TORCH, Spirochetes, Mono Flashcards

1
Q

What does TORCH stand for?

A

T = toxoplasmosis

O = others perinatal infections (gonorrhea, syphilis, HIV)

R = Rubella

C = CMV

H = Herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is TORCH used for?

A

Prenatal screening test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Toxoplasmosis - infectious agent. Modes of transmission

A

Toxoplasma gondii
-cannot be cultured

From cats or uncooked meats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Toxoplasmosis gold standard. Another test includes…

A

Sabin-Feldman Dye test

EIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Toxoplasmosis - clinical findings

A

Mono-like symptoms

Hydrocephalus birth defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Difference between EBV and CMV

A

EBV produces heterophile antibodies

CMV does not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CMV is a member of…

A

Herpes virus

-almost everyone has it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

CMV - clinical findings

A

Neurological symptoms = mental-retardation, stillbirth

Mono-like symptoms

Cold sores, blisters

-mostly asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Rubella - at what titer is a person considered immune? A recent infection has these findings…

A

1:8

4 fold increase in titer with symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Rubella - clinical findings

A

Defects - CHF

Hepatitis

Diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Rubella tests

A

EIA

Latex agglutination

Hemagglutination inhibition (HAI) - rubella can agglutinate chick RBCs. Mix patient serum with RBCs. Antibodies present = no agglutination

Passive hemagglutination (PHA) - human RBCs coated with Rubella antigen and serum diluted. Positive result is RBC agglutination (antigen-antibody complex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of virus is the herpes virus? Which herpes virus is genital herpes?

A

DNA virus

HSV-I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Herpes tests

A

EIA

Viral culture - reference lab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Herpes - clinical findings

A

Fatal to infant if transmitted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Can spirochetes be gram-stained?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Syphilis bacterium

A

Treponema pallidum

  • fragile, need open lesion to pass
  • mother can transmit to newborn
  • quickly disseminate throughout body in 30 mins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Syphilis - clinical findings

A

Primary (chancre)
Secondary (lymphadenopathy, skin rash, sore throat)
Latent (asymptomatic)
Tertiary (granulomatous inflammation, cardiovascular disease, neurosyphilis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Congenital syphilis - clinical findings

A

Generalized lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, anemia, bone abnormalities, neurosyphilis

Facial deformity: Hutchinson’s teeth

19
Q

Suspected Treponema infection should be screened for… Confirm with…

A

Non-treponemal antibodies first

  • MUST be confirmed
  • test is non-specific to treponema

Confirm with treponemal antibodies assay - cumbersome, expensive, lengthy

20
Q

What are Reagin antibodies? What do Reagin antibodies target

A

Antibodies that develop targeting cholesterol-containing compounds in the cell membrane when they rupture from a syphilis infection

  • seen as “foreign”
  • Reagin is non-specific, seen in old people, autoimmune, cancer, TB, chickenpox, hepatitis
  • diminish over time

Cardiolipin

21
Q

Direct lab diagnosis of syphilis (2)

A

Fluorescent microscopy

Darkfield microscopy - corkscrew morphology, flexing mobility
-cannot be gram-stained

22
Q

Serological tests for syphilis are divided into two categories. Which is screening and which is confirmatory?

A

Non-treponemal = screening

Treponemal = confirmatory

23
Q

What are the 2 non-treponemal tests? Are they sensitive or specific for treponema?

A

VDRL and RPR
-look for flocculations = cardiolipin clumping

Both sensitive but not specific for treponema

24
Q

VDRL vs RPR - which one is easier to do? Benefit of VDRL?

A

RPR - sensitive, faster, no microscope needed

Can be used on CSF samples

25
VDRL - weakness. What are the results?
Temperature sensitive - antigen MUST be prepared between 23-29C Reactive - medium/large clumps Weakly reactive - small clumps Nonreactive - no clumps -uses microscope for observation
26
RPR - cardiolipin antigen is attached to... What are the results?
Charcoal Reactive - medium/large clumps Weakly reactive - small clumps Nonreactive - no clumps. A "tail" is seen when swirled -can be observed by eye
27
Treponema confirmatory tests (4)
Fluorescent treponemal absorption (FTA-ABS) - antibodies to treponema. Remove cross-reacting antibodies in serum with sorbent first. Fix treponema to slide, add serum and conjugate Ig, observe fluorescence -gold standard T. pallidum particle agglutination (TP-PA) - agglutination on plate Microhemagglutination assay (MHA-TP) - discontinued Immunoassays/ELISA - by request
28
Treponemal vs non-treponemal - how do test results look over time
Treponemal titers appear during primary syphilis and remain elevated for life Non-treponemal titers decline over time - peak at secondary-early latent stages
29
Why do non-treponemal (RPR and VDRL) tests decline over time?
Patient recovers after treatment, antibodies decline in later stages of syphilis -elevated for first 6 months of infection
30
When testing fetuses for congenital syphilis, why should we look for IgM instead of IgG?
IgG comes from mother through placenta, false positive
31
Neurosyphilis patients should be tested using these tests (2)
ELISA VDRL using CSF
32
3 types of diseases caused by spirochetes
Syphilis Lyme disease Relapsing fever
33
Lyme disease - caused by...
Borrelia burgdorferi
34
Lyme disease - clinical manifestations
``` Stage 1 Localized rash Stage 2 Early dissemination Stage 3 Late dissemination with arthritis ```
35
Lyme disease diagnosis
ELISA Western blot - ELISA followup IgM and IgG antibody levels - IgM = recent - IgG = awhile ago
36
Lyme disease - western blot MUST show this band... It must also be positive for...
41 kDa + 2 other bands specific for spirochete
37
This disease mimics Lyme disease... caused by...
Relapsing fever Borrelia miyamotoi
38
Mono - caused by this virus... Virus is part of this family...
EBV = oncogenic Herpes
39
How is mono detected?
ELISA Heterophile antibody
40
Mono causes a rise in...
Lymphocytes - 50% lymphocytosis = more Igs | Spike in gammaglobulins
41
Mono produces heterophile antibodies that are this Ig class...
IgM
42
How are heterophile antibodies tested for (2)
Paul Burnell heterophile antibody test Davidsohn differential test
43
Mono test result for differential test
Negative - bovine RBC + sheep RBC + serum = no agglutination Positive - guinea pig kidney + sheep RBC + serum = agglutination
44
First EBV antibody to appear during an infection
Anti-VCA (IgM) | -virus capsid antigen