Topic 7 Flashcards

1
Q

what type of muscle is used for movement?

A

skeletal, e.g. biceps and triceps

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2
Q

what do ligaments attach?

A

bones to bones

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3
Q

what do tendons attach?

A

muscles to bones

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4
Q

what is a flexor?

A

a muscle that contracts to bend a joint

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5
Q

what is an extensor?

A

a muscle that contracts to cause the extension of a joint

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6
Q

which muscle in on the top of the arm? is it an extensor or flexor?

A

biceps- flexor

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7
Q

which muscle is on the bottom of the arm? is it an extensor or flexor?

A

triceps- extensor

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8
Q

what is a pair of muscles that work together to move a bone called?

A

an antagonistic pair

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9
Q

why do muscles need to work in pairs?

A

they can only pull (when they contract) and not push, so two muscles of opposite directions are needed to create opposite forces

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10
Q

what are skeletal muscles made of?

A

large bundles of long cells called muscle fibres

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11
Q

what is the cell membrane of a muscle fibre cell called?

A

sarcolemma

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12
Q

what is the sarcolemma?

A

the cell membrane of a muscle fibre cell

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13
Q

what is the cytoplasm of muscle fibre cells called?

A

sarcoplasm

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14
Q

what are transverse T tubules?

A

inward folds of the sarcolemma which stick into the sarcoplasm

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15
Q

what is the function of the transverse T tubules?

A

help to spread electrical impulses throughout the sarcoplasm so they reach all parts of the muscle fibre

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16
Q

what is the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

a network of internal membranes that run through the sarcoplasm in a muscle fibre cell

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17
Q

what is the function of the sarcoplasm reticulum?

A

stores and releases calcium ions that are needed for muscle contraction

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18
Q

why do muscle fibre cells have lots of mitochondria?

A

to provide the ATP that’s needed for muscle contraction

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19
Q

which type of cell are multinucleate? what does this mean?

A

muscle fibre cells- have many nuclei

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20
Q

what are muscle fibres made of?

A

long, cylindrical organelles called myofibrils

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21
Q

what are myofibrils made of?

A

proteins

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22
Q

what are myofibrils highly specialised for?

A

contraction

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23
Q

what are myofibrils made of?

A

bundles of thick or thin myofilaments that move past each other to make muscles contract

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24
Q

what are thick myofilaments made of?

A

the protein myosin

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25
Q

what are thin myofilaments made of?

A

the protein actin

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26
Q

what does myofibril look like under a microscope?

A

has alternating dark and light bands

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27
Q

what is a sarcomere?

A

a section of myofibril

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28
Q

what are the dark bands in myofibril?

A

the thick myosin filaments and some overlapping thin actin filaments (A bands)

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29
Q

what are in A bands?

A

mostly thick myosin filaments which the ends overlapping with thin actin filaments

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30
Q

what are the light bands in myofibril?

A

thin actin filaments (I bands)

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31
Q

what are in I bands?

A

thin actin filaments

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32
Q

what is a sarcomere?

A

the short units which make up myofibril

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33
Q

what are Z lines?

A

they mark the end of each sarcomere, sarcomeres are joined lengthways at their Z lines

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34
Q

what is the M line?

A

marks the Middle of the sarcomere, is always in the Middle of the Myosin filament

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35
Q

what is the H zone?

A

the zones in the middle of the sarcomere- only contains myosin filaments

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36
Q

what is the theory which explains muscle contraction?

A

sliding filament theory

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37
Q

what fundamentally happens during contraction?

A

actin and myosin filaments slide over each other to shorten the sarcomere

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38
Q

during muscle contraction which zones/bands shorten and which stay the same length?

A

H-zone and I-band shorten
A bands stay the same length

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39
Q

what 3 things shorten during contraction?

A

sarcomeres, myofibrils and muscle fibres

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40
Q

what are the 9 features of the knee?

A

tendon, muscle, ligament, synovial membrane, synovial fluid, fibrous capsule, bone, pad of cartilage, cartilage

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41
Q

what is the function of the synovial membrane?

A

secretes synovial fluid

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42
Q

what is the function of the synovial fluid?

A

acts as a lubricant

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43
Q

what is the function of the pad of cartilage?

A

gives additional protection

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44
Q

what is the function of cartilage?

A

absorbs synovial fluid, acts as shock of absorber

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45
Q

what is the function of the fibrous capsule?

A

encloses joints

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46
Q

define tropomyosin

A

an actin-binding protein which regulates muscle contraction

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47
Q

define troponin

A

a complex of three proteins, attached to tropomyosin

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48
Q

what is the resting state of a muscle?

A

tropomyosin blocks binding site on actin

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49
Q

what is the first step of muscle contraction?

A

action potential reaches neuromuscular junction and depolarises sarcolemma and sarcoplasmic reticulum

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50
Q

what happens after the sarcoplasmic reticulum is depolarised?

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions which bind to troponin

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51
Q

what happens when the calcium ions bind to troponin?

A

troponin changes shape which causes tropomyosin to move so the myosin binding sites (on the actin) are exposed

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52
Q

what happens once the myosin binding sites are exposed?

A

the myosin heads can bind to binding site on actin
actin-myosin cross bridge forms

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53
Q

what happens after the actin-myosin cross bridge forms?

A

the myosin head nods forward causing the actin filaments to slide over the myosin filaments and the sarcomere shortens

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54
Q

what happens after the sarcomere shortens?

A

ATPase in myosin head hydrolyses ATP and head moves back to original position- breaking cross bridge

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55
Q

what is the final stage of muscle contraction?

A

myosin head reattaches to a different binding site further along the actin filament

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56
Q

what is the equation for respiration?

A

glucose+oxygen -> carbon dioxide + water

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57
Q

what is the overall reaction for aerobic respiration?

A

the splitting of glucose to release carbon dioxide as a waste product, and reuniting hydrogen with oxygen with the release of a large amount of oxygen

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58
Q

what are the 2 types of respiration?

A

aerobic and anaerobic

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59
Q

what are the stages in aerobic respiration?

A

glycolysis, link reaction, Krebs cycle, oxidative phosphorylation

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60
Q

where does the link reaction occur?

A

the matrix of the mitochondria

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61
Q

where does glycolysis occur?

A

the cytoplasm

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62
Q

where does the Krebs cycle occur?

A

the matrix of the mitochondria

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63
Q

where does oxidative phosphorylation occur?

A

between the matrix and the inter-membrane space

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64
Q

how many ATP are made in aerobic respiration?

A

38 total ATP

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65
Q

what is involved in glycolysis?

A

the splitting of glucose

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66
Q

what are the 2 stages of glycolysis?

A

phosphorylation and oxidation

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67
Q

what is produced in glycolysis?

A

2x pyruvate, 2x ATP (net gain), 2x NADH

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68
Q

what 2 things are needed for the link reaction?

A

pyruvate and co enzyme A

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69
Q

what is produced in the link reaction? (per pyruvate not per glucose)

A

carbon dioxide, acetyl coA, and NADH

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70
Q

what is needed for the Krebs cycle?

A

acetyl coA

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71
Q

what is produced by the Krebs cycle? (per cycle not per glucose)

A

2x carbon dioxide, 3x NADH, FADH, ATP

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72
Q

where do the H atoms come from in oxidative phosphorylation?

A

they are released as the coenzymes are oxidised

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73
Q

where do the electrons go in oxidative phosphorylation?

A

move down ETC

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74
Q

where do the H+ ions get pumped in oxidative phosphorylation?

A

from the matrix into the inter-membrane space of the mitochondrion

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75
Q

what process occurs during oxidative phosphorylation?

A

chemiosmosis

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76
Q

what is the final electron acceptor in oxidative phosphorylation (aerobic respiration)?

A

oxygen

77
Q

what is the final product of oxidative phosphorylation?

A

water

78
Q

what are the stages of anaerobic respiration?

A

glycolysis and lactate fermentation

79
Q

does aerobic respiration need oxygen?

A

yes

80
Q

does anaerobic respiration need oxygen?

A

no

81
Q

what is needed for lactate fermentation?

A

pyruvate

82
Q

what is made in lactate fermentation?

A

lactate/ lactic acid

83
Q

what can lactate be converted into in lactate fermentation?

A

cells can convert into pyruvate and liver cells can convert into glucose

84
Q

why can anaerobic continue?

A

because the NAD needed for glycolysis is produced in lactate fermentation from the NADH produced in glycolysis

85
Q

which type of muscle fibre uses aerobic respiration?

A

slow twitch

86
Q

which type of muscle fibre uses anaerobic respiration?

A

fast twitch

87
Q

which type of muscle fibre has lots of miochondria?

A

slow twitch

88
Q

which type of muscle fibre has few mitochondria?

A

fast twitch

89
Q

which type of muscle fibre contract quickly?

A

fast twitch

90
Q

which type of muscle fibre contract slowly?

A

slow twitch

91
Q

which type of muscle fibre is tired more quickly?

A

fast twitch

92
Q

where are slow twitch muscle fibres found?

A

in back and posture muscles

93
Q

where are fast twitch muscle fibres found?

A

in eye and leg muscles

94
Q

what activities are fast twitch fibres adapted for?

A

short bursts of speed and power- sprint

95
Q

what activities are slow twitch fibres adapted for?

A

endurance activities- marathon

96
Q

which type of muscle fibre has high blood supply?

A

slow twitch fibres

97
Q

what colour are fast twitch muscle fibres?why?

A

white as low levels of myoglobin (protein which stores oxygen)

98
Q

what colour are slow twitch muscle fibres? why?

A

red as rich in myoglobin (protein which stores oxygen)

99
Q

why does rate of aerobic respiration increase during exercise?

A

your muscles contract more frequently which means they require more energy

100
Q

how does the body respond to exercise?

A

breathing rate and depth increase to obtain more oxygen and remove more carbon dioxide
heart rate increases to increase rate of blood flow to deliver oxygen and remove carbon dioxide from respiring muscle cells

101
Q

what controls breathing rate?

A

the medulla oblongata contains two ventilation centres

102
Q

what are the 2 ventilation centres in the medulla oblongata?

A

the inspiratory centre and the expiratory centre

103
Q

how does breathing rate increase?

A

the inspiratory centre sends impulses to the external intercostal and diaphragm muscles to make them contract and to inhibit the expiratory centre
this increases volume and decreases pressure in the lungs
air enters the lungs due to pressure in the lungs being lower than in the air
this stimulates stretch receptors

104
Q

how does breathing rate decrease?

A

the stimulated stretch receptors send nerve impulses to the medulla oblongata which inhibits the inspiratory centre
the expiratory centre (no longer inhibited) sends impulses to relax the diagram and intercostal muscles
lungs deflate and expel air
stretch receptors become inactive and inspiratory centre in no longer inhibited (cycle starts again)

105
Q

what type of receptor detects changes in blood pH?

A

chemoreceptors

106
Q

why does the pH of the blood decrease during exercise?

A

carbon dioxide dissolves in the blood plasma and forms carbonic acid which dissociates into hydrogen and hydrogen carbonate ions

107
Q

what happens after the chemoreceptors detect a decrease in pH?

A

impulse sent to medulla oblongata which sends more frequent impulses to the intercostal muscles and diagram. increasing depth and rate of breathing

108
Q

where are chemoreceptors found?

A

in the medulla oblongata, aorta, and carotid arteries

109
Q

define minute ventilation

A

the amount of air that enters the lungs per minute

110
Q

define inspiration

A

the process of taking in oxygen rich air

111
Q

define expiration

A

the process of expelling air from the lungs

112
Q

define spirometer

A

an apparatus for measuring the volume of air inspired and expired by the lungs

113
Q

define residual volume

A

the small amount of air always retained in the lungs

114
Q

define breathing rate

A

the number of breaths in one minute

115
Q

define tidal volume

A

the amount of air that moves in or out during inspiration or expiration

116
Q

define oxygen consumption

A

the amount of oxygen taken in, in one minute

117
Q

define vital capacity

A

the maximum air which can be exhaled from the lungs

118
Q

define total lung capacity

A

the maximum amount of air the lungs can hold (including residual air)

119
Q

what has to be considered when selecting candidates for spirometry?

A

whether the candidate is healthy or meets criteria (age, health, gender)

120
Q

what 3 points have to be included in a spirometry method?

A

soda lime to absorb carbon dioxide for health reasons
nose clip to ensure all air exhaled and inhaled goes through the spirometer
equipment sterilised between candidates to prevent spread of bacteria/viruses

121
Q

what are the symptoms of altitude sickness?

A

breathing rate increases, headaches, blue lips, dizziness, feeling faint, hyperventilation, hypoventilation

122
Q

why does altitude sickness occur?

A

as altitude increases, oxygen levels decrease

123
Q

what are the 5 warming mechanisms?

A

vasoconstriction, boosting metabolic rate, shivering, hairs, less sweating

124
Q

how does vasoconstriction increase body temp?

A

in the arterioles near the skin, the walls constrict minimising the heat radiated to the surroundings, blood passes further under the skin

125
Q

how does boosting metabolic rate increase body temp?

A

most metabolic reactions are exothermic and so give out energy. thyroxine and adrenaline increase metabolic reactions

126
Q

how does shivering increase body temp?

A

the muscles are effectors which rapidly contract providing heat

127
Q

how do hairs increase body temp?

A

the erector pili muscles contract- causing hairs to stand, this forms an insulating layer of air around the skin

128
Q

how does less sweating increase body temp?

A

sweat glands produce less sweat, less heat lost through evaporation

129
Q

what are the 3 cooling mechanisms?

A

vasodilation, sweating, flattening of hairs

130
Q

how does vasodilation decrease body temp?

A

arterioles near the skin dilate, increasing the amount of heat radiated to the surroundings

131
Q

how does sweating decrease body temp?

A

this cools the skin via evaporation, as energy is lost with the water as it turns from liquid to a gas

132
Q

how does the flattening of hairs decrease body temp?

A

the erector muscles in the skin relax, muscles act as effectors, stops hairs forming a layer of insulation

133
Q

what is hyperthermic?

A

37 + (too hot)

134
Q

what is hypothermic?

A

less than 37 (too cold)

135
Q

why is hyperthermia worse than hypothermia?

A

hypothermia- the enzymes slow down due to lack of energy (could be recoverable)
hyperthermia- enzymes denature- not recoverable

136
Q

which tissue is myogenic?

A

cardiac muscle

137
Q

define myogenic

A

can beat without external stimulus

138
Q

what is the normal heart rate?

A

60bpm

139
Q

what is the SAN?

A

sinoatrial node- a group of cells in the wall of the right atrium which generates electrical impulses

140
Q

where is the non-conducting tissue in the heart?

A

between the bottom of the atria, and the top of the ventricles

141
Q

why is there a slight delay in the conduction of the heart?

A

the impulse cannot directly pass from the atria to the ventricles due to non-conducting tissue

142
Q

what does the delay in the conduction of the heart allow?

A

time for the atria to complete contraction and the ventricles to fill with blood

143
Q

what is the AVN?

A

atrioventricular node- a region of conducting tissue between the right atrium and right ventricle

144
Q

where is the bundle of His and what is it made of?

A

in the septum of the heart, purkyne fibres

145
Q

where do the ventricles contract from?

A

the apex/ bottom of the heart upwards

146
Q

what are the 4 features of an electrocardiogram?

A

P wave, QRS complex, T wave, U wave

147
Q

what causes the P wave on an ECG?

A

depolarisation of the atria

148
Q

what causes the QRS complex on an ECG?

A

the depolarisation of the ventricles

149
Q

why is the QRS complex the largest on an ECG?

A

ventricles have the largest muscles mass and so greater amount of electricity needed to depolarise

150
Q

what causes the T wave on an ECG?

A

the repolarisation of the ventricles

151
Q

what causes the U wave on an ECG?

A

scientists are unsure but may be the repolarisation of the Purkyne fibres

152
Q

why is the repolarisation of the atria not shown on an ECG?

A

it occurs at the same time as the depolarisation of the ventricles and is smaller than the QRS complex

153
Q

what is tachycardia?

A

when the heart beats too fast- resting heart rate 100+ bmp

154
Q

what is bradycardia?

A

when the heart beats too slow- resting heart rate less then 60bpm

155
Q

what is arrhythmia?

A

when the heart beats irregularly

156
Q

define cardiac output

A

the volume of blood that is pumped by the heart (left and right ventricles) in one min (cm cubed per min)

157
Q

define stroke volume

A

the volume of blood pumped out of the left ventricle during one cardiac cycle (cm cubed)

158
Q

what is the equation for cardiac output?

A

cardiac output= heart rate x stroke volume

159
Q

what are the 5 impacts of lots of exercise?

A

suppression of immune system
healthy weight maintenance
reduced blood pressure
improves wellbeing
wear and tear on joints

160
Q

what are the 2 disadvantages of too much exercise?

A

suppression of immune system
wear and tear on joints

161
Q

what are the 4 reasons why athletes have a higher risk of upper respiratory track infections?

A

lots of people in close proximity
travel- more likely to come into contact with pathogens
more cortisol and adrenaline which reduces inflammatory response and antibody production
lowers activity and production of T killer cells

162
Q

how does too much exercise suppress the immune system?

A

higher levels of cortisol and adrenaline which reduces inflammatory response and antibody production
lowers activity and production of ‘natural’ killer cells

163
Q

where are thermoreceptors found?

A

in the hypothalamus

164
Q

what are the 8 features of the endocrine system?

A

testes, ovaries, pancreas, adrenal gland, parathyroid, thyroid gland, pituitary gland, hypothalamus

165
Q

what is the role of the pancreas?

A

regulates blood sugar by secreting insulin and glucagon

166
Q

what is the role of the adrenal gland?

A

help to trigger the fight or flight response by secreting adrenaline and cortisol

167
Q

what is the role of the testes?

A

secretes male sex hormones (testosterone)

168
Q

what is the role of the ovaries?

A

secretes female sex hormones (oestrogen and progesterone)

169
Q

what is the role of the parathyroid?

A

to help regulate the level of calcium in the blood

170
Q

what is the role of the thyroid gland?

A

regulates metabolism by secreting thyroxine

171
Q

what is the role of of the pituitary gland?

A

secretes many hormones including LH and FSH

172
Q

what is the role of the hypothalamus?

A

contains thermoregulatory centre

173
Q

what are the 2 types of hormone?

A

peptide and steroid

174
Q

which type of hormone cannot cross the cell membrane?- why?

A

peptide- due to lack of charge

175
Q

how do hormones which can cross the cell membrane cause an effect?

A

hormones enter cell, enter nucleus, bind to transcription factors

176
Q

how do hormones which cannot cross the cell membrane cause an effect?

A

bind to receptors on the membrane, activates second messengers in the cytoplasm, these molecules activate enzymes called protein kinases, causes a cascade of reactions, cascade results in change in activity of transcription factors affecting gene expression

177
Q

give an example of a hormone which can cross the cell membrane

A

thyroxine- regulates body temperature by changing metabolic rate

178
Q

what is doping?

A

using drugs to enhance performance

179
Q

what is the WADA?

A

world anti-doping agency

180
Q

what is the advantage of blood doping?

A

more blood, more haemoglobin, more oxygen transportation

181
Q

what is the advantage of human growth hormone?

A

increase of muscle mass and bone density

182
Q

what is the advantage of insulin?

A

increases blood glucose levels for more respiration

183
Q

what is an exocrine gland?

A

secretes hormones into a duct not directly into the blood

184
Q

what is an endocrine gland?

A

secrets hormones directly into the blood

185
Q

why don’t all hormones effect every cell?

A

hormones only affect the target organs with that target cells which have the target receptors (so localised effect caused)

186
Q

what are the stages of treatment for a joint injury?

A
  1. RICE (rest, ice, compress, elevate) and take anti-inflammatory painkillers (ibuprofen)
  2. surgical repair
187
Q

what are the benefits of key-hole surgery?

A

lower risk of infection, shorter recovery time, shorter stay in hospital

188
Q

what are the 2 types of prosthesis?

A

articulated (with joints) or non-articulated (no joints/only knee)