English Legal System SBAQ's- Retained EU law + Devolution Flashcards

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1
Q

Is the following statement TRUE or FALSE?

Retained EU law is a snapshot of EU law as it applied in the UK immediately before the UK’s exit from the EU.

A

the statement is FALSE.

Retained EU law is a snapshot of EU law immediately before IP completion day (11.00pm on 31 December 2020). Although the UK left the EU on 31 January 2020, the Withdrawal Agreement provided for a transition period during which EU law continued to apply in the UK.

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2
Q

What is the status of an EU regulation in force immediately before IP completion day?

A. In the absence of any domestic implementing legislation, it will cease to apply in the UK.

B. It will become direct EU legislation, a category of retained EU law.

C. It will become EU derived domestic legislation, a category of retained EU law.

D. It will fall into the category of retained EU law described as ‘rights and powers available in UK law prior to IP completion day’.

A

Option B is correct.

Pursuant to s 3 EU(W)A 2018, direct EU legislation includes any EU regulation in force immediately before IP completion day. Option A is wrong as direct EU legislation does not require implementation in the UK to be retained.

Option C is wrong as EU-derived domestic legislation is UK legislation that was enacted to implement the UK’s EU obligations (s 2 EU(W)A 2018).

Option D is wrong as it describes the residual category of retained EU law defined in s 4 EUWA 2018 that does not fall within s 2 or s 3 EU(W)A 2018.

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3
Q

The High Court in England is hearing a case in which the parties are disputing the meaning of a provision of retained EU law. There is a decision of the CJEU that pre-dates IP completion day interpreting the provision in question.

Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?

A. The High Court may depart from the decision of the CJEU if it considers that it is right to do so.

B. The High Court should follow the decision of the CJEU as a binding precedent.

C. The High Court should follow the decision of the CJEU as a binding precedent unless it considers it is incorrect.

D. The High Court may ignore the decision of the CJEU as the UK is no longer an EU Member State.

A

Option B is correct.
EU(W)A 2018 provides that any question as to the meaning of any retained EU law is to be decided in accordance with any relevant retained EU case law (i.e. decisions of the CJEU) and any retained general principles of EU law. The Court of Appeal and Supreme Court may depart from decisions of the CJEU when it appears right to do so, but the High Court is bound by retained EU case law. Option A is therefore wrong as it sets out the circumstances in which the Court of Appeal and Supreme Court may depart from retained EU case law, but is not applicable to the High Court.

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4
Q

Is the following statement TRUE or FALSE?

The Withdrawal Agreement covers the terms of the UK’s exit from the EU and the transition period, but has no legal force after IP completion day.

A

The statement is FALSE.

Many provisions of the Withdrawal Agreement continue to apply after IP completion day, in particular those relating to the Northern Ireland Protocol, the financial settlement and citizens’ rights.

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5
Q

A woman is suing her employer in an English court. She wishes to rely on a piece of retained EU law. Her employer wishes to rely on UK legislation enacted before IP completion day that is not retained EU law. There is a conflict between a provision of the retained EU law and the UK legislation. The court is not sure whether under the circumstances EU law is supreme over the UK legislation.

Which of the following options best describes whether under the circumstances the retained EU law or the UK legislation is supreme?

A. The retained EU law will not be supreme over the UK legislation because post IP completion day, EU law is no longer supreme over UK legislation.

B. The retained EU law will be supreme over the UK legislation because all retained EU law is supreme over UK legislation, no matter when enacted.

C. The retained EU law will not be supreme over the UK legislation because retained EU law is only supreme over UK legislation enacted after IP completion day and not before.

D. The retained EU law will be supreme over the UK legislation because retained EU law is supreme over all UK law which has been enacted after IP completion day

E. The retained EU law will be supreme over the UK legislation because the UK legislation is enacted before IP completion day and is not retained EU law

A

Option E is in fact correct. Although following the end of the transition period EU law itself no longer has supremacy over UK law, retained EU law will have supremacy in limited circumstances. For this purpose there are three categories of law:

retained EU law;
UK legislation enacted before the end of the transition period that is not retained EU law; and
all UK legislation enacted after the end of the transition period.

Should a conflict occur between a provision of retained EU law and a piece of UK legislation (that is not retained EU law) enacted before the end of the transition period, then EU law will prevail over national law.

Option A is wrong because the retained EU law will be supreme to the UK legislation because retained EU law is supreme over UK legislation enacted before the end of the transition period that is not retained EU law.

Option B is wrong. It is not the case that all retained EU law is supreme over UK legislation.

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6
Q

A woman is paid less by her employer than a male colleague doing work of equal value. This is permitted by a (fictitious) Act of Parliament enacted in 2015. The woman claims that the employer newspaper has infringed her right to equal pay for work of equal value under Art 157 TFEU.

Can the woman make a claim against her employer relying on Art 157 TFEU?

A. Yes, because directly effective rights arising under the TFEU become retained EU law.

B. Yes, because directly effective rights arising under the TFEU become direct EU legislation.

C. No, because UK Acts of Parliament, whenever enacted, prevail over retained EU law.

D. No, because rights arising under the TFEU fall within one of the exclusions from retained EU law.

E. No, because the UK has left the EU so rights arising under the TFEU are irrelevant.

A

Option A is the correct answer. Rights etc. arising under s 2(1) of the ECA 1972 become retained EU law (s 4 EU(W)A), and the right to equal pay is a prime example of such a right.

Option B is wrong because they do not become direct EU legislation; an example of direct EU legislation is an EU regulation that has become retained EU law.

Option C is wrong as retained EU law has a limited form of supremacy over UK legislation (including Acts of Parliament) enacted pre-IP completion day.

Option D is wrong as there is no applicable exclusion.

Option E is wrong as it clear from s 4 of EU(W)A 2018 that Treaty rights do remain relevant in the UK legal system.

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7
Q

An EU directive (fictitious) adopted in 2017 provides that Member States must ensure that the use of latex gloves is prohibited in restaurants, cafeterias and other places that serve hot food for consumption on the premises. The directive was adopted due to medical evidence that latex gloves were causing an allergic reaction. The directive further provides that Member States should implement it by 30 November 2019. The UK government took no steps to implement it. In May 2020 the CJEU ruled that the provisions of the directive have direct effect.

After IP completion day a woman working in a cafeteria operated by a government department suffered an allergic reaction as a result of wearing latex gloves.

Can the woman make a claim against the government department based on the directive?

A. Yes, because the directive was due to be implemented before IP completion day, it has direct effect, so it can be relied upon vertically against a state body.

B. Yes, because the rights arising under the directive are of a kind that have been recognised by a UK or EU court or tribunal before IP completion day and so can be relied upon vertically against a state body.

C. Yes, because the directive was due to be implemented before IP completion day, it has become retained EU law and so can be relied upon vertically against a state body.

D. No, because directives do not become retained EU law and so cannot be enforced in the UK after IP completion day.

E. No, because rights arising under directives cannot be enforced in the UK after IP completion day as they are covered by an exclusion as regards enforcement in UK legislation.

A

Option B is in fact correct.

Directives are capable of having direct effect if they have not been implemented or implemented incorrectly, although only vertically against the state or state bodies. As the rights granted by the directive in this question are of a kind that have been recognised by a UK or EU court or tribunal before IP completion day, the rights it grants will become retained EU law. Option B is a better answer than option A as option A is too simplistic and states the position during the UK’s membership of the EU.

Option C is wrong as directives do not become retained EU law, as normally they are implemented into domestic law by primary or secondary legislation. Where rights under a directive are preserved, it is the rights themselves that become retained EU law rather than the directive.

Option D is wrong as, although it correctly states that directives do not become retained EU law, it ignores the fact that rights arising under directives can become retained EU law, as set out in option B.

Option E is wrong. Although rights arising under directives are only retained in limited circumstances, there is no exclusion relating to the enforcement of any rights that are retained. Regarding other sources of EU law, the main exclusions relate to the Charter of Fundamental Rights and the enforcement of general principles.

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8
Q

An employee is suing her employer for age discrimination before an English court. Her employer is relying on UK legislation (fictitious) brought in after the Implementation Period completion date which allows employers to discriminate against employees aged under 21 years on the grounds of age. The English court determines that the UK legislation breaches the principle of equality; however the court does not disapply the UK legislation, and the employee fails in her claim.

Which of the following options best explains why the court does not disapply the UK legislation?

A. The court did not disapply the UK legislation because the principle of equality was not a recognised general principle of EU law before IP completion day and will therefore not be a part of retained EU Law in the UK.

B. The court did not disapply the UK legislation because although the principle of equality was a recognised general principle of EU law before IP completion day, it is no longer relevant law in the UK.

C. The court did not disapply the UK legislation because although the principle of equality is a part of retained EU law in the UK, the court cannot disapply the UK legislation that is in effect.

D. The court did not disapply the UK legislation because they made an error in judgment. The principle of equality is a part of retained EU law in the UK and any UK legislation must be disapplied, if it breaches this principle.

E. The court did not disapply the UK legislation because disapplying national law that breaches EU law has not been a procedure available in English courts before IP completion day, and will therefore not be a procedure available in English courts after IP completion day.

A

Option C is in fact correct. During the UK’s membership of the EU, UK courts would have been required to disapply legislation, including primary legislation, that breached the principle of equality. However, after IP completion day, this is no longer the case. Although the principle of equality is retained EU law in the UK, failure to comply with it cannot give rise to a right of action.

Option A is wrong because the principle of equality was a recognised general principle of EU law before the end of IP completion day and will therefore be a part of retained EU Law in the UK.

Option B is wrong because the principle of equality was a recognised general principle of EU law before IP completion day, and it is relevant law in the UK as retained EU law.

Option D is wrong because the court did not make an error in judgment. The principle of equality is a part of retained EU law in the UK but since IP completion day, any UK legislation cannot be disapplied, if it breaches this principle.

Option E is wrong because disapplying national law that breaches EU law was a procedure available in English courts before IP completion day, but is not a procedure available in English courts after IP completion day.

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9
Q

Assane is a French national who has applied for a job as a clerical officer with the fire service in Tallinn, Estonia. His application for the post is rejected on the grounds that he is not an Estonian national, as employment in key public sector posts is limited to Estonian nationals.

Which ONE of the following options CORRECT?

A. Assane is unable to challenge the rejection of his application as Article 45 does not apply to employment in the public service.

B. Assane is unable to challenge the rejection of his application as the Tallinn fire service will be able to rely on the public policy exception in its defence.

C. Assane is able to challenge the rejection of his application as the ECJ has construed the public service exception narrowly and it is very unlikely that it would apply to a clerical post.

D. Assane is able to challenge the rejection of his application as Member States are not able to exclude EU nationals from any public sector posts at all.

A

Option C is in fact the correct answer. While Article 45(4) does provide for a public service exception, the ECJ has held that it applies only to ‘‘posts involving the exercise of official authority and functions related to safeguarding the general interests of the State’ (Case 149/79 Commission v Belgium).

Option A is therefore wrong as it construes the public service exception too widely.

Option D is wrong because it ignores the existence of the public service exception.

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10
Q

Maryam, a Swedish national, is working in Ostrava, the Czech Republic. The local municipality’s library service offers Czech nationals free access to its computers, but charges non-nationals 10 koruna (about 35p) per hour to use its computers. The municipality says that it cannot afford to extend free access to non-nationals.

Which ONE of the following is CORRECT?

A. As Maryam is a worker, she can rely on Regulation 492/2011 to claim free access to the computers as that is a ‘social’ advantage’.

B. Maryam cannot challenge the requirement to pay a fee as the municipality can rely on the public service exception to justify its policy.

C. Maryam cannot challenge the requirement to pay a fee as the municipality cannot afford to extend free access to non-nationals.

D. As Maryam is a worker, she can rely on Regulation 492/2011 to claim free access to the computers as that is a ‘social’ advantage’, but only because the municipality is a public body.

A

option A is correct.

Article 7(2) Regulation 492/2011 states that workers from other Member states should have ‘the same social and tax advantages as national workers’. A social advantage goes beyond something a worker is entitled to in their contract of employment and would include something like free access to computers in a municipal library (Case 32/75 Cristini v SNCF).

Option B is wrong because the public service exception can only be used to justify a refusal to employ someone in a high-ranking sensitive post in the public sector, while option C is wrong because economic grounds cannot be used to justify discriminatory conduct.

Although the municipality is a public body, option D is incorrect as EU regulations are capable of having direct effect horizontally and vertically. Regulation 492/20011 is therefore enforceable against private bodies, as well as public.

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11
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

The citizens’ rights provisions in the Withdrawal Agreement are not enforceable in UK courts.

A

The statement is indeed false. Section 7A of EU(W)A 2018 gives direct effect to those citizens’ rights provisions that meet the criteria for direct effect.

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12
Q

Petra, a national of Bosnia-Herzegovina, is resident in the UK and has recently applied for settled status, having previously been granted pre-settled status. Her application was rejected. Petra is married to Marko, a Croatian national whose application for settled status was approved.

Which ONE of the following is CORRECT?

A. As Petra is not a national of an EU Member State, she cannot rely on the Withdrawal Agreement to challenge the rejection of her application.

B. Petra can rely on the direct effect of the Withdrawal Agreement as she is the spouse of a migrant Union citizen.

C. Petra cannot rely on the Withdrawal Agreement as it only has effect in international law, not domestic UK law.

D. Petra can rely on the direct effect of the Withdrawal Agreement as she is relying on it against the UK government, and not a private body.

A

option B is correct.

It is clear from the Withdrawal Agreement that family members of migrant Union citizens as defined by Article 2(2) of Directive 2004/38 fall within its scope. As she and Marko were granted pre-settled status, it is also clear that they exercised their rights of free movement before the end of the transition period so can rely on the Withdrawal Agreement. Article 4(1) of the Withdrawal Agreement states that its provisions should be capable of having direct effect in EU Member States and the UK, and the UK implemented it via s 7A EU(W)A 2018.

Option A is wrong as non-EU national family members can rely on the Withdrawal Agreement.

Option C is wrong as s 7A EU(W)A 2018 incorporated s 7A EU(W)A 2018 into UK law.

Option D is wrong. Although Petra is relying on the Withdrawal Agreement vertically in this scenario. there is no reason why it should not also have horizontal direct effect.

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13
Q

Charel, a Luxembourgish national, is resident in the UK with settled status. He has applied for a post as a senior social worker with the Birmingham City Council. His application has been rejected as the council only recruits British, Irish and Commonwealth citizens to senior social worker posts.

Which ONE of the following is CORRECT?

A. Although Charel in theory can rely on the principle of non-discrimination set out in the Withdrawal Areement, Article 45(2) TFEU, Regulation 1612/68 and Directive 2004/38 to challenge the rejection of his application, the council will probably be able to invoke the public service exception to justify its policy.

B. Charel cannot challenge the rejection of his application invoking the Withdrawal Agreement as the UK is no longer an EU Member State and access to jobs is outside its scope.

C. Charel can probably rely on the Withdrawal Agreement, Article 45(2) TFEU, Regulation 1612/68 and Directive 2004/38 to challenge the rejection of his application if he can show that there are no sufficiently qualified British, Irish and Commonwealth citizens applying for the job.

D. Charel can probably successfully rely on the principle of non-discrimination set out in the Withdrawal Agreement, Article 45(2) TFEU, Regulation 492/2011 and Directive 2004/38 to challenge the rejection of his application.

A

Option D is the correct answer. EU citizens with settled status must normally be treated equally to British citizens when it comes to access to jobs.

Option A is wrong, as the post of senior social worker is unlikely to be the type of job to which the public service exception applies, as the ECJ has defined the exception narrowly. (Incidentally, the requirement for British, Irish and Commonwealth citizenship does apply to joining the British army.)

Option B is wrong as the Withdrawal Agreement does apply to access to employment.

Option C is wrong as Charel does not have to show the lack of suitably qualified British, Irish or Commonwealth applicants.

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14
Q

The EU adopted a directive setting a cap on fees that can be charged to hospital patients using hospital car parks. The directive’s implementation date was 30 November 2020, but the UK government took no steps to implement it.

A patient using an NHS hospital car park over the past three months has been charged car parking fees well in excess of those permitted by the directive. There is no pre-IP completion day CJEU case law regarding this particular directive, but you may assume for this question that there is case law to the effect that directives that impose caps on charges for the provision of services are capable of direct effect. The provisions in this directive are very clearly drafted.

Which of the following statements best summarises the patient’s right to claim back the excess fees?

A. As the UK government should have implemented the directive before IP completion day, the patient can recover the excess fees as the rights granted by the directive have become retained EU law, as they are of a kind that have been recognised by the CJEU in a case decided before IP completion day.

B. Although the UK government should have implemented the directive before IP completion day, it is unlikely that the patient can recover the excess fees as the rights granted by the directive probably have not become retained EU law.

C. As the UK government should have implemented the directive before IP completion day, whether the patient can recover the excess fees depends on whether UK courts consider the rights granted by the directive are of a kind that have been recognised by the CJEU in a case decided before IP completion day.

D. As the UK government should have implemented the directive before IP completion day, the patient can recover the excess fees by relying on the direct effect of the directive as retained EU law as the rights granted by the directive are of a kind that have been recognised by the CJEU in a case decided before IP completion day.

E. As the UK government should have implemented the directive before IP completion day, whether the patient can recover the excess fees by relying on the direct effect of the directive as retained EU law depends on whether UK courts consider the rights granted by the directive are of a kind that have been recognised by the CJEU in a case decided before IP completion day.

A

option C is correct.

Pursuant to s 4(2)(b) EU(W)A 2018, directly effective rights granted by a directive are only preserved as retained EU law if they are of a kind that have been recognised by the CJEU or a UK court or tribunal in a case decided before IP completion day. The meaning of ‘of a kind that have been recognised’ is ambiguous; it could mean that the actual rights granted by the particular directive must have been recognised in case law (narrow meaning) or merely that the general nature of the rights granted by the directive in question must have been recognised in case law (broad meaning). Option C reflects this ambiguity which will only be resolved once a UK court has ruled on the issue.

Option A is wrong as it is uncertain whether the rights granted by the directive are of a kind that have been recognised by the CJEU in a case decided before IP completion day. On the narrow interpretation of s 4(2)(b) they have not, but on the broad interpretation (which this option adopts) they have. It is not yet known, though, whether the broad interpretation is correct.

Option B is wrong as, if UK courts do adopt a broad interpretation of s 4(2)(b), the rights granted by the directive will become retained EU law.

Option D is wrong, even if a broad interpretation of s 4(2)(b) is adopted. It is not the directive that becomes retained EU law, but rather the directly effective rights granted by the directive.

Option E is wrong for the same reason as option D, even though (unlike option D) it summarises the ambiguity in s 4(2)(b) correctly. As stated above, it is not the directive that becomes retained EU law, but rather the directly effective rights granted by the directive.

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15
Q

Chioma, a British citizen, is living in Verona, Italy with her husband, Pierre, a French national working there. The couple met three months ago while Chioma was on holiday in France and moved to Verona last month a few days after their wedding. She works part-time in a bar and plans to spend the rest of her time sight-seeing. She discovers that low paid EU nationals working in Verona are entitled to free entry to all museums in Verona that are under the control of the Italian government or Verona municipality. Chioma falls within the definition of low paid worker but is refused free entry.

Is Chioma entitled under EU law to claim free entry to the museums in Verona?

A. No, because she is a British citizen and has no rights under EU law following the UK’s exit from the EU.

B. Yes, because as a family member of a Union citizen working in Italy, she is entitled to equal treatment with Italian nationals irrespective of her nationality.

C. No, because only family members of Union citizens who themselves are nationals of an EU Member State are entitled to equal treatment with host State nationals.

D. Yes, because under the Withdrawal Agreement she is entitled to equal treatment with Italian nationals.

E. No, because only family members of Union citizens who work full-time are entitled to equal treatment with host State nationals.

A

option B is actually correct. Pursuant to Article 24(1) of Directive 2004/38, the family members of migrant Union citizens are entitled to equal treatment with the host Member State’s nationals, irrespective of their nationality. As Chioma is married to Pierre, she is a family member of a migrant Union citizen (Article 2(2)(a) of Directive 2004/38). The museums concerned are public bodies, so Chioma can rely on the directive’s vertical direct effect. (As free entry to museums is most probably a ‘social advantage’ within the scope of Article 7(2) of Regulation 492/2011, Chioma would probably have been able to rely on Article 7(2) if her claim had been a horizontal one, as she is a spouse of a migrant worker.)

Option A is wrong because Chioma does have rights under EU law even though the UK has left the EU, albeit her rights are contingent on her being the family member of a migrant worker. She does not have any free-standing rights of her own, unlike the position during the UK’s membership of the EU.

Option C is wrong as Directive 2004/38 makes it clear that the provisions regarding family members apply equally to non-EU nationals.

Option D is wrong as the Withdrawal Agreement protects the rights of British citizens who were resident in the EU at the end of the transition period. Chioma therefore does not come within its scope.

Option E is wrong. It is clear from ECJ case law that part-time workers are workers and so have the same rights as full-time workers. Moreover, family members of the self-employed, students and persons with sufficient resources also benefit from Directive 2004/38.

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16
Q

Assume that an Act of Parliament (fictitious) enacted three months ago has given public bodies the power to rent land at a discounted rent to businesses owned by people permanently resident in the UK in parts of England which have higher than average unemployment. The aim of the legislation is to boost employment in those areas. The Act makes no reference to any legislation regarding the UK’s exit from the EU or the Withdrawal Agreement betwen the UK and EU.

A man who has Slovenian nationality and owns a business seeks to rent land at a discounted rent from a public body. The public body refuses to give him a discounted rent. Although it accepts the land is an area of above average unemployment, it states that is unable to give him a discount as he only has pre-settled status in the UK and so does not meet the qualifying condition of permanent residence. The public body is correct in stating that pre-settled status does not grant a right of permanent residence.

Can the man challenge the refusal to give him discounted rent?

A. No, because the qualifying condition is contained in an Act of Parliament and so overrides any provision in the legislation regarding the UK’s exit from the EU or the Withdrawal Agreement which would entitle the man to a discounted rent.

B. No, because the man cannot rely on any rights to equal treatment granted to him by the Withdrawal Agreement to claim a discounted rent as international treaties are not enforceable in English courts.

C. Yes, because the man can rely on the direct effect of the right to equal treatment granted to him by the Withdrawal Agreement to claim a discounted rent in an English court.

D. Yes, because the man can rely on the directly effective right to equal treatment granted to him by Article 45 TFEU as retained EU law to claim a discounted rent in an English court.

E. Yes, because the English courts must disapply the qualifying condition regarding permanent residence in the Act of Parliament as it breaches the principle of equality which is a retained general principle of EU law.

A

Option C is actually the correct option.

Section 7A EU(W)A 2018 gives direct effect to the Withdrawal Agreement, and case law regarding the effect of s 2(1) ECA 1972 indicates directly effective provisions of the Withdrawal Agreement will prevail over inconsistent national legislation in the same way that directly effective provisions of EU law did until IP completion day.

Option A is wrong as the Act would have to override in express and unambiguous terms for it to prevail over directly effective provisions of the Withdrawal Agreement.

Option B is wrong, as the European Union (Withdrawal Agreement) Act 2020 expressly incorporated the Withdrawal Agreeement into UK law.

Option D is wrong as directly effective rights under Article 45 TFEU do not form part of retained EU law, as UK immigration legislation coming into force on IP completion day repealed much EU legislation on the free movement of persons in accordance with the UK government’s policy to leave the single market and end free movement.

Option E is wrong as, although the principle of equality is a retained general principle of EU law, EU(W)A2018 provides that general principles cannot now be used to strike down UK legislation.

17
Q

In which year were the Acts of Parliament granting Scotland and Wales devolution passed?

A. 1992

B. 1997

C. 1998

D. 2001

A

Well done, the correct answer is C, 1998

18
Q

The Supreme Court decides disputes about whether legislation passed by a devolved legislature is outside that devolved legislature’s competence. Which two of the following options are legitimate ways of referring such a dispute to the Supreme Court?

A. Direct application by a citizen of the devolved state in question.

B. Referral by a devolved or UK law officer, such as the Attorney General for England & Wales.

C. Referral by HM the Queen.

D. Appeal from certain higher courts in England & Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland.

A

The answers were B and D. Neither an individual citizen, nor indeed the Queen, can refer disputes about legislative competence to the Supreme Court. The law officers of the home nations can refer disputes on legislative competence to the Supreme Court, and appeals can be made from certain courts up to the Supreme Court on this issue.

19
Q

How many members of the Northern Ireland Assembly are there?

A. 650

B. 100

C. 92

D. 90

A

Well done, the correct answer is d), 90

20
Q

Which of the following are areas outside the legislative competence of the Scottish Parliament? Please select all correct answers from the list below.

A. Education in Scotland

B. Legislating for a territory other than Scotland

C. Modification of certain provisions of the Acts of Union

D. A Royal Air Force base in Scotland

A

The correct answers were B, C and D. The Scotland Act 1998 provides that the Scottish Parliament cannot legislate for a territory other than Scotland (answer B), it cannot change certain provisions of the Acts of Union (answer C), and it cannot legislate in respect of “reserved matters”, ie matters reserved to Westminster (which include defence of the realm, answer D). Education within Scotland is within the legislative competence of the Scottish Parliament.

21
Q

Robert has been elected as an MP. MP’s are required to take an oath of allegiance before they can take their seat. Robert has refused to do so. The House of Commons resolved that he should be excluded. Robert applies to the court for an injunction to prevent the House from excluding him.

Which ONE of the following is correct?

A. The court will likely grant the injunction due to their powers of judicial review.

B. The court will dismiss the application for an injunction on the basis that it has no power to interfere with the internal proceedings of Parliament.

C. The court will grant the application for an injunction on the basis of parliamentary sovereignty.

D. The court will grant the application for an injunction based on human rights grounds.

A

The correct answer is B. The court has no power/jurisdiction to interfere with the internal proceedings of Parliament as per the case of Bradlaugh v Gossett (1884).

22
Q

Which ONE of the following scenarios is the most likely to not be covered by Parliamentary privilege?

A. An MP breaching a court injunction which forbids details of a court case being made public.

B. An MP makes a defamatory statement during a debate.

C. An MP posts a defamatory tweet while sitting in a debate which has nothing to do with the matter under debate.

D. An MP makes a defamatory statement in a meeting of a committee appointed by Parliament.

A

The correct answer is C.

If the MP tweets about a topic which is unrelated to the subject matter being debated, then it is highly unlikely that the post will be protected by Parliamentary privilege.

There have been several recent cases where MPs have named individuals in Parliament where there has been a court injunction in place forbidding details of the case from being made public, such as in 2018 when Lord Hain named Sir Phillip Green in the House of Lords as the business leader caught up in allegations of bullying and sexual harassment.

Privilege covers ‘proceedings in Parliament’, therefore statements made during a debate or in a committee meeting are likely to be covered by Parliamentary privilege.

23
Q

Is the following statement TRUE or FALSE?

Due to the doctrine of Parliamentary Supremacy, Westminster can legislate over any of the devolved areas, and in respect of any matter it pleases.

A

The statement is True, Parliament in Westminster is supreme, so can in principle pass an Act of Parliament over any of the devolved areas. It is unlikely, however, that Westminster would do so, at least not without first seeking the consent of the devolved legislature it is seeking to overrule, following the Sewel Convention.

24
Q

Within the unwritten constitution of the UK, constitutional conventions are used to regulate the behaviour of those who hold power. In the Parliamentary process, there is a constitutional convention called the Sewel Convention.

Which of the following statements offers the best description of the Sewel Convention?

A. The Sewel Convention requires the House of Commons to pass legislation which is part of the manifesto of the largest political party in the Commons.

B. The Sewel Convention requires the House of Lords to pass all financial bills emanating from the House of Commons.

C. The Sewel Convention requires the leader of the largest party in the House of Commons to become Prime Minister.

D. The Sewel Convention requires Parliament to obtain the consent of the devolved countries where legislation impacts on devolved legislation.

E. The Sewel Convention requires the House of Lords should pass a bill which gives effect to a major part of the government’s manifesto.

A

Option D is correct. The Sewel Convention indicates that Parliament should not usually pass legislation relating to devolved matters without the consent of the devolved legislatures.

Option A is wrong because the government does not need to use a convention such as this in the House of Commons because it should have the majority it needs to pass the legislation it wishes to pass.

Option B is wrong because the Sewel Convention only refers to matters which impact on the devolved powers of devolved legislatures and does not only relate to financial bills.

Option C is wrong because although there is a convention that says that the leader of the largest party in the House of Commons becomes Prime Minister, it is not called the Sewel Convention.

Option E is wrong because, although there is a convention which requires the House of Lords to allow the government to pass legislation which is based on promises made to the electorate in an election, it is called the Salisbury Convention.

25
Q

UK Parliament has passed legislation extending to Scotland, which does not pertain to a reserved matter. The Scottish Parliament has not given its consent.

Which of the following describes whether the Act is enforceable in Scotland?

A. Not enforceable, because under the Sewel Convention, Westminster must not legislate on devolved matters.

B. Not enforceable, because Westminster cannot legislate on matters that have not been reserved to the UK Parliament.

C. Not enforceable, because the Scottish Parliament has not given its consent through Legislative Consent Motions (LCMs)

D. Enforceable, because the Scottish Parliament has not formally vetoed the legislation.

E. Enforceable, because the UK Parliament has power to pass Acts covering the whole of the UK.

A

E is the correct answer.

The UK Parliament remains sovereign and it can pass Acts for the whole of the UK even if it does not receive consent from the devolved legislature.

A and B are wrong as (see above) the UK Parliament is able to legislate on any matter.

C is wrong as although the Sewel Convention provides that the UK Parliament will not normally legislate on a devolved matter without the devolved legislature’s consent, it has the competence to do as the Sewel Convention is not legally enforceable.

D is incorrect as the Scottish Parliament has no power to veto Acts of the UK parliament.

26
Q

The minister in charge of a bill being presented to the Scottish Parliament has asked for advice whether they can make a statement that the bill is within the Parliament’s legislative competence. The minister’s main concern is that the bill amends an Act of the UK Parliament.

Can the minister make a statement that the bill is within the Parliament’s legislative competence?

A. No, because the bill amends an Act of the UK Parliament which is a reserved matter.

B. No, because amending Acts of the UK Parliament is explicitly excluded from the Scottish Parliament’s legislative competence.

C. No, because secondary legislation cannot be used to amend primary legislation.

D. Yes, because the Scottish Parliament has full power to amend Acts of the UK Parliament as Acts of the Scottish Parliament are primary legislation.

E. Yes, because the Scottish Parliament has power to amend Acts of the UK Parliament unless the subject-matter of the bill is outside its legislative competence.

A

Option E is correct. The Scottish Parliament has power to amend Acts of the UK Parliament unless the subject-matter of the bill is outside the legislative competence of the Scottish Parliament.

Option A is wrong as Acts of the UK Parliament are not in themselves reserved matters. The subject-matter of some Acts are reserved matters, but the Acts concerned must be specifically listed in the devolution legislation. Option B is wrong. Although there are some protected statutes such as the Human Rights Act 1998 which the Scottish Parliament cannot amend, Acts of the UK Parliament are not in general protected.

Option C is wrong as Acts of the Scottish Parliament are primary legislation. Although the Scottish Parliament is not sovereign in the way that the UK Parliament is, its Acts are still primary legislation. In any event, it is possible for secondary legislation to amend primary legislation. See for example Henry VIII powers.

Option D is wrong as, unlike the UK Parliament, there are limits on the Scottish Parliament’s legislative competence.

27
Q

The UK Parliament has passed an Act (fictitious) creating a new criminal offence in England and Wales. The criminal offence relates to a matter that has not been reserved to the UK Parliament. The Senedd Cymru has not passed a legislative consent motion in relation to the Act as it opposed the legislation. A man has been prosecuted for committing the new criminal offence in Wales. The man claims that he has not committed a criminal offence as the Act creating it is unenforceable in Wales.

Will the courts uphold the man’s claim?

A. Yes, because the UK Parliament does not have the competence to legislate on devolved matters.

B. Yes, because the Senedd Cymru has not passed a legislative consent motion.

C. No, because the UK Parliament has power to pass Acts covering the whole of the UK even if the devolved legislature opposes the legislation.

D. No, because the Senedd Cymru lacks competence regarding criminal offences even in relation to devolved matters.

E. No, because the Senedd Cymru has not formally vetoed the application of the Act in Wales.

A

Option C is correct.

The Westminster Parliament remains sovereign notwithstanding devolution. It can therefore can pass Acts for the whole of the UK pertaining to devolved matters even in the face of opposition from the devolved legislatures. Although the Sewel Convention provides that the UK Parliament will not normally legislate on a devolved matter without the devolved legislature’s consent, it has the competence to do as the Sewel Convention is not legally enforceable. Accordingly, options A and B are both wrong.

Options D and E are wrong as they give incorrect reasons for why the courts will reject the man’s claim. Contrary to what option D states, the Senedd Cymru does have the power to create new offences relating to devolved matters. Option E incorrectly suggests that the Senedd Cymru has a veto over Acts of the UK parliament; as explained above, the UK parliament is sovereign.

28
Q

The Scottish Parliament has passed an Act of the Scottish Parliament affecting university education. The Scotland Act 1998 (as amended) does not list education as a devolved matter. A university affected by the Act has challenged it by way of judicial review on the grounds that it is outside the Scottish Parliament’s legislative competence and irrational.

Which of the following best describes the approach the courts are likely to take to the challenge?

A. The courts will reject the challenge unless education is listed in the 1998 Act as a reserved matter.

B. The courts will reject the challenge as, in accordance with the Enrolled Act rule, the Act cannot be challenged.

C. The courts will reject the challenge as only the law officers of the UK government or devolved governments have the standing to challenge Acts of the devolved legislatures.

D. The courts will uphold the challenge if they consider that the Act of the Scottish Parliament is irrational.

E. The courts will uphold the challenge as the 1998 Act has not expressly devolved education to the Scottish Parliament.

A

Option A is correct.

The reserved powers model applies to the Scottish Parliament. This means that the Scottish Parliament has the power to pass legislation on all matters which are not explicitly reserved to the Westminster Parliament. (In fact, education is not a reserved matter so the Act will be within the Scottish Parliament’s legislative competence.)

Option B is wrong because the Enrolled Act Rule only applies to Acts of the UK Parliament which is a sovereign legislature.

Option C is wrong as individuals (including universities) do have the standing to challenge Acts of the devolved legislatures.

Option D is wrong as the Supreme Court has stated that Acts of the devolved legislatures cannot be challenged on common law grounds such as irrationality.

Option E is wrong, because under the reserved powers model devolved matters are all those matters except for those that are reserved.

29
Q

The parents of a seriously ill child wish to challenge their local hospital’s decision to
switch off their child’s life support machine. They wish to submit through Counsel
that the Human Rights Act 1998 (HRA) applies to the case and cite decisions of the
European Courts of Human Rights (ECtHR) in support of their arguments.
Which option best states what the court must consider with regard to the HRA
when determining questions that have arisen in connection with rights under
the European Convention on Human Rights?

A. The HRA requires the court to engage with the decisions of the ECtHR.

B. The HRA requires the court to follow the decisions of the ECtHR.

C. The HRA requires the court to take into account decisions of the ECtHR in so far as they are relevant.

D. The HRA requires the court to apply recent decisions of the ECtHR.
E The HRA requires the Court to apply relevant decisions of the ECtHR

A

Option C is correct. The HRA requires the court when determining questions that
have arisen in connection with Convention rights to take relevant decisions of the ECtHR into account in so far as they are relevant.

Section 2(1) of the HRA requires UK courts to “take into account” any decision of the ECtHR (or Committee of Ministers) in so far as they are relevant in cases concerning
Convention rights. This means that UK courts are required to take account of relevant decisions of the ECtHR but are not bound by them.
The other options are accordingly wrong

30
Q

A defendant in a criminal trial (the Defendant) has been found guilty in the
Magistrates’ Court for the offence of theft. The solicitor for the Defendant has
advised the Defendant that the judge has made an error in the law when deciding on
the verdict and that the Defendant would have a good chance of success if an
appeal was made on this basis.
Which of the following statements best describes the most likely court in
which the appeal will take place?

A. The Crown Court, as the appeal will most likely be by way of ‘case stated’.

B. The Crown Court, as the appeal will most likely be a retrial of the case.

C. The High Court, as only the CPS can appeal to the Crown Court.

D. The High Court, as the appeal will most likely be by way of ‘case stated’.

E. The High Court, as the appeal will most likely be a retrial of the case

A

Option D is correct.

Criminal appeals from the Magistrates’ Court can be heard in either the Crown Court or the High Court. Here, the Defendant has been advised that
the judge has made an error in the law. While this would not prevent a retrial in the Crown Court, an appeal by way of ‘case stated’ to the High Court would be most
likely.

Option A is wrong. Appeals by way of ‘case stated’ are appeals on a point of law.
Such appeals ordinarily lie with the High Court.
Options B and E are not the best answer. The judge made an error of law. There is no need for there to be a re-trial of the case.

Option C is wrong. Appeals in the Crown Court can only be brought by a defendant,
not the CPS.

31
Q

A client who has suffered an industrial injury has applied for compensation from the Industrial Injuries Board (the Board). This compensation is regulated by the EU’s Directive on Industrial Injuries 2017/332 (fictitious) which aims to provide adequate
compensation for such injuries (the Directive). The Directive has been incorporated into UK law. The client has received payment of £5,000 from the Board despite the
fact that he will not work again as a result of his injury and his future financial loss is therefore much greater than this sum. The client has therefore appealed the Board’s decision as permitted to the High Court for a greater sum on the grounds that the
Board has failed to take into account future losses when considering what is an adequate amount to award. The High Court is presented with a decision made last week by the Court of Justice of the European Union (CJEU) in a Danish case, where
on similar facts it was held that the payment of compensation which did not take into account and adequately compensate for actual future losses was not adequate
compensation.
Is the Hight Court bound by the CJEU’s decision?

A. Yes, because the decision is regarding a directive which was issued prior to the UK’s departure from the EU.

B. Yes, because the CJEU’s decision is persuasive.

C. Yes, because under the terms of the UK’s departure from the EU any decisions by the CJEU are binding on the UK.

D. No, because the UK’s departure from the EU means UK courts are not bound by any CJEU decision which is made after the withdrawal.

E. No, because the UK’s departure from the EU means UK courts are not bound
by any CJEU decision no matter when it was made

A

Option D is correct. UK courts are not bound by decisions made by the CJEU post- withdrawal. Accordingly, option C is wrong.

Option A is wrong because it is the date of the decision (pre or post withdrawal) that
governs whether it is binding, not the date of the directive.

Option B is wrong because although the decision may be regarded as persuasive
this is not the same as binding.

Option E is wrong because the UK courts are bound by decisions prior to the UK’s withdrawal from the EU but not post-withdrawal.

32
Q

An MP, who is also a Government Minister, has been accused of fraudulently over-
claiming parliamentary expenses. The Crown Prosecution Service (“CPS”) wishes to
prosecute the MP in the Crown Court, but the MP argues that as the issue relates to parliamentary expenses, he should only be subject to disciplinary proceedings in Parliament. Can the MP be prosecuted by the CPS in a criminal court in these
circumstances?

A. No, because Parliament has “exclusive cognisance”, which means that only
Parliament can take action if the rules of procedures of Parliament are
breached.

B. Yes, because although parliamentary privilege includes “exclusive
cognisance” which is the power for Parliament to make its own rules, the fraud by the MP is a criminal offence, so would be outside the exclusive cognisance of Parliament.

C. No, because parliamentary privilege includes “exclusive cognisance” which is the power for Parliament to make its own rules – the MP will therefore be
prosecuted by Parliament for the fraudulent expenses claim.

D. No, because parliamentary privilege means the MP cannot be prosecuted at all.

E Yes, because although parliamentary privilege includes “exclusive
cognisance” which is the power for Parliament to make its own rules, as the
MP is a Government Minister, however, he is not subject to the rules of the UK Parliament.

A

Option B is the correct answer, although Parliament has exclusive cognisance to
determine its own rules and procedures, criminal offences would be prosecuted in
the usual way. Options A and C are therefore wrong.

Option D is wrong, there is no reason why the MP cannot be prosecuted.

Option E is wrong because the MP remains a Member of Parliament despite also
being a Minister, and would therefore be subject to the rules and procedures of Parliament. This answer is irrelevant in any event, as the MP would be prosecuted
for the criminal offence.