Topic 3 Flashcards

1
Q

In which part of an animal cell does aerobic respiration take place?

A

Mitochondrion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the function of a flagellum in a bacterial cell?

A

To allow motility
Moves the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In which part of an animal cell will you find cristae?

A

Mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which part of an animal cell controls what substances enter and leave the cell?

A

Cell surface membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where does protein synthesis take place in a prokaryotic cell?

A

Ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In which part of an animal cell is the majority of the ATP produced?

A

Mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name the fluid inside a mitochondrion

A

Stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which two animal cell organelles have a double membrane?

A

Mitochondria
Nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is found inside a lysosome?

A

Digestive (hydrolytic) enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which part of an animal cell helps to form the spindle for cell division?

A

Centrioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the function of the Golgi Apparatus?

A
  • modify proteins
  • sort and package proteins for transport
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where is an animal cell does transcription take place?

A

Nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which part of the cell is made of rRNA?

A

Ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

At which part of a cell does endocytosis take place?

A

Cell surface membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where in the cell is oxygen used up in a chemical reaction?

A

Mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In which 2 parts of an animal cell would you find membranes called cisternae?

A

ER
Golgi apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In which part of a mucus producing cell would you find the CFTR protein?

A

Cell surface membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where in a cell does translation take place?

A

Ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Does a prokaryotic cell contain cytoplasm?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where in an animal cell are chromosomes found?

A

The nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the function of pili in a prokaryotic cell?

A

Adhesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the only part of an animal cell which is not found in a plant cell?

A

Centrioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which three parts of a plant cell are not found in an animal cell?

A
  • Cellulose cell wall
  • chloroplasts
  • permanent vacuole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where exactly in an animal cell does a polypeptide chain fold into a protein?

A

Lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the function of the slime layer in a prokaryotic cell?

A

Prevents dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where is an animal cell in mRNA produced?

A

Nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where in an animal cell are lipids synthesised?

A

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which part of an animal cell contains hydrolytic enzymes?

A

Lysosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Where is the DNA found in a prokaryotic cell?

A

Cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where are polypeptides made in an animal cell?

A

Ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

State ways that proteins can be modified in an animal cell

A
  • have a prosthetic group added
    Eg carbohydrate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which is the largest organelle in an animal cell?

A

Nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Is the DNA in a prokaryotic cell associated with his tone proteins?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Are the chromosomes in an animal cell linear or circular?

A

Linear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where in an animal cell are tRNA molecules found?

A

Cytoplasm and ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the difference between ribosomes in a prokaryotic cell and ribosomes in a eukaryotic cell?

A

Prokaryotic have smaller 70s ribosomes whereas eukaryotic have larger 80s ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How do proteins move from the rER to the Golgi apparatus?

A

ER Transport vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

By which process do extracellular enzymes leave the cell?

A

Exocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A nucleus drawn on paper measures 3mm, but its actual size in the cell is 6um. Work out the magnification of the drawing

A

3000/6 = x500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the function of the nucleolus in an animal cell?

A

The make rRNA for ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Is the prokaryotic mesosome a part of the cell?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How many subunits is a ribosome made of?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Where is chromatic found?

A

The nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Name the parts of a nucleus

A

Nuclear envelope
Nucleoplasm
Nuclear pores
Nucleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the overall process of making a functional protein?

A
  • gene on DNA
  • transcription, mRNA leaves nucleus
  • translation
    -polypeptide chain released from ribosome and enters rER
  • protein folded into secondary and tertiary structures as it moves through the lumen
  • transport vesicles are produced by rER
  • proteins packaged into vesicle
  • protein released from cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Describe the role of the golgi apparatus and rER in the formation of an extracellular enzyme

A
  • amino acids are joined together to form a polypeptide chain on a ribosome attached to the rER
  • the polypeptide passes through the cisternae membrane and into the lumen of the rER where the polypeptide folds into its 3d shape
  • rER packages proteins into ER vesicles which transport the protein to golgi apparatus
  • ER vesicles fuse with golgi apparatus membrane to become part of the golgi apparatus
  • protein enters the GA and is modified as protein moves through the GA
  • The proteins are packaged into a golgi secretory vesicle for transport through the cell cytoplam
  • The vesicle moves to the cell surface membrane, fuses with it and the proteins exit via exocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What cell organelles can be found in a prokaryotic cell?

A
  • cell wall
  • capsule
  • plasmid
  • flagellum
  • pili
  • ribosome 70s
  • mesosomes
  • circular DNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a prokaryotic cell wall made of?

A

peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the function of the capsue?

A
  • protection
  • prevents dehydration
  • prevent enzyme digestion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does the flagellum allow the cell to be?

A

motile
- able to move itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the function of pili?

A

thin protein tubes, may be hollow
- allow for adhesion
- hollow to share plasmids - conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Define ultrastructure

A

can see using an electron microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

List the organelles found in an animal cell

A
  • nucleus
  • nucleolus
    -rER
  • sER
  • ribosomes 80s
  • mitochandria
  • centrioles
  • golgi apparatus
  • lysosomes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What cells ae centrioles found in?

A

only animal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the DNA in animal cells?

A

linear, associated with histone proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

If one cell divides by meiosis, how many daughter cells are made?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

State the function of the sperm flagellum

A

to move the sperm to the egg in order for fertilisation. allow for motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the name given to a fertilised egg?

A

zygote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the role of meiosis?

A

Maintains genetic consistency at fertilisation
produces haploid nuclei for gametes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

why does a sperm cell have a larger number of mitochondria than other animal cells?

A

Sperm cells need a lot of ATP available so that they can swim to the egg for fertilisation
move the flagellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Does a ovum contain mitochondria?

A

Yes lots of it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Where would you find an acrosome?

A

in the head of a sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

is an ovum diploid or haploid?

A

haploid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

if a dog sperm cell nucleus contains 16 chromosomes, how many chromosomes would be found in a dog nerve cell nucleus?

A

32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which part of an animal cell helps to form the spindle for meiosis?

A

centrioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is released from the acrosome?

A

digestive (hydrolytic) enzymes to break down the zona pellucida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Why does a human ovum need a large amount of cytoplasm?

A

To have lots of nutrient for embryonic development
energy for cell division
contains lipid droplets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

When does the zona pellucida of the ovum thicken?

A

in the cortical reaction, once a sperm nucleus had fuses with the cell membrane
after one sperm has entered the ovum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

why does the ovum need to thicken?

A

to prevent polyspermy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Does an ovum contain golgi apparatus?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Where in a sperm cell are mitochondria found?

A

in the body/middle peice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Why is it important that a sperm cell is haploid?

A

to maintain (diploid number ) genetic consistency upon fertilisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Why does an ovum need to contain lipid droplets?

A

to provide nutrients for embryonic development/cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the function of cortical granules?

A

They contain enzymes which start the cortical reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How many chromosomes are present in a human zygote?

A

23 pairs
46

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are homologous chromosomes?

A

chromosomes in a pair, have the same locus
Chromosomes with centromere in same position, same length, alleles in same position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

In the first division of meiosis, how do the chromosomes line up on the cell equator?

A

in homologous pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is separated during the second division of meiosis?

A

sister chromatids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is a chiasma?

A

the place where chromosomes cross over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is independent assortment of chromosomes?

A

chromosome pair line up randomly along the equator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Describe crossing over

A

genes on one chromosome swap with the gene at the same locus on another chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

State the ways that genetic variation can arise in meiosis?

A
  • crossing over
  • independent assortment of chromosomes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which part of a sperm cell contains hydrolytic enzymes?

A

the acrosome
acrosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which part of an ovum makes the lipids that make up the lipid droplets?

A

the sEr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Name the cell division that produces gametes

A

meiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the advantage of an ovum being many times larger than a sperm cell?

A

larger target
more cytoplasm to contain lipid droplets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the advantage of millions of sperm being released during sexual intercourse?

A

higher chance of survival and therefore fertilisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Does a human ovum contain 70s or 80s ribosomes?

A

80s ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the purpose of the acrosome reaction?

A

to break down the zona pellucida
- allow sperm to penetrate and enter ovum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

How does genetic variation arise in fertilisation?

A

fertilisation is random

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the purpose of the cortical reaction?

A

prevent polyspermy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are released by the ovum to trigger the stat of the acrosome reaction?

A

chemokines released by follicle cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

By which transport process do hydrolytic enzymes leave a sperm cell?

A

exocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Which metal ions are involved in the acrosome reaction?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What do cortical granules contain?

A

enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

How many chromosomes are found in a human ovum?

A

23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is polyspermy?

A

when more than one sperm reach and fertilise the egg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

State the differences between the structure of a sperm and an ovum

A
  • sperm have flagellum, ovum does not
  • ovum has the rest of the cell organelles, sperm only have acrosome, mitochondria, flagellum and nucleus
  • and egg has follicle cells and a zona pellucida
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

explain the importance of fertilisation?

A

sexual reproduction
return to 46 chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Describe the process of fertilisation

A
  • sperm reach the ovum, attracted by chemokines from follicle cells
  • sperm come into contact with follicle cells which triggers the acrosome reaction
  • the acrosome swells, its membrane fuses with the sperm cell membrane
  • digestive enzymes (acrosin) int he acrosome is released
  • the enzymes digest through the follicle cells
  • the enzymes digest the zona pellucida surrounding the ovum
  • receptors on the head of the sperm bind to the ovum vell surface membrane. the sperm membrane fuses with the ovum membrane
  • the sperm nucleus enters the ovum
  • cortical granules fuse with ovu cell membrane and release digestive enzymes by exocytosis
  • ths thickens and hardens the zona pellucida the prevent entry of any other sperm(polyspermy)
  • the nuclei of ovum and sperm fuse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are gametes?

A

highly specialised cells, 1n, sex cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Define haploid

A

half the number of chromosome found in a somatic cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What type of division in meiosis?

A

Nuclear or reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Meiosis creates _________ among offspring

A

genetic variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

describe the process of meiosis

A

-before division occurs each chromosome replicates to become a replicated chromosome, made of two sister chromatids that are genetically identical
- crossing over occurs
- homologous replicated chromosome pairs line up (independent assortment of chromosomes) an separate
- chromatid then separate
- gametes are formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

define stem cell

A

an undifferentiatd cell that can give rise to specialised cells, has no hayflicks limit, capable of self renewal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Define totipotent stem cell

A

a stem cell that can give rise to all cell types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Which type of stem cells can be taken bone marrow found inside bones?

A

multipotent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what would be the absolutist ethical view on using embryonic stem cells in research?

A

stem cells should not be used
Under no circumstances should embryos be used as a source of stem cells for research. No medical advances are worth the moral evil/murder of using embryonic tissue

  • or fine in all circumstances
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

State the risks/problems of injecting stem cells from donor into a human patient

A
  • risk of rejection
  • risk of cancer
  • can lead to infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What would the utilitarian ethical view be on using embryonic stem cells in research?

A

If the benefits of the research outweigh the cost of collecting the embryos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Where in a blastocyst would you find pluripotent stem cells?

A

the inner cell mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Can a pluripotent stem cell give rise to embryonic stem cells?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

what happens to some genes in a stem cell for it to become specialised?

A

they become active or inactive
- switched on or off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Where do the embryos come from that are used in stem cell research?

A

IVF clinics, donors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

State some medical uses of stem cells.

A
  • repair tissue
  • replace cells
  • make new organs/tissue
  • cure diseases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

define pluripotent stem cell

A

a stem cell that can give rise to most types of cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

what is unusual about the limits of division for stem cells?

A

there are none

117
Q

Does an 8 cell embryo contain totipotent or pluripotent stem cells?

A

totipotent

118
Q

What are the problems when trying to extract multipotent stem cells from the body?

A

they are hard and painful to access
difficult to locate and extract without causing damage

119
Q

explain how stem cells can be used to produce new skin tissue for a skin graft

A

skin stem cells are grown on a agar dish until a large enough tissue has been made

  • Spare IVF embryos grown to form blastocyst, pluripotent stem cells extracted from inner cell mass, stem cells cultured in the lab to form more identical cells/ tissue/an organ
120
Q

what are the problems with traditional transplants? How are these problems overcome?

A
  • the is a risk of rejection and therefore immunosuppressants must be taken for the rest of the patients life
121
Q

If an IVF embryo is used to create new nerve tissue, what problem will arise when this is placed in another persons body?

A

the body may reject it as this is not their DNA
- shortage of organs

122
Q

Can a pluripotent stem cell give rise to extra embryonic stem cells?

123
Q

Can a totipotent stem cell give rise to extra embryonic stem cells?

124
Q

Why is producing skin tissue for a skin graft better done using therapeutic cloning rather than using an IVF embryo?

A

therapeutic cloning will result in a skin graft containing the same DNA as the patient so wont be rejected

125
Q

Why are embryonic stem cells more useful then adult multipotent stem cells?

A

they can give rise to more cell types

126
Q

Why is it important that stem cell regulatory authorities listen to both scientists and patients when deciding whether embryonic stem cells should be used for research into Parkinson’s disease?

A

To be ethical
- Scientists involved in embryo research - fully understand the science / recognise what is possible
People not involved in embryo research - give a {balanced /alternative e.g. religious /wider} view eg. patients living with the disease could describe the effects/suffering

127
Q

Outline the role of the regulatory authorities in making decisions about stem cell research

A

HFEA
- decide on max age of embryo allowed for research, set or consider ethical aspects /judge what is acceptable, check that source of stem cells is acceptable, prevent cloning (of humans), stop unnecessary repeating of research

128
Q

What are the uses of stem cells in medical therapies?

A
  • inject into bod to give rise to specialised cell types in order to replace dead/damaged cells and repair damaged tissue
    – produce tissues or organs for transplant
  • treat a wide range of diseases caused by faulty or damaged cells
  • used in drug testing and research
129
Q

What is the process of therapeutic cloning?

A
  • nucleus of egg cell removed
  • nucleus from chosen diploid somatic cell is placed in the egg cell
  • using electric stimulus the cell divides by mitosis to produce a blastocyst
  • pluripotent cells are removed and encouraged to develop into tissue/organs
130
Q

What does HFEA stand for?

A

Human Fertilisation and Embryology Authority

131
Q

What are the roles of the HFEA?

A
  • decide maximum age of an embryo allowed to n=be used for research
  • consider ethical issues
  • check that the source of stem cells is acceptable
  • stop human cloning
  • stop unnecessary repeating of research
  • to ensure research institutions have a licence
132
Q

What are the disadvantages of iPS?

A
  • difficult to create
  • difficult to control differentiation, may lead to cancer
133
Q

what can a plant tissue culture be used for?

A
  • improve plant and crop species
  • produce increased quantities of plant chemical found in drugs
  • produce commercial plants that are difficult to grow from seed , orchids
  • conserve endangered plant species
134
Q

describe the process of a plant tissue culture

A
  • explants are placed on an agar medium with nutrients and growth regulators
  • cell divides to form a callus, mass of undifferentiated cells
  • callus is made to differentiate into small groups of cells (plant embryos) by growth regulators
  • embryos develop into complete plants that are genetically identical
135
Q

If one cell divides by mitosis, how many daughter cells are made?

136
Q

State the processes of prophase

A
  • chromosomes condense
  • centrioles move to opposite poles of the cell
  • the spindle forms, ready to attach to the chromosomes
  • the nucleolus and nuclear envelope breaks down
137
Q

State the importance of mitosis

A
  • maintains genetic consistency by creating diploid nuclei
  • allows for growth of multicellular organisms and repair
  • increase cell number
  • asexual reproduction, produce genetically identical cells
138
Q

Explain the differences between cytokinesis in an animal cell compared to a plant cell

A

Animal cell splits using the contraction of a ring protein filaments to constrict cell membrane
- plants forms a cell plate down the middle of the cell

139
Q

Does mitosis produce genetically identical cells?

140
Q

State the role of the chromosome centromere in mitosis

A

this is where the spindle fibres attach in order to pull the chromatids apart

141
Q

Explain the role of the spindle in mitosis

A

to pull apart the chromatids to opposite poles of the cell, attaches to chromosomes via centromeres

142
Q

Name the four stages of mitosis in order

A
  • Prophase, prepare
  • Metaphase, meet
  • Anaphase, apart
  • Telophase, two
    PMAT
143
Q

Which part of an animal cell helps to form the spindle for mitosis?

A

centrioles

144
Q

In which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell?

145
Q

Explain what happens in anaphase of mitosis

A
  • spindle attaches to centromere
  • spindle shortens, pulling chromatids to opposite poles of the cell
146
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place?

A

in interphase, S phase

147
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle do cells not have visible chromosomes?

A

interphase

148
Q

wat divides in cytokinesis?

A

the cytoplasm

149
Q

What are the stages of the cell cycle in order?

A
  • interphase
    -Growth 1
    -S phase
    -Growth 2
  • mitosis
    -prophase
    -metaphase
    -anaphase
    -telophase
  • cytokinesis
150
Q

In which stage of mitosis do the chromatids separate?

151
Q

How would you recognisee a cell in telophase of mitosis?

A
  • there are two nuclei
152
Q

Wat happens to the DNA content of a cell during S phase of the cell cycle? Why?

A

it doubles as the DNA is replicated, when cell divides the diploid number with be maintained

153
Q

Is the nuclear envelope present in anaphase of mitosis?

154
Q

In which stage of mitosis do chromosomes condense?

155
Q

How exactly do spindle fibres pull chromatids apart?

A

By shortening and contracting

156
Q

when a chromosome lines up on the equator in mitosis, are its two chromatids identical or different?

157
Q

What happens in the G1 phase of interphase?

A

The cell grows larger and new organelles are made. Enzymes for DNA replication are made

158
Q

How many nuclei reform in a cell in telophase of mitosis?

159
Q

name an organism which reproduces asexually by mitosis

A

plants
-Bacteria (by fission), yeast (by budding), fungi (by spores), some plants eg. strawberry plants (by vegetative propagation), annelids (by fragmentation)

160
Q

During which stage of mitosis do spindle fibres shorten?

161
Q

During which stage of mitosis do chromosomes start to uncoil?

162
Q

What happens in the G2 phase of the cell cycle?

A

cell organelles double
-Cell growth, protein synthesis to make spindle proteins, chromosomes start to condense

163
Q

explain how to calculate the miotic index

A

Add up the total number of cells that are in prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase (so in mitosis) – any cell with visible chromosomes, so don’t include any cells in interphase

Divide this number by the total number of cells that can be seen

164
Q

Where in a plant root cell would cells be actively dividing by mitosis?

165
Q

If a cell is not in mitosis what stage of the cell cycle must it be in?

A

interphase

166
Q

name the type of cell division involved when a zygote divides into 2 cells?

167
Q

How many divisions of mitosis must take place before a cell can be taken from an embryo for preimplantation genetic diagnosis?

A

3 as 8 cell embryo needed, one cell is removed and screened

168
Q

One cell went through many cycles of division by mitosis. when 128 cells have been produced, how many divisions have taken place?

169
Q

Which two stages of mitosis require a spindle?

A
  • anaphase
  • metaphase
170
Q

describe what happens in mataphase

A
  • chromosomes attach to spindle fibres by their centromere
  • line up along the equator of the cell
171
Q

describe the process of telophase

A
  • chromosomes unravel
  • nuclear envelope forms around each group of chromosomes
  • two nucleolus’ reform
  • spindle fibres break down
172
Q

How do the chromosomes condense?

A
  • DNA and histone proteins coil to form chromatin fibre
  • chromatin fibre attaches to a protein scaffold, forming loops
  • folding the protein scaffold produces the condensed chromosomes
173
Q

What is used in cytokinesis in animal cells to split the cytoplasm?

A
  • microtubules
  • protein filaments
174
Q

Define mitosis

A

Nuclear division resulting in 2 identical diploid nuclei produce from one parent diploid nucleus

177
Q

Define gene expression

A

When a gene is used to make mRNA and then gene products (usually proteins)

178
Q

What is needed to trigger differential gene expression?

A

A chemical stimulus

179
Q

State another term for ‘switching off’ a gene

A

inactivation

180
Q

State another term for ‘switching on’ a gene

A

activation

181
Q

Which two molecule must bind to a gene to switch it on?

A
  • transcription factors
  • RNA polymerase
182
Q

Which molecule can bind to a gene to switch it off?

A

a repressor molecule

183
Q

Which enzyme is needed for transcription?

A

RNA polymerase

184
Q

Which molecule is produced when a gene is transcribed?

185
Q

What type of stimulus is needed to trigger cell specialisation?

A

a chemical stimulus

186
Q

Where does RNA polymerase bind to DNA?

A

the promotor region

187
Q

What is a transcription factor?

A

a molecule that must bind to the promotor region in order for RNA polymerase to bind and transcription to happen

188
Q

State the two places where the protein repressor can bind to keep a gene switched off

A
  • the promotor region
  • the transcription factors
189
Q

State the four things needed for transcription to take place

A
  • transcription factors
  • RNA polymerase
  • DNA strand
  • mRNA mononucleutides
190
Q

Which DNA strand acts as the template strand fro transcription?

191
Q

Which two molecules bind to the promotor region of DNA?

A
  • transcription factor
  • RNA polymerase
192
Q

Experiments with Acetabularia proved that which part of the cell controls development?

A

the nucleus

193
Q

If a gene is switched on, which two molecules can then be produced?

A

mRNA then polypeptide

194
Q

Can mRNA be made from a gene that is switched off?

195
Q

Why do different cells make different proteins?

A

They have different genes switched on

196
Q

Which type of molecule permanently modifies cells so that they become specialised?

A

Proteins/enzymes

197
Q

Can mRNA be made from a gen that is switched on?

198
Q

In which type of organism will you find the ‘lac operon ‘ gene?

A

prokaryotic

199
Q

Which molecule acts as a chemical stimulus to switch on the lac operon gene?

200
Q

State the name of the enzyme which is made when the lac opern genes are switched on

A

beta galactosidase

201
Q

name the two monosaccharides which are released when lactose is hydrolysed

A

glucose, galactose

202
Q

Why is it beneficial for bacteria not to make the enzyme whixh breaks down lactose, if lactose is not present?

A

saves energy and resources

203
Q

in prokaryotes, what does the repressor bind to, in order to switch a gene off?

A

the operator gene

204
Q

in prokaryotes, what binds to the repressor molecule to inactivate it?

A

the chemical stimulus

205
Q

What does beta galactosidase enzyme break down?

206
Q

What are master genes?

A

genes that are responsible for the development of body segments

207
Q

Where in a cell in mRNA translated?

A

ribosomes (on rER)

208
Q

Where is a cell does transcription take place?

209
Q

Cells become _______ through _______________________

A

specialised
differential gen expression

209
Q

what does the structure and functionn of a cell depend on?

A

the proteins it has

210
Q

True or false: all cells contain the complete genome

A

true, besides RBC, all genes present but only some are activated

210
Q

Why are cells specialised?

A

only some genes are switched on/activated and produce mRNA that is translated into proteins

211
Q

what is the epigenome?

A

a multitude of chemical compounds that control the production of proteins in particular cells

212
Q

how do epigenetic markers work?

A
  • DNA methylation- a methyl group attaches to DNA and prevents transcription
  • DNA tightly wound around histone proteins prevents access to genes so genes are inactive
  • histone modification- epigenetic markers will bind to histone tails and this effects how tightly the DNA is wound, changing which genes are accessible/active or not
212
Q

Are epigenetic markers copied with the DNA?

A

yes,
- this ensure that the correct set of genes remain active

213
Q

Describe gene expression in eukaryotes

A
  • transcription factors bind to the promotor region and act as a sign for RNA polymerase to bind
  • RNA polymerase can bind (creating the transcription initiation complex) and start transcribing the DNA to produce mRNA
  • the gene is active, proteins can be produced
214
Q

What are the ways in which a eukaryotic gene can be switched off?

A
  • a protein repressor molecule attaches to the promotor region, blocking attachment site
  • a protein repressor molecule attaches to transcription factors, preventing them from binding
215
Q

Gene expression only occurs if…..

A

the protein is made

216
Q

What is the coding region of DNA known as?

A

the exon, gene

217
Q

What is the non-coding region f DNA known as?

A

the intron

218
Q

Describe gene expression in prokaryotes

A

a gene will be repressed by a repressor molecule bound to the operator region/gene
- a stimulus e.g. lactose can bind to the repressor molecule and cause it to detach from the DNA
- RNA polymerase can now bind and start transcription of the operon e.g. lac operon

219
Q

What is an operon?

A

a set of genes is prokaryotes, the set of protein produced for a particular function

220
Q

What did Dawid and Sargent’s experiments demonstrate?

A

different genes are switched on and expressed in different cells- differential gene expression

221
Q

Is the modification made by proteins produced in a cell permanent?

222
Q

Define a cell

A

The basic unit from which living organisms are built. Can be specialised for a particular function

226
Q

Define tissue

A

A group of one type of specialised cell which work together to carry out a specific function

227
Q

Define organ

A

A group of different tissues which work together to carry out one or more functions

228
Q

Define organ system

A

A group of different organs working together for the same function

229
Q

How do similar specialised cells recognise each other?

A

Using adhesion molecules
-specific proteins or glycoproteins fond on the cell surface

230
Q

What do adhesivo molecules allow the cell to do?

A

They can bind to cells with complementary shapes

231
Q

Define apoptosis

A

The programmed cell death
- the process in which healthy animal cells die during the normal development of an organisms

232
Q

Define master genes

A

A gene that controls the development of each segment of a body
-produce mRNA that is translated into signal proteins, which switch on the genes responsible for producing the proteins needed to specialise cells

233
Q

What can a signal molecule also be called?

234
Q

How does the signal from the ligand reach the nucleus?

A

Through 2nd messenger proteins down the signal transduction pathway

235
Q

What does the final 2nd messenger proteins do?

A

Enter the nucleus and turns the inactive transcription factor to the active transcription factor

236
Q

Name the pigment in skin which causes skin to darken

237
Q

What goes wrong in the cell cycle to cause a tumour to form?

A

Uncontrolled division, no stopping, no checkpoints
- no brake/halts on cycle, faster/shorter cycle – shorter interphase, uncontrolled cell
division, cells do not specialise,

238
Q

Name the environmental dietary factors which affect the phenotype of height?

A

Calcium, protein

239
Q

State genetic reasons for why people are getting taller

A

Taller men have more children, less inbreeding

240
Q

Name the enzyme which produces melanin

A

Tyrosinase

241
Q

Which hormone is produced in the brain in response to high UV light?

A

Melanin stimulating hormone, MSH

242
Q

Why is the human skin colour considered to be partly due to genotype and partly the environment?

A

Skin colour is predisposition but will change based on UV exposure
- genotype – skin colour genes inherited based on where ancestors came from
environment – effect of UV light – more melanin made, so skin darker

243
Q

State and explain environmental reasons why people are getter taller

A
  • better diet
  • better health, more calcium for bone growth and protein for muscle growth (diet), better
    heating of houses, less child labour
245
Q

Which amino acid in needed to produce melanin?

A

Tyrosinase

246
Q

what is a melansome?

A

A melanin filled lysosome
- vesicle bounded by a single membrane which contains melanin- made by melanocytes

247
Q

Does height show continuous or discontinuous variation?

A

Continuous

248
Q

What is meant by the term ‘poly genes’?

A

Genes that code for the same characteristic
- multiple genes at more that one gene locus which interact in the development of a phenotype

249
Q

How does MSH activate the tyrosinase gene?

A

binds to MSH receptor on melanosomes, system of messengers may affect the
epigenome – DNA more loosely wrapped around histones, making gene more accessible
for proteins (RNA polymerase and transcription factors) to bind OR DNA not
methylated so RNA polymerase can bind etc.

250
Q

State environmental factors that can increase the risk of a person developing cancer

A
  • UV
  • consumption of carcinogens
  • ionising radiation
  • asbestos
251
Q

A mutation in which genes can lead to cancer?

A

Protooncogenes or tumour suppressor genes

252
Q

Define ‘mutation’

A

Change in the base sequence of DNA

253
Q

Explain how genotype and the environment can both be involved in the development of breast cancer.

A

Genotype- people can have a genetic predisposition depending on genes inherited
Environment- exposure to environmental factors can increase risk

254
Q

Define ‘phenotype’

A

Outward appearance of a characteristic which can be influenced by genotype or both genotype and environment

255
Q

What happens to human hair colour in high UV light?

A

It lightens

256
Q

Which environmental factor affects tyrosinase in Siamese cats?

A

Temperature

257
Q

What type of molecule is an MSH receptor?

A

Likely to be a glycoproteins or glycolipid or protein

258
Q

Do artic foxes produce more or less MSH receptors in the summer?

259
Q

Explain why UV light causes hair to lighten

A

More melanin is produced, but this is destroyed by the high UV light

260
Q

In summer do Artic foxes produce white or brown fur?

261
Q

What is made in melanocytes?

262
Q

Name the type of receptor found on the cell membrane of melanocytes

A

MSH receptors

263
Q

What is unusual about the tyrosinase in Himalayan rabbits and Siamese cats?

A

Tyrosinase is inhibited by body temperature

264
Q

Why would a Himalayan rabbit have a white body but black tips on the paws?

A

Tyrosinase will be inhibited by body temperatures so extremities with a lower temp will be brown/black as melanin is able to be produced

265
Q

In cancer cells is the cell cycle shorter/faster or longer/slower than normal?

A

Shorter/faster

266
Q

Why is cancer more likely to develop in skin than the kidney?

A

The skin is exposed to UV and more carcinogens, higher rates of mitosis in skin

267
Q

Define ‘multi factorial disease’

A

A disease that is dependent in many factors

268
Q

What does high UV light do the the DNA in unprotected skin nuclei?

269
Q

What type of cancers are usually cause by exposure to asbestos?

A

Respiratory cancers

270
Q

Why is sunscreen similar to melanosomes?

A

They absorb UV radiation and prevent it mutating the DNA

271
Q

why is melanin only made from a switched on/activated tyrosinase gene?

A

Because RNA polymerase is only able to bind to switched on genes

272
Q

How is the tyrosinase gene switched on?

A

DNA uncoiled, RNA polymerase binds, regulator protein (transcription factor) binds, no
repressor protein binds

273
Q

Which enzyme cannot bind to DNA when the tyrosinase gene is switched off?

A

RNA polymerase

274
Q

Name the chemical stimulus which causes the tyrosinase gene to be switched on

275
Q

Where will melanosomes be found in a skin cell?

A

Around the nucleus

276
Q

if a drug trial was comparing a new cancer drug to an existing cancer drug, what would be the best control for the study?

A

The existing cancer drug

277
Q

Can tumours develop in plants?

278
Q

which molecules need to be able to bind to DNA for a gene to be switched on?

A
  • transcription factors
  • RNA polymerase
279
Q

Define ‘gene expression’

A

When products are made from a gene

280
Q

Describe discontinuous variation

A
  • discrete groups with no overlap
  • completely determined by genetics
  • found at a single locus
281
Q

Describe continuous variation

A
  • range of phenotypes
  • the distribution will be normal in a bell curve
  • determined by genetics and environment
  • found at different loci
282
Q

Describe gene linkage

A

Genes that are inherited together as they are close together on the same chromosome

283
Q

How will genes be separated and go into different gametes?

A

When crossing over happens between the two gene loci

284
Q

Genes are inherited independently if….

A
  • they are on separate chromosomes
  • the genes are very far apart on the chromosome
285
Q

Describe polygenic inheritance

A

Many genes are involved at more than one locus and each gene has a small effect. The genes interact and the additive effects create more genotypes

286
Q

Define polygenic inheritance

A

More than one gene for a single characteristic, with each gene at a different locus. Genes interact with each other, and have additive effects to produce a phenotype. Polygenic inheritance contributes to continuous variation

287
Q

Define sex-linked genes

A

An allele or gene responsible for a trait is located on A chromosome

288
Q

describe DNA methylation

A

Methylation groups attach to DNA bases and stop the enzyme RNA polymerase binding to DNA. The gene switched off, transcription cannot take place, so no mRNA is formed. No protein is made - gene is not expressed

289
Q

Describe histone modification

A

Methyl or acetyl groups attach to histone tail and affect how tightly DNA winds around his tones
- tightly wrapped, gene is inaccessible so is switched off and cannot be transcribed to form mRNA . No protein is formed, the gene is not expressed
- loosely wrapped, gene is accessible so can be transcribed and expressed

290
Q

Describe oncogenes

A

These code for proteins which stimulate cycle progression.

291
Q

Describe tumour suppressor genes

A

These code from proteins which halt the cell cycle. If mutated the gene may not be expressed to there are no checkpoints in the cell cycle

292
Q

What is the p53 gene

A

A tumour suppressor gene that halts the cell cycle at the G1/S checkpoints