Topic 7: Modern Genetics Flashcards

(126 cards)

1
Q

Define genome

A

The total of all the genetic material in an organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where is the DNA found in prokaryotes?

A

In plasmids/chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where is the DNA in eukaryotes?

A

In the nucleus, mitochondria and chloroplasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are exons?

A

Coding regions of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are introns?

A

Non-coding regions of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define gene sequencing

A

A method of analysing the individual base sequence along a DNA strand or an individual gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does PCR stand for?

A

Polymerase chain reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the purpose of PCR?

A

To amplify small samples of DNA by making more copies of it. Makes it easier to analyse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Summarise the stages of PCR

A
  • Add DNA sample to mixture of enzymes, primers + nucleotides
  • Heat mixture to 94 degrees
  • Cool mixture to 55 degrees
  • Raise temperature to 72 degrees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why is taq polymerase used in PCR rather than normal DNA polymerase?

A

Thermicus aquaticus is an extremophile which is adapted to being at high temperatures. Its polymerase doesn’t denature at the temps of PCR like normal DNA poly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Taq an abbreviation for?

A

Thermic aquaticus (a bacteria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are primers?

A

Small sequences of DNA that must join to the beginning of the strand before copying can begin. Act as a starting point for DNA synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is needed in the mixture that DNA is added to before PCR begins?

A

Taq polymerase
Primers
Buffer
Good supply of four bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why is the DNA initially heated to 94 degrees in PCR?

A

To break the hydrogen bonds between the DNA strands so that they become available for replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why is the temperature cooled to 55 degrees in PCR?

A

Allows primers to bind to complementary regions on the DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why is the temperature raised for a second time to 72 degrees in PCR?

A

Optimum temperature for the Taq polymerase. Allows it to add onto the primers and extend the DNA strands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the uses of PCR?

A

DNA profiling

Gene sequencing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is gene sequencing?

A

A method to determine the base sequence in a particular gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Explain the basic principles in gene sequencing

A
  • DNA cut up into fragments
  • PCR done in mixture of normal and terminator bases
  • Terminator bases have fluorescent dye to mark them
  • Different length fragments made
  • Separate with gel electrophoresis
  • Compare to a DNA ladder to find nucleotide positions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the uses of DNA sequencing?

A

Predicting the amino acid sequence of a protein

Understanding genes and proteins used in non-communicable diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is DNA profiling?

A

A method by which people can be identified and compared via the patterns in their DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are satellites?

A

Short sequences of DNA that can be repeated up to 100s of times in the introns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are micro-satellites?

A

Short sequences of DNA between 2-6 bases long that can be repeated between 5 and 100 times in the introns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are mini-satellites?

A

Short sequences of DNA between 10-100 bases long and repeated 50-100s times in the introns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What principle is DNA profiling based on?
While everyone has satellites on the same loci on their homologous chromosomes, the number of times they are repeated differs between everyone
26
Summarise the stages of DNA profiling
``` Isolate DNA Restriction enzymes Gel electrophoresis Southern blotting Gene probes ```
27
What are restriction endonucleases?
Special enzymes that cut DNA at recognition sites on the intron sequence
28
Why are restriction endonucleases added to the DNA being profiled?
To cut around the repeating satellites and make different sized fragments which can then be separated out by gel electrophoresis
29
Summarise the stages of gel electrophoresis
DNA samples put into wells in agarose jelly with dye Known DNA samples put in for comparison Current applied -vely charged DNA attracted to the +ve anode Bands separate Shone under UV light and identified
30
Why is DNA negatively charged?
Bc of the negatively charged phosphate group
31
Why is dye added to the DNA in gel electrophoresis?
So that the DNA can be seen on the plate
32
What is the relationship between size and speed of movement of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis
Smaller fragments move faster and further
33
Explain the process of Southern blotting
Alkaline solution denatures DNA and separates it Nylon filter put on it and draws up DNA - appears as blots DNA covalently bound to filter using UV light
34
What are gene probes?
Complementary pieces of DNA which are labelled with a fluorescent molecule or radioactive isotope
35
What information can be found from the DNA profile produced in DNA profiling?
The number of microsatellites per fragment and the number of repeats
36
What are the uses of DNA profiling?
Paternity testing | Forensic science
37
What are housekeeping proteins?
Proteins found in all cells regardless of differentation
38
In what ways can you study cell differentiation?
Gel electrophoresis | Gene probes
39
How can you use gene probes to find a specific gene?
``` Specific probe is used for a specific gene Heat DNA Mix with fluorescently labelled mRNA Hybridise at complementary points Probe is labelled so it marks the genes ```
40
What are the two stages involved in the expression of a gene
Transcription | Translation
41
What are transcription factors?
Proteins that bind to DNA in the nucleus at promoter regions and control transcription. Can turn a gene on or off
42
What are promoter regions?
Areas on DNA which transcription factors bind to. Usually found right before the starting point of the gene
43
What are repressors?
Transcription factors which block transcription
44
How do enhancer sequences work?
Enhancer sequences change the structure of the chromatin of DNA which makes it easier or harder for RNA polymerase to bind
45
What is RNA splicing?
Post-transcriptional modification of mRNA
46
What happens in RNA splicing?
Introns are removed (and sometimes exons) and exons are put together
47
What are spliceosomes and what do they do?
They're enzymes which join exons together to form functional mRNA
48
How can one gene make many different proteins?
Because the exons of the gene can be joined together by the spliceosome in different ways. Means a different order of the bases so different amino acid sequence so different protein
49
What is epigenetics?
The study of changes in organisms due to modifications of gene expression rather than alteration of the genetic code
50
Name some intracellular systems which interact to control genes
DNA methylation Histone modification Non-coding mRNA
51
Name all the ways in which gene expression is controlled
``` RNA splicing Transcription factors DNA methylation Non-coding mRNA Histone modification ```
52
What is DNA methylation?
The addition of a methyl group to a DNA molecule
53
Where are methyl groups added on DNA?
Only on cytosine
54
What enzyme is needed in DNA methylation?
DNA methyltransferase
55
How does DNA methylation affect genes?
It silences the genes so they become inactive because it changes the shape of the nucleotides so transcription factors and RNA polymerase can't bind
56
What is DNA demethylation do?
Removes a methyl group from DNA and activates the gene
57
How can DNA methylation lead to disease?
Can suppress important genes such as tumour suppressor genes which leads to cancerous tumours growing.
58
What is histone acetylation?
Addition of an acetyl group to histone
59
What does histone acetylation produce?
Euchromatin - regions of chromatin with high transcriptional acitivity bc structure is loose and the chromatin is activated.
60
What does histone methylation produce?
Heterochromatin where chromatin is tightly coiled so regions have low or no transcription
61
What is non-coding RNA?
RNA transcribed from the non-coding regions of the chromosomes
62
How can ncRNA control transcription?
Coats chromosomes and deactivates it because of supercoiling which prevents transcription
63
What are stem cells?
Undifferentiated cells with the potential to develop into many different types of specialised cells from instructions in their DNA
64
What does totipotent mean?
Cells that are capable of producing every kind of adult and placental cell in the embryo
65
Give an example of totipotent cells
Embryonic stem cells
66
What does pluripotent mean?
Capable of producing almost every type of cell
67
Give an example of pluripotent cells
Stem cells found in the umbilical cord
68
What are multipotent cells?
Cells which can form a limited number of actdult cells
69
Where can adult stem cells be found?
In the tissues and organs of adults
70
What are the problems with adult stem cells?
Multipotent Found in small cells Hard to extract
71
What are the advantages of embryonic stem cells over other stem cells?
Totipotent so they can form a wide range of cells | Stay totipotent after cell division
72
What does the type of tissue a stem cell forms depend on?
The location of the stem cell
73
Describe the develop of an embryo to a somatic stem cell including what type of stem cell is formed
Embryonic stem cell (totipotent) Blastocyst stem cell (pluripotent) Fully differentiated somatic stem cell (multipotent)
74
What controls the changes that occur to stem cells?
Gene expression (controlled by epigenetic factors)
75
Give an example of epigenetic control in humans?
Turning fetal haemoglobin to adult haemoglobin by turning of the fetal globin strands and turning on the adult ones
76
Name the uses of stem cells in medicine
Stem cell therapy: new body parts and repairing damage to current body parts Therapeutic cloning
77
Why are adult stem cells used in stem cell therapy over embryonic stem cells?
Easier to control the differentiation and is less likely to lead to cancer
78
How are stem cells used to make new body parts?
Grown on either a synthetic or collagen based framework and forms body part
79
What is the advantage of using stem cells to make new body parts?
Because they're the body's own cells they won't be rejected
80
What is therapeutic cloning?
An experimental method of producing large quantities of stem cells which can be used to treat diseases caused by fault genes.
81
Describe the method of therapeutic cloning
Remove body cell nucleus Put into an ovum which has had body cell removed Apply electric shock Ovum divides and develops into embryonic stem cells SCs cultured into required cell Genetic diseases removed and cells inserted back into the patients
82
Why is an electric shock applied to the ovum in therapeutic cloning?
To fuse the nucleus and the ovum | To trigger the development of the ovum
83
What are the advantages of using stem cells in therapeutic cloning
Patient's own cells so they won't be rejected Don't need to wait for a donor Diseases can't be treated that couldn't before
84
What are the disadvantages of using stem cells in therapeutic cloning?
Experimental Can cause cancer Embryos destroyed in the process - unethical
85
What does iPSC stand for?
Induced pluripotent stem cells
86
How are iPSCs made?
Fibroblast cells had four genes coding for transcription factors put into them by a harmless retrovirus vector. Genetically engineered from multipotent to pluripotent
87
What are fibroblast cells?
Cells that are relatively unspecialised
88
What are the advantages of iPSCs?
No ethical objections bc no embryo is damaged Not rejected by body Source of pluripotent stem cells which can give rise to many cells Divide indefinitely
89
What are the disadvantages of iPSCs?
Experimental Low success rate Expensive Still a chance of becoming cancerous
90
What is genetic engineering?
Changing the genetic material of an organism by inserting genes of a different organism into it
91
What is recombinant DNA?
DNA which has been artificially made by combining constituents from different organisms
92
Describe the stages of producing recombinant DNA
- isolate the gene - insert it into the vector DNA - ligase glues it together - introduced to host cell
93
How can genes be isolated when producing recombinant DNA?
Reverse transcriptase | Restriction endonucleases
94
Explain how reverse transcriptase can be used to isolate genes
Reverses the transcription of mRNA to produce an artificial strand of cDNA
95
Explain how restriction endonucleases can be used to isolate genes
They cut DNA at specific sites, making small pieces of DNA which are easier to work with Form sticky ends which can be used to bind to the vector DNA
96
What are sticky ends and why are they needed?
Overhangs of exposed bases which are needed to form hydrogen bonds to complementary sticky ends on the vector DNA
97
Why is the vector DNA cut with the same restriction endonucleases when producing recombinant DNA?
So that it has complementary sticky ends to the sample DNA
98
What does DNA ligase do?
Sticks the sample DNA and the vector DNA together by reforming the sugar phosphate backbone
99
In what ways can you identify recombinant bacterium?
Using fluorescent markers which fluoresce under UV light | Replica plating
100
Explain the process of replica plating
Recombinant DNA is inserted into the plasmid which also carries genes for antibiotic resistance Bacteria grown on master plate in complete media Inverted and imprinted onto smooth velvet surface Imprinted onto a fresh colony Grown in different media Compare to the master plate
101
What is the function of a vector?
To artificially carry foreign genetic material into another cell where it can be transcripted and translated
102
What are the characteristics of a good vector?
Targets correct host cell No adverse side effects Ensures the DNA is transcribed
103
Name vectors that can be used to produce recombinant DNA
``` Gene guns Viruses Liposome coating Microinjection Agrobacterium ```
104
Explain how gene guns work
The DNA is coated onto a gold/tungsten pellet which is then shot at high speed into the cell
105
Explain how viruses act as vectors
Harmless virus is engineered to carry a desirable gene which is then inserted into animal cells.
106
Explain how liposome coating acts as a vector
Gene is coated in liposome so it can fuse and pass through the phospholipid bilayer and pass on DNA
107
What are liposomes?
Spheres formed from the lipid bilayer
108
How can microinjection act as a vector?
DNA can be injected into cells using a micropipette then manipulated using a micromanipulator
109
What happens in knockout organisms?
A gene is silenced and the function that is then lost is observed
110
Why do we use knockout organisms?
To identify the function of a gene (through trial and error) and to use them as models for disease bc we can test on them for cures
111
Explain how mice are used as knockout organisms
Adult mice have embryonic stem cells Modified so they're heterozygous for the gene Bred to form homologous offspring who have lost that function
112
How do you know which of the knockout mice are carrying the homozygous gene?
The silenced gene has a marker on it
113
Which diseases can we use knockout mice to study?
Cystic fibrosis Cancer Parkinson's Obesity
114
Generally, why have soya beans been genetically modified?
To improve the quality and yield of the crops Have herbicide resistance Have more oleic acid and less linoeic acid
115
Describe the method by which soya beans are genetically modified
Ti plasmid extracted from bacterium Target gene inserted into plasmid Inserted back into bacterium Plant infected. Tumour grows with cells with new gene Sample of cells taken and cultured to make whole new plants
116
What bacteria is used in the genetic modification of soya beans
Agrobacterium tumefaciens
117
What does the bacterium do in the genetic modification of soya beans?
Causes tumours called crown galls
118
Why are fatty acids altered when genetically modifying soya beans?
To stop oxidation of soya beans
119
Why do you want more oleic acid in soya beans?
Because they aren't easily oxidised | Monounsaturated
120
Why do you want less linoleic acid in soya beans?
Easily oxidised | Polyunsaturated
121
What are the main concerns with genetically modifying foods such as soya beans?
- ingesting foreign DNA - unethical bc somtimes animals are used - GM makes seeds infertile so new ones have to be used - build up of antibiotic resistance - new genes spread uncontrollably
122
What are terminator bases?
Dideoxynucleotides - hydroxyl group missing from carbon three so they stop DNA synthesis
123
Similarities between iPS cells and embryonic stem cells?
Give rise to many different type of cells | Divide indefinitely
124
Differences between iPS cells and embryonic stem cells?
iPS - adult, embryonic - younger iPS - pluripotent, embryonic - totipotent iPS - no rejection, embryonic - rejection iPS from adult cells but embryonic cells from inner mass of morula
125
How do vectors carrying recombinant DNA get taken up by cells?
Mix bacterium and vector | Applying heat treatment
126
How are DNA profiles compared?
Looking at the total number of bands Band width Position of bands