Topic 3 Flashcards

1
Q

In which part of an animal cell does aerobic respiration take place?

A

Mitochondrion

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2
Q

What is the function of a flagellum in a bacterial cell?

A

To allow motility
Moves the cell

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3
Q

In which part of an animal cell will you find cristae?

A

Mitochondria

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4
Q

Which part of an animal cell controls what substances enter and leave the cell?

A

Cell surface membrane

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5
Q

Where does protein synthesis take place in a prokaryotic cell?

A

Ribosomes

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6
Q

In which part of an animal cell is the majority of the ATP produced?

A

Mitochondria

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7
Q

Name the fluid inside a mitochondrion

A

Stroma

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8
Q

Which two animal cell organelles have a double membrane?

A

Mitochondria
Nucleus

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9
Q

What is found inside a lysosome?

A

Digestive (hydrolytic) enzymes

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10
Q

Which part of an animal cell helps to form the spindle for cell division?

A

Centrioles

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11
Q

What is the function of the Golgi Apparatus?

A
  • modify proteins
  • sort and package proteins for transport
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12
Q

Where is an animal cell does transcription take place?

A

Nucleus

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13
Q

Which part of the cell is made of rRNA?

A

Ribosomes

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14
Q

At which part of a cell does endocytosis take place?

A

Cell surface membrane

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15
Q

Where in the cell is oxygen used up in a chemical reaction?

A

Mitochondria

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16
Q

In which 2 parts of an animal cell would you find membranes called cisternae?

A

ER
Golgi apparatus

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17
Q

In which part of a mucus producing cell would you find the CFTR protein?

A

Cell surface membrane

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18
Q

Where in a cell does translation take place?

A

Ribosomes

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19
Q

Does a prokaryotic cell contain cytoplasm?

A

Yes

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20
Q

Where in an animal cell are chromosomes found?

A

The nucleus

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21
Q

What is the function of pili in a prokaryotic cell?

A

Adhesion

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22
Q

What is the only part of an animal cell which is not found in a plant cell?

A

Centrioles

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23
Q

Which three parts of a plant cell are not found in an animal cell?

A
  • Cellulose cell wall
  • chloroplasts
  • permanent vacuole
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24
Q

Where exactly in an animal cell does a polypeptide chain fold into a protein?

A

Lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum

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25
Q

What is the function of the slime layer in a prokaryotic cell?

A

Prevents dehydration

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26
Q

Where is an animal cell in mRNA produced?

A

Nucleus

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27
Q

Where in an animal cell are lipids synthesised?

A

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

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28
Q

Which part of an animal cell contains hydrolytic enzymes?

A

Lysosome

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29
Q

Where is the DNA found in a prokaryotic cell?

A

Cytoplasm

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30
Q

Where are polypeptides made in an animal cell?

A

Ribosomes

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31
Q

State ways that proteins can be modified in an animal cell

A
  • have a prosthetic group added
    Eg carbohydrate
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32
Q

Which is the largest organelle in an animal cell?

A

Nucleus

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33
Q

Is the DNA in a prokaryotic cell associated with his tone proteins?

A

No

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34
Q

Are the chromosomes in an animal cell linear or circular?

A

Linear

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35
Q

Where in an animal cell are tRNA molecules found?

A

Cytoplasm and ribosomes

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36
Q

What is the difference between ribosomes in a prokaryotic cell and ribosomes in a eukaryotic cell?

A

Prokaryotic have smaller 70s ribosomes whereas eukaryotic have larger 80s ribosomes

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37
Q

How do proteins move from the rER to the Golgi apparatus?

A

ER Transport vesicles

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38
Q

By which process do extracellular enzymes leave the cell?

A

Exocytosis

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39
Q

A nucleus drawn on paper measures 3mm, but its actual size in the cell is 6um. Work out the magnification of the drawing

A

3000/6 = x500

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40
Q

What is the function of the nucleolus in an animal cell?

A

The make rRNA for ribosomes

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41
Q

Is the prokaryotic mesosome a part of the cell?

A

Yes

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42
Q

How many subunits is a ribosome made of?

A

2

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43
Q

Where is chromatic found?

A

The nucleus

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44
Q

Name the parts of a nucleus

A

Nuclear envelope
Nucleoplasm
Nuclear pores
Nucleolus

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45
Q

What is the overall process of making a functional protein?

A
  • gene on DNA
  • transcription, mRNA leaves nucleus
  • translation
    -polypeptide chain released from ribosome and enters rER
  • protein folded into secondary and tertiary structures as it moves through the lumen
  • transport vesicles are produced by rER
  • proteins packaged into vesicle
  • protein released from cell
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46
Q

Describe the role of the golgi apparatus and rER in the formation of an extracellular enzyme

A
  • amino acids are joined together to form a polypeptide chain on a ribosome attached to the rER
  • the polypeptide passes through the cisternae membrane and into the lumen of the rER where the polypeptide folds into its 3d shape
  • rER packages proteins into ER vesicles which transport the protein to golgi apparatus
  • ER vesicles fuse with golgi apparatus membrane to become part of the golgi apparatus
  • protein enters the GA and is modified as protein moves through the GA
  • The proteins are packaged into a golgi secretory vesicle for transport through the cell cytoplam
  • The vesicle moves to the cell surface membrane, fuses with it and the proteins exit via exocytosis
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47
Q

What cell organelles can be found in a prokaryotic cell?

A
  • cell wall
  • capsule
  • plasmid
  • flagellum
  • pili
  • ribosome 70s
  • mesosomes
  • circular DNA
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48
Q

What is a prokaryotic cell wall made of?

A

peptidoglycan

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49
Q

What is the function of the capsue?

A
  • protection
  • prevents dehydration
  • prevent enzyme digestion
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50
Q

What does the flagellum allow the cell to be?

A

motile
- able to move itself

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51
Q

What is the function of pili?

A

thin protein tubes, may be hollow
- allow for adhesion
- hollow to share plasmids - conjugation

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52
Q

Define ultrastructure

A

can see using an electron microscope

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53
Q

List the organelles found in an animal cell

A
  • nucleus
  • nucleolus
    -rER
  • sER
  • ribosomes 80s
  • mitochandria
  • centrioles
  • golgi apparatus
  • lysosomes
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54
Q

What cells ae centrioles found in?

A

only animal cells

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55
Q

What is the DNA in animal cells?

A

linear, associated with histone proteins

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56
Q

If one cell divides by meiosis, how many daughter cells are made?

A

4

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57
Q

State the function of the sperm flagellum

A

to move the sperm to the egg in order for fertilisation. allow for motility

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58
Q

What is the name given to a fertilised egg?

A

zygote

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59
Q

What is the role of meiosis?

A

Maintains genetic consistency at fertilisation
produces haploid nuclei for gametes

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60
Q

why does a sperm cell have a larger number of mitochondria than other animal cells?

A

Sperm cells need a lot of ATP available so that they can swim to the egg for fertilisation
move the flagellum

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61
Q

Does a ovum contain mitochondria?

A

Yes lots of it

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62
Q

Where would you find an acrosome?

A

in the head of a sperm

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63
Q

is an ovum diploid or haploid?

A

haploid

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64
Q

if a dog sperm cell nucleus contains 16 chromosomes, how many chromosomes would be found in a dog nerve cell nucleus?

A

32

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65
Q

Which part of an animal cell helps to form the spindle for meiosis?

A

centrioles

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66
Q

What is released from the acrosome?

A

digestive (hydrolytic) enzymes to break down the zona pellucida

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67
Q

Why does a human ovum need a large amount of cytoplasm?

A

To have lots of nutrient for embryonic development
energy for cell division
contains lipid droplets

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68
Q

When does the zona pellucida of the ovum thicken?

A

in the cortical reaction, once a sperm nucleus had fuses with the cell membrane
after one sperm has entered the ovum

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69
Q

why does the ovum need to thicken?

A

to prevent polyspermy

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70
Q

Does an ovum contain golgi apparatus?

A

no

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71
Q

Where in a sperm cell are mitochondria found?

A

in the body/middle peice

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72
Q

Why is it important that a sperm cell is haploid?

A

to maintain (diploid number ) genetic consistency upon fertilisation

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73
Q

Why does an ovum need to contain lipid droplets?

A

to provide nutrients for embryonic development/cell division

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74
Q

What is the function of cortical granules?

A

They contain enzymes which start the cortical reaction

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75
Q

How many chromosomes are present in a human zygote?

A

23 pairs
46

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76
Q

What are homologous chromosomes?

A

chromosomes in a pair, have the same locus
Chromosomes with centromere in same position, same length, alleles in same position

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77
Q

In the first division of meiosis, how do the chromosomes line up on the cell equator?

A

in homologous pairs

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78
Q

What is separated during the second division of meiosis?

A

sister chromatids

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79
Q

What is a chiasma?

A

the place where chromosomes cross over

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80
Q

What is independent assortment of chromosomes?

A

chromosome pair line up randomly along the equator

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81
Q

Describe crossing over

A

genes on one chromosome swap with the gene at the same locus on another chromosome

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82
Q

State the ways that genetic variation can arise in meiosis?

A
  • crossing over
  • independent assortment of chromosomes
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83
Q

Which part of a sperm cell contains hydrolytic enzymes?

A

the acrosome
acrosin

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83
Q

Which part of an ovum makes the lipids that make up the lipid droplets?

A

the sEr

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83
Q

Name the cell division that produces gametes

A

meiosis

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84
Q

What is the advantage of an ovum being many times larger than a sperm cell?

A

larger target
more cytoplasm to contain lipid droplets

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85
Q

What is the advantage of millions of sperm being released during sexual intercourse?

A

higher chance of survival and therefore fertilisation

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86
Q

Does a human ovum contain 70s or 80s ribosomes?

A

80s ribosomes

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87
Q

What is the purpose of the acrosome reaction?

A

to break down the zona pellucida
- allow sperm to penetrate and enter ovum

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88
Q

How does genetic variation arise in fertilisation?

A

fertilisation is random

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89
Q

What is the purpose of the cortical reaction?

A

prevent polyspermy

90
Q

What are released by the ovum to trigger the stat of the acrosome reaction?

A

chemokines released by follicle cells

91
Q

By which transport process do hydrolytic enzymes leave a sperm cell?

A

exocytosis

92
Q

Which metal ions are involved in the acrosome reaction?

93
Q

What do cortical granules contain?

94
Q

How many chromosomes are found in a human ovum?

95
Q

What is polyspermy?

A

when more than one sperm reach and fertilise the egg

96
Q

State the differences between the structure of a sperm and an ovum

A
  • sperm have flagellum, ovum does not
  • ovum has the rest of the cell organelles, sperm only have acrosome, mitochondria, flagellum and nucleus
  • and egg has follicle cells and a zona pellucida
97
Q

explain the importance of fertilisation?

A

sexual reproduction
return to 46 chromosomes

98
Q

Describe the process of fertilisation

A
  • sperm reach the ovum, attracted by chemokines from follicle cells
  • sperm come into contact with follicle cells which triggers the acrosome reaction
  • the acrosome swells, its membrane fuses with the sperm cell membrane
  • digestive enzymes (acrosin) int he acrosome is released
  • the enzymes digest through the follicle cells
  • the enzymes digest the zona pellucida surrounding the ovum
  • receptors on the head of the sperm bind to the ovum vell surface membrane. the sperm membrane fuses with the ovum membrane
  • the sperm nucleus enters the ovum
  • cortical granules fuse with ovu cell membrane and release digestive enzymes by exocytosis
  • ths thickens and hardens the zona pellucida the prevent entry of any other sperm(polyspermy)
  • the nuclei of ovum and sperm fuse
99
Q

What are gametes?

A

highly specialised cells, 1n, sex cells

100
Q

Define haploid

A

half the number of chromosome found in a somatic cell

101
Q

What type of division in meiosis?

A

Nuclear or reduction

102
Q

Meiosis creates _________ among offspring

A

genetic variation

103
Q

describe the process of meiosis

A

-before division occurs each chromosome replicates to become a replicated chromosome, made of two sister chromatids that are genetically identical
- crossing over occurs
- homologous replicated chromosome pairs line up (independent assortment of chromosomes) an separate
- chromatid then separate
- gametes are formed

104
Q

define stem cell

A

an undifferentiatd cell that can give rise to specialised cells, has no hayflicks limit, capable of self renewal

105
Q

Define totipotent stem cell

A

a stem cell that can give rise to all cell types

106
Q

Which type of stem cells can be taken bone marrow found inside bones?

A

multipotent

107
Q

what would be the absolutist ethical view on using embryonic stem cells in research?

A

stem cells should not be used
Under no circumstances should embryos be used as a source of stem cells for research. No medical advances are worth the moral evil/murder of using embryonic tissue

  • or fine in all circumstances
108
Q

State the risks/problems of injecting stem cells from donor into a human patient

A
  • risk of rejection
  • risk of cancer
  • can lead to infection
109
Q

What would the utilitarian ethical view be on using embryonic stem cells in research?

A

If the benefits of the research outweigh the cost of collecting the embryos

110
Q

Where in a blastocyst would you find pluripotent stem cells?

A

the inner cell mass

111
Q

Can a pluripotent stem cell give rise to embryonic stem cells?

112
Q

what happens to some genes in a stem cell for it to become specialised?

A

they become active or inactive
- switched on or off

113
Q

Where do the embryos come from that are used in stem cell research?

A

IVF clinics, donors

114
Q

State some medical uses of stem cells.

A
  • repair tissue
  • replace cells
  • make new organs/tissue
  • cure diseases
115
Q

define pluripotent stem cell

A

a stem cell that can give rise to most types of cell

116
Q

what is unusual about the limits of division for stem cells?

A

there are none

117
Q

Does an 8 cell embryo contain totipotent or pluripotent stem cells?

A

totipotent

118
Q

What are the problems when trying to extract multipotent stem cells from the body?

A

they are hard and painful to access
difficult to locate and extract without causing damage

119
Q

explain how stem cells can be used to produce new skin tissue for a skin graft

A

skin stem cells are grown on a agar dish until a large enough tissue has been made

  • Spare IVF embryos grown to form blastocyst, pluripotent stem cells extracted from inner cell mass, stem cells cultured in the lab to form more identical cells/ tissue/an organ
120
Q

what are the problems with traditional transplants? How are these problems overcome?

A
  • the is a risk of rejection and therefore immunosuppressants must be taken for the rest of the patients life
121
Q

If an IVF embryo is used to create new nerve tissue, what problem will arise when this is placed in another persons body?

A

the body may reject it as this is not their DNA
- shortage of organs

122
Q

Can a pluripotent stem cell give rise to extra embryonic stem cells?

123
Q

Can a totipotent stem cell give rise to extra embryonic stem cells?

124
Q

Why is producing skin tissue for a skin graft better done using therapeutic cloning rather than using an IVF embryo?

A

therapeutic cloning will result in a skin graft containing the same DNA as the patient so wont be rejected

125
Q

Why are embryonic stem cells more useful then adult multipotent stem cells?

A

they can give rise to more cell types

126
Q

Why is it important that stem cell regulatory authorities listen to both scientists and patients when deciding whether embryonic stem cells should be used for research into Parkinson’s disease?

A

To be ethical
- Scientists involved in embryo research - fully understand the science / recognise what is possible
People not involved in embryo research - give a {balanced /alternative e.g. religious /wider} view eg. patients living with the disease could describe the effects/suffering

127
Q

Outline the role of the regulatory authorities in making decisions about stem cell research

A

HFEA
- decide on max age of embryo allowed for research, set or consider ethical aspects /judge what is acceptable, check that source of stem cells is acceptable, prevent cloning (of humans), stop unnecessary repeating of research

128
Q

What are the uses of stem cells in medical therapies?

A
  • inject into bod to give rise to specialised cell types in order to replace dead/damaged cells and repair damaged tissue
    – produce tissues or organs for transplant
  • treat a wide range of diseases caused by faulty or damaged cells
  • used in drug testing and research
129
Q

What is the process of therapeutic cloning?

A
  • nucleus of egg cell removed
  • nucleus from chosen diploid somatic cell is placed in the egg cell
  • using electric stimulus the cell divides by mitosis to produce a blastocyst
  • pluripotent cells are removed and encouraged to develop into tissue/organs
130
Q

What does HFEA stand for?

A

Human Fertilisation and Embryology Authority

131
Q

What are the roles of the HFEA?

A
  • decide maximum age of an embryo allowed to n=be used for research
  • consider ethical issues
  • check that the source of stem cells is acceptable
  • stop human cloning
  • stop unnecessary repeating of research
  • to ensure research institutions have a licence
132
Q

What are the disadvantages of iPS?

A
  • difficult to create
  • difficult to control differentiation, may lead to cancer
133
Q

what can a plant tissue culture be used for?

A
  • improve plant and crop species
  • produce increased quantities of plant chemical found in drugs
  • produce commercial plants that are difficult to grow from seed , orchids
  • conserve endangered plant species
134
Q

describe the process of a plant tissue culture

A
  • explants are placed on an agar medium with nutrients and growth regulators
  • cell divides to form a callus, mass of undifferentiated cells
  • callus is made to differentiate into small groups of cells (plant embryos) by growth regulators
  • embryos develop into complete plants that are genetically identical
135
Q

If one cell divides by mitosis, how many daughter cells are made?

136
Q

State the processes of prophase

A
  • chromosomes condense
  • centrioles move to opposite poles of the cell
  • the spindle forms, ready to attach to the chromosomes
  • the nucleolus and nuclear envelope breaks down
137
Q

State the importance of mitosis

A
  • maintains genetic consistency by creating diploid nuclei
  • allows for growth of multicellular organisms and repair
  • increase cell number
  • asexual reproduction, produce genetically identical cells
138
Q

Explain the differences between cytokinesis in an animal cell compared to a plant cell

A

Animal cell splits using the contraction of a ring protein filaments to constrict cell membrane
- plants forms a cell plate down the middle of the cell

139
Q

Does mitosis produce genetically identical cells?

140
Q

State the role of the chromosome centromere in mitosis

A

this is where the spindle fibres attach in order to pull the chromatids apart

141
Q

Explain the role of the spindle in mitosis

A

to pull apart the chromatids to opposite poles of the cell, attaches to chromosomes via centromeres

142
Q

Name the four stages of mitosis in order

A
  • Prophase, prepare
  • Metaphase, meet
  • Anaphase, apart
  • Telophase, two
    PMAT
143
Q

Which part of an animal cell helps to form the spindle for mitosis?

A

centrioles

144
Q

In which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell?

145
Q

Explain what happens in anaphase of mitosis

A
  • spindle attaches to centromere
  • spindle shortens, pulling chromatids to opposite poles of the cell
146
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place?

A

in interphase, S phase

147
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle do cells not have visible chromosomes?

A

interphase

148
Q

wat divides in cytokinesis?

A

the cytoplasm

149
Q

What are the stages of the cell cycle in order?

A
  • interphase
    -Growth 1
    -S phase
    -Growth 2
  • mitosis
    -prophase
    -metaphase
    -anaphase
    -telophase
  • cytokinesis
150
Q

In which stage of mitosis do the chromatids separate?

151
Q

How would you recognisee a cell in telophase of mitosis?

A
  • there are two nuclei
152
Q

Wat happens to the DNA content of a cell during S phase of the cell cycle? Why?

A

it doubles as the DNA is replicated, when cell divides the diploid number with be maintained

153
Q

Is the nuclear envelope present in anaphase of mitosis?

154
Q

In which stage of mitosis do chromosomes condense?

155
Q

How exactly do spindle fibres pull chromatids apart?

A

By shortening and contracting

156
Q

when a chromosome lines up on the equator in mitosis, are its two chromatids identical or different?

157
Q

What happens in the G1 phase of interphase?

A

The cell grows larger and new organelles are made. Enzymes for DNA replication are made

158
Q

How many nuclei reform in a cell in telophase of mitosis?

159
Q

name an organism which reproduces asexually by mitosis

A

plants
-Bacteria (by fission), yeast (by budding), fungi (by spores), some plants eg. strawberry plants (by vegetative propagation), annelids (by fragmentation)

160
Q

During which stage of mitosis do spindle fibres shorten?

161
Q

During which stage of mitosis do chromosomes start to uncoil?

162
Q

What happens in the G2 phase of the cell cycle?

A

cell organelles double
-Cell growth, protein synthesis to make spindle proteins, chromosomes start to condense

163
Q

explain how to calculate the miotic index

A

Add up the total number of cells that are in prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase (so in mitosis) – any cell with visible chromosomes, so don’t include any cells in interphase

Divide this number by the total number of cells that can be seen

164
Q

Where in a plant root cell would cells be actively dividing by mitosis?

165
Q

If a cell is not in mitosis what stage of the cell cycle must it be in?

A

interphase

166
Q

name the type of cell division involved when a zygote divides into 2 cells?

167
Q

How many divisions of mitosis must take place before a cell can be taken from an embryo for preimplantation genetic diagnosis?

A

3 as 8 cell embryo needed, one cell is removed and screened

168
Q

One cell went through many cycles of division by mitosis. when 128 cells have been produced, how many divisions have taken place?

169
Q

Which two stages of mitosis require a spindle?

A
  • anaphase
  • metaphase
170
Q

describe what happens in mataphase

A
  • chromosomes attach to spindle fibres by their centromere
  • line up along the equator of the cell
171
Q

describe the process of telophase

A
  • chromosomes unravel
  • nuclear envelope forms around each group of chromosomes
  • two nucleolus’ reform
  • spindle fibres break down
172
Q

How do the chromosomes condense?

A
  • DNA and histone proteins coil to form chromatin fibre
  • chromatin fibre attaches to a protein scaffold, forming loops
  • folding the protein scaffold produces the condensed chromosomes
173
Q

What is used in cytokinesis in animal cells to split the cytoplasm?

A
  • microtubules
  • protein filaments
174
Q

Define mitosis

A

Nuclear division resulting in 2 identical diploid nuclei produce from one parent diploid nucleus

177
Q

Define gene expression

A

When a gene is used to make mRNA and then gene products (usually proteins)

178
Q

What is needed to trigger differential gene expression?

A

A chemical stimulus

179
Q

State another term for ‘switching off’ a gene

A

inactivation

180
Q

State another term for ‘switching on’ a gene

A

activation

181
Q

Which two molecule must bind to a gene to switch it on?

A
  • transcription factors
  • RNA polymerase
182
Q

Which molecule can bind to a gene to switch it off?

A

a repressor molecule

183
Q

Which enzyme is needed for transcription?

A

RNA polymerase

184
Q

Which molecule is produced when a gene is transcribed?

185
Q

What type of stimulus is needed to trigger cell specialisation?

A

a chemical stimulus

186
Q

Where does RNA polymerase bind to DNA?

A

the promotor region

187
Q

What is a transcription factor?

A

a molecule that must bind to the promotor region in order for RNA polymerase to bind and transcription to happen

188
Q

State the two places where the protein repressor can bind to keep a gene switched off

A
  • the promotor region
  • the transcription factors
189
Q

State the four things needed for transcription to take place

A
  • transcription factors
  • RNA polymerase
  • DNA strand
  • mRNA mononucleutides
190
Q

Which DNA strand acts as the template strand fro transcription?

191
Q

Which two molecules bind to the promotor region of DNA?

A
  • transcription factor
  • RNA polymerase
192
Q

Experiments with Acetabularia proved that which part of the cell controls development?

A

the nucleus

193
Q

If a gene is switched on, which two molecules can then be produced?

A

mRNA then polypeptide

194
Q

Can mRNA be made from a gene that is switched off?

195
Q

Why do different cells make different proteins?

A

They have different genes switched on

196
Q

Which type of molecule permanently modifies cells so that they become specialised?

A

Proteins/enzymes

197
Q

Can mRNA be made from a gen that is switched on?

198
Q

In which type of organism will you find the ‘lac operon ‘ gene?

A

prokaryotic

199
Q

Which molecule acts as a chemical stimulus to switch on the lac operon gene?

200
Q

State the name of the enzyme which is made when the lac opern genes are switched on

A

beta galactosidase

201
Q

name the two monosaccharides which are released when lactose is hydrolysed

A

glucose, galactose

202
Q

Why is it beneficial for bacteria not to make the enzyme whixh breaks down lactose, if lactose is not present?

A

saves energy and resources

203
Q

in prokaryotes, what does the repressor bind to, in order to switch a gene off?

A

the operator gene

204
Q

in prokaryotes, what binds to the repressor molecule to inactivate it?

A

the chemical stimulus

205
Q

What does beta galactosidase enzyme break down?

206
Q

What are master genes?

A

genes that are responsible for the development of body segments

207
Q

Where in a cell in mRNA translated?

A

ribosomes (on rER)

208
Q

Where is a cell does transcription take place?

209
Q

Cells become _______ through _______________________

A

specialised
differential gen expression

209
Q

what does the structure and functionn of a cell depend on?

A

the proteins it has

210
Q

True or false: all cells contain the complete genome

A

true, besides RBC, all genes present but only some are activated

210
Q

Why are cells specialised?

A

only some genes are switched on/activated and produce mRNA that is translated into proteins

211
Q

what is the epigenome?

A

a multitude of chemical compounds that control the production of proteins in particular cells

212
Q

how do epigenetic markers work?

A
  • DNA methylation- a methyl group attaches to DNA and prevents transcription
  • DNA tightly wound around histone proteins prevents access to genes so genes are inactive
  • histone modification- epigenetic markers will bind to histone tails and this effects how tightly the DNA is wound, changing which genes are accessible/active or not
212
Q

Are epigenetic markers copied with the DNA?

A

yes,
- this ensure that the correct set of genes remain active

213
Q

Describe gene expression in eukaryotes

A
  • transcription factors bind to the promotor region and act as a sign for RNA polymerase to bind
  • RNA polymerase can bind (creating the transcription initiation complex) and start transcribing the DNA to produce mRNA
  • the gene is active, proteins can be produced
214
Q

What are the ways in which a eukaryotic gene can be switched off?

A
  • a protein repressor molecule attaches to the promotor region, blocking attachment site
  • a protein repressor molecule attaches to transcription factors, preventing them from binding
215
Q

Gene expression only occurs if…..

A

the protein is made

216
Q

What is the coding region of DNA known as?

A

the exon, gene

217
Q

What is the non-coding region f DNA known as?

A

the intron

218
Q

Describe gene expression in prokaryotes

A

a gene will be repressed by a repressor molecule bound to the operator region/gene
- a stimulus e.g. lactose can bind to the repressor molecule and cause it to detach from the DNA
- RNA polymerase can now bind and start transcription of the operon e.g. lac operon

219
Q

What is an operon?

A

a set of genes is prokaryotes, the set of protein produced for a particular function

220
Q

What did Dawid and Sargent’s experiments demonstrate?

A

different genes are switched on and expressed in different cells- differential gene expression

221
Q

Is the modification made by proteins produced in a cell permanent?