a claim by a customer. The details of the claim are that the customer bought an exercise bike from a sports shop. They took the bike home, opened the packaging that the bike was supplied in by the manufacturer and read the instruction booklet carefully before using it for the first time. After a couple of minutes the seat post on the bike collapsed. The customer fell off the bike, broke their arm, and smashed their glasses worth £150. They also caused extensive damage to their very expensive violin that was near the bike at the time. The customer is a professional violinist and wants compensation for all these losses, their income lost as a result of not being able to play the violin and the cost of a replacement bike.
The manufacturer has made thousands of this particular exercise bike without any complaints of this nature. They have investigated their production records and are confident that they are not at fault in any way.

All the manufacturer’s products are sold subject to an exclusion of liability clause for all losses, howsoever caused.

Which of the following statements best explains whether the manufacturer may be liable for the customer’s losses under the Consumer Protection Act 1987?

A. Yes, because the manufacturer will probably be held liable for all the losses except the cost of the replacement bike and the cost of the glasses.

B. Yes, because the manufacturer will probably be held liable, but only for the personal injury and the customer’s lost income.

C. No, because the customer should be bringing a claim against the sports shop in contract.

D. No, because the manufacturer will be able to rely on its exclusion of liability for all the customer’s losses if the clause is fair.

E. No, because the customer will not be able to prove that the manufacturer was at fault.

A

B is the correct answer.

The customer suffered ‘damage’ for the purposes of the CPA 1987 as they have broken their arm, and their consequential lost earnings, due to their inability to play the violin with a broken arm. They will not be able to claim for the cost of repairing or replacing the bike as damage to the defective product itself is excluded by the Act. Neither will they be able to recover the cost of the damaged violin if it is regarded as ‘business’ property. The cost of replacement glasses will not be recoverable as they are worth less than £275. The customer’s recoverable losses were caused by a ‘defect’ as the safety of the bike was not such as persons generally were entitled to expect in all the circumstances. The bike is clearly a ‘product’ for the purposes of the CPA 1987. The customer will be able to claim against the manufacturer of the bike as the producer of the product.

A is incorrect as it fails to consider that the violin will not be recoverable as it is business property.

C is wrong because, while the customer would also have a claim in contract against the shop, this does not mean that the customer is barred from bringing an alternative claim against the manufacturer under the CPA 1987 and/or negligence.

D is wrong because it is not possible to exclude liability under the CPA 1987; the question of whether the exclusion is fair is irrelevant.

E is wrong because liability under the CPA 1987 is strict. It is irrelevant, therefore, that the manufacturer may have evidence that they are not at fault (subject to the defence that the defect did not exist when the defendant supplied the product).

27
Q

Which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A. A lodger cannot sue in private nuisance.

B. A member of the owner’s family cannot sue in private nuisance.

C. A tenant cannot sue in private nuisance.

D. The owner’s husband or wife cannot sue in private nuisance.

E. A landlord can only sue in private nuisance if the interference is likely to cause permanent damage to the property.

A

Well done. The correct answer is C. A tenant can sue in private nuisance as they have the necessary proprietary interest.

28
Q

The test for remoteness of damage in the tort of private nuisance requires the damage to be of a reasonably foreseeable type.

Is this statement TRUE or FALSE?

A

The statement is true.

The damage must be of a foreseeable type. In other words, the same test applies as in negligence.

29
Q

Which one of the following statements on trespass to land is INCORRECT?

A. A tenant can sue in trespass to land.

B. An owner-occupier can sue in trespass to land.

C. A lodger can sue in trespass to land.

D. A squatter can sometimes sue for trespass to land.

A

C is the correct answer.

A lodger cannot sue in trespass to land because they do not have possession of the land. All the other persons do have possession rights including a squatter who has a better right to possession than anyone apart from the legal owner and (if any) earlier squatters.

30
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

In trespass to land the courts apply the same test for remoteness of damage as in negligence and private nuisance.

A

The statement is false.

The test for remoteness in trespass to land is the direct consequences test from the case Re Polemis. Under this test the defendant is liable for all the direct consequences of his tort even if unforeseeable. This is more onerous to the defendant than the Wagon Mound test.

31
Q

A sewage plant operates a site near to a residential area. It has recently obtained planning permission to extend the plant, despite the villagers campaigning against it. The new plant extension has doubled the capacity to carry out processing on the site. This has resulted in dirty fumes drifting over gardens, noise from trucks operating on the site which happens over 24 hours and smells from waste which is awaiting processing invading homes. Chemicals are also leaking from one of the waste holding sites through the soil and into neighbouring gardens, causing the soil to become polluted as a result and plants and trees dying.

A solicitor has been asked to give advice to one of the residents in relation to them bringing a private nuisance claim.

What advice should the solicitor give?

A. The character of the neighbourhood is relevant in respect of all of the complaints.

B. The court will consider the abnormal sensitivity of the client in determining whether there is a nuisance.

C. Anyone living in a property can bring a claim in private nuisance.

D. Public benefit will be a relevant factor considered by the court in determining whether there is a nuisance.

E. The court will attempt to balance the interests of all parties.

A

Option E is the correct answer because not one relevant factor is conclusive, the court attempts to balance interests, and all relevant factors will be taken into account in reaching a decision on lawfulness.

Option A is wrong because the character of the neighbourhood will be relevant with the noise, fumes and smells, but not relevant with the property damage.

Option B is wrong because the court will look at the impact of the normal user of neighbouring land and ignore any abnormal sensitivity of a claimant in determining whether there is a nuisance.

Option C is wrong because to be able to sue in private nuisance a claimant must have a proprietary interest in the land.

Option D is wrong because public benefit is not usually a relevant factor in deciding whether the defendant’s use is unreasonable, it is more relevant when considering remedies.

32
Q

A solicitor is instructed by a client who bought a house located in a rural location 6 months ago. A cement factory is near to the client’s house. Heavy lorries regularly arrive and leave during the day and night via a public road, making it difficult for the client to sleep at night.

The client has complained to the factory owner. The factory owner has responded that the factory has been operating for 25 years in the same location and that the client should not have bought their house near a factory if they are a light sleeper. The factory owner has also confirmed that their lorries are fitted with the best noise reduction mechanisms that are available on the market.

Which of the following statements best explains whether the client may have a claim in tort against the factory owner?

A. Yes, because the client will be able to pursue a claim in public nuisance because the lorries are using a public road.

B. Yes, because the client will be able to pursue a claim in private nuisance because the noise from the lorries is substantial and unreasonable.

C. Yes, because the factory is a non-natural use of land in a rural location.

D. No, because the factory was already operating before the client moved to the area.

E. No, because the factory owner has taken reasonable care to ensure that the noise from the lorries is kept to a minimum level.

A

B is the correct answer. The noise from the lorries may be a substantial and unreasonable interference with the claimant’s use of their land. The fact that the noise is at night and in a rural location would indicate that the claimant would have a claim in private nuisance.

A is incorrect because there is nothing to suggest that the noise from the lorries affects a ‘class of Her Majesty’s subjects’ ie a sufficient number of members of the public. Public nuisance is primarily concerned with protecting public rights and the fact that the lorries are using a public road is only incidental to the interference with the client’s private right to be able to use and enjoy their land.

C is incorrect because a non-natural use of land is only one element of the rule in Rylands v Fletcher. The other requirements are not satisfied on these facts as there has not been an escape of anything likely to cause damage to the claimant’s land. In fact, it is unlikely that this is a non-natural use of land in any event. A cement factory is not an extraordinary or unusual use of land, even in a rural location.

E is wrong because private nuisance is not based upon proving that the defendant has not taken reasonable care. Private nuisance is concerned with whether the consequences of the defendant’s use of their land is unlawful in that it causes a substantial and unreasonable interference with the claimant’s use of their land.

33
Q

A solicitor is instructed by the manufacturer of explosives used in the mining industry. A relatively minor explosion at the client’s factory scattered debris over the trading estate situated next door to their factory. Fortunately, no one was injured. However, the client has been contacted by one potential claimant. They are the owner of one of the businesses on the trading estate who are looking to claim for the cost of damage to the roof of their warehouse.

An expert has investigated the cause of the explosion and they have advised that the client was not to blame for the explosion.

Which of the following statements best explains whether the client may be liable in tort for the damage to the warehouse roof?

A. No, because the incident was an isolated event.

B. No, because the explosion was not the client’s fault.

C. Yes, because the warehouse owner has suffered particular harm over and above the harm suffered by the public at large.

D. Yes, because the client’s use of their land was non-natural and the debris caused foreseeable damage.

E. Yes, because property damage is always an unlawful interference with the use and enjoyment of land.

A

D is the correct answer.

The manufacture of explosives is likely to be held to be a non-natural use of land. The debris from the explosives has ‘escaped’ and caused foreseeable harm to the warehouse owner.

A is wrong because the torts of public nuisance and the rule in Rylands v Fletcher can be used by claimants where there have been ‘one-off’ or isolated events. It is correct, however, that private nuisance does not usually cover isolated events.

B is wrong because private nuisance, public nuisance and the rule in Rylands v Fletcher do not depend upon the need to prove that the defendant was at fault i.e. that they did not exercise reasonable care. Liability under the rule in Rylands v Fletcher is strict. Liability under both private nuisance and public nuisance is concerned with whether the defendant’s conduct is unreasonable because it causes an unreasonable interference with the claimant’s rights.

C is incorrect because, while it seems that the warehouse owner is the only person to have suffered harm, there is nothing to suggest that the public has been affected. A claim in public nuisance is not, therefore, appropriate on these facts.

E is incorrect because property damage is not always an unlawful interference with the use and enjoyment of land. It is correct that an interference which causes physical damage to the claimant’s land is likely to be considered excessive. However, this does not apply if the damage is only trivial. In any event, private nuisance is not the appropriate tort for isolated events.

34
Q

A solicitor is instructed by a client arising from the following incident. The client’s next door neighbour employed a building contractor to dig into the foundations of their home to create a basement in their property. Despite carrying out all the normal surveys and investigations, the neighbour’s building contractor disrupted a Roman sewer that was not shown on any charts or surveys. This caused the busy road outside the client’s home to collapse. The road was closed for 12 weeks while remedial works were carried out, causing traffic to be diverted around the client’s village.

The client was injured as she was crossing the road when the road collapsed. She fell into part of the hole in the road, breaking her leg.

Which of the following statements best explains whether the client may have a claim in tort against the building contractor?

A. Yes, because the building contractor has caused a substantial and unreasonable interference with the client’s use and enjoyment of their land.

B. Yes, because the client owns their property and they have suffered particular harm over and above the harm suffered by the public as a whole.

C. Yes, because the client has suffered particular harm over and above the harm suffered by the public as a whole.

D. No, because the building contractor carried out all the normal surveys and investigations and the client suffered a personal injury.

E. No, because the harm suffered by the client was not reasonably foreseeable.

A

C is the correct answer. The client will have an action in public nuisance because the public right to use the highway has been affected and the client has suffered particular harm ie the personal injury.

A is incorrect because there is nothing on the facts to suggest that the client’s use and enjoyment of their land has been interfered with (the interference is with the use of a public road). In any event, the client’s personal injury is not a type of harm that is recoverable in private nuisance.

B is incorrect as an action in public nuisance does not depend upon the client having a proprietary interest in the land affected (it is a requirement for private nuisance and the rule in Rylands v Fletcher). In any event, the fact that the client owns their property is irrelevant as the land interfered with is a public road.

D is wrong because the fact that the building contractor used reasonable care is not relevant for the torts of private nuisance, the rule in Rylands v Fletcher and public nuisance. Also, while it is correct that personal injury is not a type of harm recoverable in private nuisance and the rule in Rylands v Fletcher, it is recoverable in public nuisance.

E is wrong because, while it is correct that reasonable foreseeability of the harm suffered is an element of private nuisance and the rule in Rylands v Fletcher, it is not a requirement in public nuisance.

35
Q

Which ONE OR MORE of the following are examples of general damages?

A. Damages for pain and suffering

B. Damages for loss of earnings up to the date of trial / settlement

C. Damages for loss of future earnings

D. Damages for future loss of dependency

A

The correct answers are A, C and D.

General damages are those which cannot be precisely calculated. So, this covers damages for pain and suffering, future loss of earnings and future loss of dependency. The claimant’s lawyer can prepare a calculation predicting expected future loss of earnings or dependency, but the amount to be awarded must still be assessed by the judge (or on settlement).

By contrast, special damages are those which can be precisely calculated. So, this would cover lost earnings up to the date of trial / settlement.

36
Q

Darren is injured in an accident at work caused by his employer’s negligence. He is absent from work for six weeks. He is unable to cook for himself or do other household chores because of the injury, so his mother Miranda helps him out. She is not put to any financial loss as she is retired.

Is the following statement true or false?

Miranda will be able to bring a claim for the time she has spent looking after Darren.

A

The statement is false.

Darren will include the cost of care as part of his claim. Miranda cannot make a separate claim herself.

37
Q

Which ONE of the following statements about the claim on behalf of a deceased claimant’s estate is CORRECT?

A. The claim will compensate the dependants of the deceased for the losses incurred during the deceased’s period of survival.

B. The claim will compensates the deceased’s estate for the deceased’s loss of earnings after the deceased died.

C. The claim compensates the dependants of the deceased for their losses from the date of death.

D. The claim compensates the deceased’s estate for the losses incurred during the survival period.

A

D is the correct answer.

A and C are incorrect as these statement cover claims that dependants can bring and not the claim on behalf of the deceased’s estate.

B is incorrect as the claim on behalf of the deceased’s estate only compensates for loss of earnings during the survival period between the tort and death.

38
Q

Ben was killed due to the defendant’s negligence. He leaves a wife, Sarah, and a child, Sam. Ben was the breadwinner. Sam is 19 and Ben was supporting him through university. Ben was also in business with his brother Jon. Jon thinks he will have to close down the business because of Ben’s death.

Which ONE OR MORE of the following statements are correct?

A. Sarah will be able to claim for loss of dependency for the period up to Ben’s retirement age.

B Sam will be able to claim for loss of dependency for the period up to Ben’s retirement age.

C. Jon will not be able to claim for loss of dependency.

D. Sam will be able to claim damages for bereavement

A

Answers A and C are correct.

Sarah will be able to claim for loss of dependency for the period up to Ben’s retirement age as that is the likely period of loss.

Sam will not be able to claim for loss of dependency for the period up to Ben’s retirement age as once he has left university and is working as he will no longer be dependent on Ben.

Sam will not be able to claim bereavement damages. Only Sarah will have this claim.

Jon will not be able to claim for loss of dependency as the loss results from a business relationship.

39
Q

A client instructs a solicitor following a road traffic accident involving their spouse. The client’s spouse suffered injuries from the accident, survived for a period of two months but then died as a result of their injuries. The client alleges that the road traffic accident occurred as a result of another driver’s negligence. At the time of the accident the client’s spouse worked as a managing director of a large supermarket chain. The client is the sole beneficiary under their spouse’s will. The reasonable funeral expenses have been paid by the estate.

Which one of the following options correctly describes the damages recoverable by the client in the event that they establish the other driver was negligent?

A. Under the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934 the client will be entitled to receive a bereavement award.

B. Under the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934 the client will be entitled to recover damages for their loss of dependency.

C. Under the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934 the client will be entitled to recover, on behalf of her husband’s estate, damages for the pain, suffering and loss of amenity suffered by their spouse during the two month survival period.

D. Under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976 the client will be entitled to recover their spouse’s funeral expenses.

E. Under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976 the client will be entitled to recover compensation for property belonging to their spouse which was destroyed during the road traffic accident.

A

Option C is correct

because under the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934 the client will be entitled to recover, on behalf of her husband’s estate, damages for the pain, suffering and loss of amenity suffered by their spouse during the two month survival period.

Option A is wrong because a bereavement award is recoverable by the spouse of the deceased under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976, not under the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934.

Option B is wrong because loss of dependency is recoverable under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976, not under the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934.

Option D is wrong because where funeral expenses are reasonable in amount and paid by the estate, they are recoverable under the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934 and not under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976.

Option E is wrong because the client will be entitled to recover, on behalf of her husband’s estate, compensation for property belonging to their spouse which was destroyed during the road traffic accident under the Law Reform (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1934 not under the Fatal Accidents Act 1976.

40
Q

A young child is injured while visiting a cinema with her parents by slipping on a wet
floor inside the entrance to the cinema.
Which statement best describes whether the child will be owed a duty of care
by the cinema owner?

A. The child will be owed a duty of care if the cinema owner had reasonable
grounds to believe that the floor was wet and slippery.

B. The child will be owed a duty of care because she was injured due to the wet
and slippery floor.

C. The child will be owed a duty of care because the cinema owner knew that
children would be using the cinema.

D. The child will not be owed a duty of care because she should have been
supervised by her parents.

E. The child will be owed a duty of care if it was reasonable for the cinema owner
to offer some protection against slipping on the wet floor.

A

B is the correct answer. The child was a visitor who was injured due to the state of
the premises and is automatically owed a duty of care under OLA 1957.

Options A, C and E are incorrect because these are conditions on imposing a duty of care for injuries to trespassers under OLA 1984.

Option D is incorrect because whether the child should have been supervised by her parents is a breach of duty issue.

41
Q

A motorist parked their car on a bend of a road where parking was prohibited, to
briefly take a call on a mobile phone. The motorist is guilty of a traffic offence by
parking in this area. The defendant, who had been drinking excessive amounts of
alcohol, drove his car at speed around the bend and collided with the motorist’s car,
being unable to stop in time, causing it serious damage.

In a claim by the motorist in negligence against the defendant which of the
following best describes the operation of the defence of illegality?

A. The defence of illegality is not available for traffic offences.

B. The defence of illegality is not available for incidents involving cars driven or
parked on the road due to statute.

C. As a matter of public policy, the courts will use the defence of illegality to deprive the motorist of a remedy against the defendant to reinforce the
importance of parking laws.

D. As the damage to the motorist’s car does not arise directly out of the illegal activity, the defence of illegality will not apply here.

E. As the motorist is guilty of a traffic offence and the damage to the car occurs when the vehicle is parked illegally, the defence of illegality would operate to
deny the motorist a claim.

A

Option D is the correct answer. As a defence, illegality requires a close connection
between the claimant’s wrongdoing and their loss so that the damage arises directly
out of the illegal activity in such a way that it would be contrary to public policy to allow the claimant a remedy. This is not the case on the facts.

Option A is wrong as it is too general a statement.

Option B is wrong. The reference to statute in this option might be a reference to section 149 Road Traffic Act 1988. This provides that the fact that a passenger in a
car has willingly accepted the risk of negligence on the part of the driver does not negate the driver’s liability to the passenger. As such, this statutory provision relates
to the defence of consent rather than illegality.

Options C and E are wrong as the defence of illegality would not arise on these facts
for the reasons discussed in option

D. These options do not accurately reflect the scope of the defence.