Topic 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Name the valves located between the atria and the ventricles.

A

Atrioventricular valves

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2
Q

Which heart chamber has the thickest walls?

A

Left ventricle

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3
Q

Name the blood vessel which carries blood from the lungs to the heart.

A

Pulmonary vein

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4
Q

During which stage of the cardiac cycle does blood get pumped from the atria into the ventricles?

A

Atrial systole

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5
Q

During what stage of the cardiac cycle do the semilunar valves open?

A

Ventricular systole

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6
Q

If one cardiac cycle takes 0.7s, calculate the heart rate in bpm.

A

60/0.7= 85.7 bpm

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7
Q

Which heart chamber pumps blood into the aorta?

A

Left ventricle

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8
Q

Name the heart chamber which receives blood from the vena cava.

A

Right atrium

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9
Q

During which phase of the cardiac cycle is blood pumped into the arteries?

A

Ventricular systole

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10
Q

State one function of the atrioventricular valves.

A

-Open to allow blood to be pumped into the ventricles in atrial systole
-Closes to prevent the backflow of blood into the atria in ventricular systole

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11
Q

Name the blood vessel which carries blood from the heart to the lungs.

A

Pulmonary artery

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12
Q

What is the function of the coronary arteries?

A

To provide the cardiac muscle with an oxygenated blood supply

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13
Q

Name the blood vessel which carries blood away from the left ventricle of the heart.

A

The Aorta

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14
Q

During which stage of the cardiac cycle do the atrioventricular valves close?

A

Ventricular systole

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15
Q

Does the aorta have thicker or thinner walls than the pulmonary artery?

A

Thicker

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16
Q

Does the pulmonary artery carry oxygenated or deoxygenated blood?

A

Deoxygenated

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17
Q

State the function of the semilunar valves.

A

-Open during ventricular systole so blood can be pumped into the arteries
-Close to prevent the backflow of blood into the heart from the ventricles during cardiac diastole

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18
Q

Why is blood pumped at a lower pressure to the lungs than it is to the body?

A

-Right ventricle walls are thinner
-To prevent damage to delicate lung tissue
-The lungs are much closer to the heart so the blood doesn’t need to travel very far. Therefore, the blood can be under a lower pressure.
- Slow blood flow allows for efficient gas exchange

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19
Q

What are the cells of the endothelium of the capillary flattened?

A
  • Reduces diffusion distance for efficient gas exchange
    -Provides a smooth surface to reduce friction and resistance against blood in order to transport blood faster.
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20
Q

Why do capillary walls have pores?

A

Pores allow the passage of materials between the blood and the cell

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21
Q

Why do arteries not need valves?

A

Blood in the arteries are under very high pressure so the blood will continue to move forward without backflow
The high content of elastic fibres continues to push the blood along due to the elastic recoil

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22
Q

Which component of the artery walls allows them to stretch and recoil?

A

The elastic fibres

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23
Q

Why does an artery need thick walls?

A

To withstand high blood pressures

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24
Q

In which type of blood vessel is the pressure lowest?

A

Veins

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25
Q

Why do blood vessels need an endothelial layer which is smooth?

A

To reduce friction of blood flow against vessel walls

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26
Q

What features of an artery helps maintain high blood pressure?

A
  • Elastic fibres
  • Narrow lumen
  • Smooth muscle
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27
Q

Why do veins need valves?

A

The blood in vein is at a relatively low blood pressure and this means that there can be a backflow of blood in the veins and therefore valves are needed to stop this

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28
Q

The aorta is an artery with a relatively wide lumen. Why does it need a wider lumen than other arteries?

A

The aorta needs a wider lumen as it is at the heart and therefore endures the highest blood pressure. The aorta also transports all the blood sent to the body. Therefore the lumen must be a little wider to accommodate this high pressured blood.

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29
Q

State the structural differences between an artery and a vein.

A
  • The arteries carry oxygenated blood (besides the pulmonary artery) but veins carry deoxygenated blood (besides the pulmonary vein)
  • Arteries have thicker vessel walls as the they have more smooth muscle and elastic fibres than veins
  • Arteries stretch more as the accommodate blood with a higher pressure that veins
  • Veins have less ability to constrict or contract due to a lower smooth muscle content than arteries
  • Veins have less elastic recoils due to a lower elastic fibre content than arteries
  • Veins have a wider lumen
  • Arteries have a folded endothelium that stretches to accommodate blood, veins do not
  • Veins have valves to stop backflow, arteries do not
  • Veins transport blood to the heart and arteries transport blood away from the heart
  • In arteries blood moves in pulses, veins have a steady blood flow
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30
Q

What is the space in the centre of the blood vessel called?

A

The lumen

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31
Q

Name an artery which carries deoxygenated blood.

A

The pulmonary artery

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32
Q

Name the type of muscle found in artery walls

A

Smooth muscle

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33
Q

Name the blood vessel which delivers blood to the right atrium.

A

The vena cava (superior and inferior)

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34
Q

Will the CO2 concentration be higher in a coronary artery or a coronary vein?

A

Coronary vein

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35
Q

Calculate the volume of a section of artery which is 7cm long and 3mm is diameter.

A

Area= pi r squared = pi x 1.5 x 1.5
= 2.25 x pi x 70= 157.5pi mm(cubed)

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36
Q

Name the blood vessel which carries blood away from the left ventricle.

A

Th aorta

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37
Q

If the blood pressure in a vessel decreases form 3.1KPa to 2.5KPa, calculate the percentage decrease.

A

3.1 - 2.5= 0.6
0.6/3.1= 0.1935
0.1935 x 100= 19.35% decrease

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38
Q

Why do lung capillaries need very thin walls?

A

To make the the diffusion distance between the air and the blood small. This leads to efficient gas exchange

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39
Q

State the similarities between arteries, veins and capillaries.

A

-Have a smooth endothelial layer
-Have a lumen

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40
Q

If a person suffers a stroke, the blood vessels carrying oxygenated blood to which organ is blocked?

A

The brain

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41
Q

Is the blood in the capillary network of the lungs oxygenated or deoxygenated?

A

Deoxygenated at the arterial end of the capillary bed but oxygenated at the vein end of capillary bed

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42
Q

How is the low pressure blood in the veins moved back to the heart against gravity?

A
  • The blood is pushed along by the contraction and skeletal muscles in movement
  • A low pressure zone is developed in the thorax (chest cavity due to breathing) pulling blood back up for he heart
  • Valves prevent backflow
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43
Q

Name two arteries in the body which have semilunar valves at their base.

A
  • Aorta
  • Pulmonary artery
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44
Q

Why is it important that arteries can constrict?

A
  • For control of the blood flow eg. vasoconstriction which allows the body to maintain body heat
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45
Q

In which type of blood vessel can you feel your pulse?

A

Artery

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46
Q

How does the pressure of the aorta change when the left ventricle contracts?

A

The pressure increases rapidly

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47
Q

What is the function of the collagen coat in an artery?

A

-To prevent vessel from bursting
-Provide strength
-Anchors vessel to surrounding tissue

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48
Q

Name the blood vessel which delivers blood to the left atrium?

A

Pulmonary vein

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49
Q

What component of the artery walls allows them to constrict?

A

The smooth muscle

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50
Q

How does the lumen diameter of an artery change when an artery dilates?

A

It increases

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51
Q

What is the outer coat made out of?

A

Collagen fibres and connective tissue

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52
Q

How do capillaries maximise gas exchange?

A

-Short diffusion distances
-Pores
-Large networks to provide a large surface area
-Narrow lumen (1RBC in diameter) slows down blood
-Steady blood flow

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53
Q

How wide is a capillary lumen?

A

10 um or 1 RBC

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54
Q

To constrict blood flow, what must the smooth muscle do?

A

Contract

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55
Q

To dilate blood flow, what must the smooth muscle do?

A

Relax

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56
Q

What is the endothelial layer/endothelium?

A

A monolayer of cells

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57
Q

What does the elastic fibres in a blood vessel do?

A

Allows the vessel to stretch and recoil

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58
Q

What is collagen?

A

A tough, fibrous protein

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59
Q

Define the cardiac cycle

A

The repeating sequence of the action which the heart preforms from on heart beat to the next: Atrial systole, ventricular systole, cardiac diastole

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60
Q

What happens in cardiac diastole?

A

-The atria and ventricles relax
-The semilunar valves close caused by artery backflow
-Blood is drawn into the low pressure area in the atria
-The atria fill with blood
-The atrioventricular valves opens due to increasing pressure
-Blood moves from veins to atria and into the ventricles

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61
Q

What happens in atrial systole?

A

-Atria contract
-Remaining blood is pushed through atrioventricular valves

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62
Q

What happens on ventricular systole?

A

-Ventricles contract after slight delay
-Increasing blood pressure force the atrioventricular valves closed
-Blood is forced through the semilunar valves into arteries

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63
Q

What is the heart?

A
  • A double pump
    -Made of cardiac muscle
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64
Q

Describe the order in which blood flows through the heart

A

1.Blood from the body travels through the superior and inferior vena cava
2.Blood enters right atrium
3.Blood flows through an atrioventricular valve
4.The right ventricle fills with blood
5.The blood exits the heart through a semilunar valve
6. Blood travels through the pulmonary artery
Blood arrives at lungs and becomes oxygenated
7.Blood travels back to the heart through the pulmonary veins (right and left)
8.Blood enters left atrium
9.Blood is pushed through an atrioventricular valve
10.Blood fills the left ventricle
11.Blood is pushed through a semilunar valve
12.Blood enters the aorta
Blood then travels to the rest of the body

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65
Q

What is the first “thump” of a heartbeat caused by?

A

The closing of the atrioventricular valves

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66
Q

What is the second “thump” of a heartbeat caused by?

A

The closing of the semilunar valves

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67
Q

In which type of blood vessels is blood pressure lowest?

A

Veins

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68
Q

Is diastolic or systolic pressure highest?Why?

A

Systolic because the blood is being forced directly whereas diastolic relies on low pressure. Ventricles are contracting

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69
Q

What effect does high blood pressure have on the artery endothelium?

A

High blood pressure damages the endothelium

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70
Q

What is hypertension?

A

Hypertension is persistently high blood pressure

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71
Q

Is blood pressure highest when blood enters the capillaries or when blood leaves the capillaries to enter the veins?

A

When blood enters the capillaries

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72
Q

What charge is found on the oxygen atom of water?

A

A negative charge. Delta negative

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73
Q

Is a hydrogen bond weak or strong?

A

Weak

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74
Q

One end of a water molecule is slightly positive and one end is slightly negative,so a water molecule is described as _______?

A

Dipolar/Polar

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75
Q

State the chemical formula of water

A

H2O

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76
Q

Water is a liquid at room temperature because hydrogen bonds between water molecules give it an unusually high ___________?

A

Boiling point

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77
Q

When hydrogen bond form between 2 water molecule, does this result is adhesion or cohesion?

A

Cohesion

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78
Q

What type of drug reduces blood pressure?

A

Antihypertensive drug

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79
Q

State lifestyle factors which can lead to high blood pressure.

A

-high salt diet
-high saturated fat/sugar diet
-lack of exercise
-obesity
-high stress
-smoking
-regular, excessive alcohol intake

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80
Q

Describe a hydrogen bond

A

A weak force of attraction between molecules/ions

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81
Q

Explain how water acts as a solvent.

A

The delta positive H attracts (delta)negative ion or molecule/part of a molecule. Bond forms between water molecule and molecule/ion. Water molecules surround the molecule/ion and dissolve it

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82
Q

Give examples of water acting as a solvent in the human body

A

-Water in blood dissolve oxygen, glucose etc.
-Interstitial fluid
-Tissue fluid

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83
Q

Give examples of water acting as a solvent in a plant

A

-Water is xylem vessels dissolves plant mineral ions

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84
Q

What is cohesion?

A

The attraction for molecules to other molecules of the same type.

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85
Q

What is Adhesion?

A

The attraction for molecules to molecules of a different type

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86
Q

Negative ions are attracted to what in water?

A

The slightly positive hydrogen end

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87
Q

What does hydrophilic mean?

A

Water-loving, can form hydrogen bonds with water

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88
Q

What does hydrophobic mean?

A

Water-hating, can’t form hydrogen bonds with water

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89
Q

What group of molecules are hydrophilic? Give examples

A

Polar group, -OH and -NH2 (amine group)

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90
Q

What group of molecules or hydrophobic? Give examples

A

Non-polar, lipids

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91
Q

What are lipoproteins combined of and for?

A

Combination of lipids and proteins in order to transport lipids around the body

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92
Q

What happens when polar ions dissolve?

A

The ion becomes hydrated and an ion-dipole bond is formed

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93
Q

How large is a water molecule?

A

Very small

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94
Q

Does water have a high or low specific heat capacity?

A

High

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95
Q

What advantages does water having a high SHC have for biological organisms?

A

-Maintains a steady internal temperature, avoiding rapid changes
-Bodies of water where organisms live will not change temp. rapidly
-Animals can carry out thermoregulation

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96
Q

Specific heat capacity is:

A

The amount of energy (J) needed to raise the temperature of 1g by 1°c

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97
Q

Water being a liquid at bio temp. enables mass flow. What is mass flow?

A

The movement of fluids down a pressure/temperature gradient (around the body)

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98
Q

Define diffusion

A

The free movement of molecules/ions from a region of low concentration down a concentration gradient (through a partially permeable membrane)

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99
Q

Describe a mass transport system

A

Substances are transported in the flow of a fluid with a mechanism for moving it around the body

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100
Q

What are the two main types of circulatory system?

A

Open and closed

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101
Q

Which organisms have open circulatory systems?

A

Invertebrates

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102
Q

Describe how an open circulatory system works

A

The heart contracts, pumping blood into empty cavities within the organism. These cavities surround the organs allowing for gas exchange/exchange of substances. The blood is the drawn back over the gills (becoming oxygenated) before travelling into the (relaxed) heart

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103
Q

What are the differences between an open and closed circulatory system?

A

-OCS is under low pressure while CCS is under high pressure
-CCS has blood vessels, OCS does not
-CCS maintains higher blood pressure and therefore allows faster transport
-CCS has directed flow, OCS does not

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104
Q

What are the two main types of closed circulatory system?

A

Single and double

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105
Q

Fish have what type of circulatory system?

A

Single circulatory system

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106
Q

Describe a single circulatory system

A

Blood passes through the heart once. Deoxygenated blood enters the heart at low pressure and is pumped to the gills. Travelling through the gill capillaries, the blood becomes oxygenated. Blood travels from gills to the rest of the body at a low pressure before returning to the heart deoxygenated.

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107
Q

What are the advantages of a double circulatory system?

A

-Deoxygenated blood and oxygenated blood don’t mix meaning max efficiency of gas exchange
-Blood is re-pressurised allowing faster transport
-Allows blood to move at different pressures/speeds
-Enables fast removal of waste products
-Enables thermoregulation
-Allows us to develop higher brain function
-Creates higher metabolic rate
-Allows us to be more active

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108
Q

Why does blood travel at lower speed/pressure through the lungs?

A

To prevent damage and bursting of the delicate lung tissue and capillaries. The right side of the heart has less cardiac muscle

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109
Q

Why do unicellular organisms not have mass transport systems?

A

They have a large SA:V ratio. The diffusion distance is so small that direct diffusion with the surroundings is sufficient to maintain life

110
Q

Why do multicellular organisms need a mass transport system?

A

They have a low SA:V ratio and therefore must have a mass transport system in order to overcome the limitations of diffusion and to move molecules quickly between gas exchange surfaces and cells

111
Q

Which plasma protein is converted into fibrin?

A

Soluble fibrinogen by thrombin

112
Q

Which of these is and enzyme, prothrombin or thrombin?

113
Q

Is fibrinogen soluble or insoluble?

114
Q

Is thromboplastin a protein?

A

Yes, it is an enzyme and therefore a protein

115
Q

Name the enzyme that converts fibrinogen into fibrin

116
Q

Which vitamin is essential for the blood clotting process?

117
Q

Describe the role of a blood clot in coronary heart disease

A

The blood clot will block the coronary artery. This results in restricted blood flow and decreases/stops the oxygen supply to the cardiac muscle. This leads to anaerobic respiration which produces lactic acid/pain, the heart muscle cells die. This can lead to heart attacks

118
Q

Describe the role of a blood clot in a stroke.

A

The blood clot will block the arteries leading to the brain. This results in restricted blood flow and decreases/stops the oxygen supply to the brain tissue. Causing brain cells to die. The can lead to strokes

119
Q

What are the two enzymes used in the blood clotting process?

A

Thrombin and Thromoplastin

120
Q

Is fibrin a fibrous or globular protein?

121
Q

Which two blood components get trapped into he fibrin mesh to form a blood clot?

A

Platelets and red blood cells

122
Q

Name the 2 plasma protein that are present in blood, which become involved in the blood clotting process

A

Prothrombin and Fibrinogen

123
Q

Name the first enzyme to be produced in the blood clotting process. What releases this enzyme?

A

Thromboplastin. Released by platelets and damaged tissue in the presence of collagen

124
Q

Give reasons why it is important for blood to be able to clot

A
  • Stops mass blood loss
  • Repairs damaged endothelium/tissue
  • Prevents infection
125
Q

Why can’t the enzyme fibrinogen convert prothrombin to thrombin?

A

The active site is the wrong shape, so fibrinogen cannot fit into it, but prothrombin can (enzyme specificity)

126
Q

What is a blood clot known as?

A

Thrombosis or thrombus

127
Q

What is a fibrous protein?

A

A long, thin protein that is insoluble in water

128
Q

What is a globular protein?

A

A protein that is spherical in shape and are soluble in water. They perform metabolic roles (enzymes)

129
Q

What is needed in addition to thromboplastin to catalyse the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin?

A

Calcium ions and vitamin K

130
Q

What is a platelet?

A

A cell fragment

131
Q

The fibrin forms a _______ to trap the red blood cells and platelets

132
Q

The enzyme thrombin _________ the ___________ of fibrinogen to fibrin

A
  • catalyses
  • conversion
133
Q

Which forms first, a plaque or an atheroma?

134
Q

Which type of blood cells move into artery walls when the endothelium is damaged?

A

White blood cells

135
Q

Name the type of lipid that builds up in artery walls during atherosclerosis

A

Cholesterol

136
Q

What effect does atherosclerosis have on the elasticity of artery walls?

A

Atherosclerosis reduces elasticity and hardens walls

137
Q

If atherosclerosis cause an artery lumen diameter to decrease from 5mm to 1.2mm, calculate the percentage decrease in lumen diameter

A

5-1.2 = 3.8, 3.8/5=0.76, 0.76x100= 76% decrease

138
Q

Why does atherosclerosis usually take place in arteries rather than veins?

A

Arteries carry blood at a much higher pressure than veins and therefore the endothelium of arteries gets damaged more

139
Q

Which mineral ion is involved in the development of plaques in atherosclerosis?

A

Calcium 2+ ion

140
Q

Why is atherosclerosis described as self-perpetuating?

A

An atheroma will block/narrow the lumen of an artery. This means the blood had a smaller area to pass through and this increases blood pressure. The increased blood pressure results in the damage of the endothelium and therefore leads to more atheroma

141
Q

Which mineral ion is involved in blood clotting and atherosclerosis?

A

Calcium 2+ ion

142
Q

Atherosclerosis is described as ______________ of the arteries, because there is a loss of elasticity in the artery

143
Q

Atherosclerosis is described as ______________ of the arteries, because there is a loss of elasticity in the artery

144
Q

What effect does atherosclerosis have on the lumen diameter of an artery?

A

It decreases it

145
Q

What is the process of atherosclerosis?

A
  • Damage - endothelium becomes damaged due to high blood pressures
  • Inflammatory response - white blood cells move to the artery wall
  • Atheroma formation - white blood cells accumulate chemicals from blood (cholesterol) and a fatty deposit builds up, atheroma
  • Plaque formation - Calcium, salts and fibrous tissue also build up at the site, resulting in a hard swelling called a plaque. This causes the vessel to lose elasticity and harden
  • Lumen blockage - blood causes the lumen to get narrower. This increases blood pressure and a positive feedback starts to bile up
146
Q

State lifestyle dietary factors which may lead to high blood pressure

A
  • High cholesterol in diet
  • High saturated fat diet
147
Q

Name the response triggered by damage to the artery endothelium

A

Inflammatory response

148
Q

Name 3 monosaccharides

A

Glucose, Fructose, Galactose

149
Q

Name 3 disaccharides

A

Maltose, Sucrose, Lactose

150
Q

Name 5 polysaccharides

A

Starch, Cellulose, Glycogen, Amylose, Amylopectin

151
Q

Name the bond which joins monosaccharides to form a disaccharide or polysaccharide

A

Glycosidic

152
Q

Name the branched polysaccharide found in starch

A

Amylopectin

153
Q

Which disaccharide is the transport sugar in plants?

154
Q

If a monosaccharide contains 5 carbons atoms, how many hydrogen atoms does it contain?

155
Q

If 250 monosaccharide are joined to form a polysaccharide, how many water molecules would be needed to hydrolyse the polysaccharide into monosaccharides?

A

249 ( there are 249 glycosidic bonds to break)

156
Q

Name the type of glycosidic bond which joins a branch to another chain in glycogen

A

1,6 glycosidic bond

157
Q

If 30% of a starch molecule is composed of amylose, what percentage of the starch molecule is composed of amylopectin?

158
Q

Why is it important for their function that starch that starch and glycogen are:
- Branched
- Insoluble in water
- Large
- Compact

A
  • quickly hydrolysed, as enzymes can work on each branch at the same time
  • The molecules can be stored in a cell without upsetting the osmotic flow in and out of the cell. Does not diffuse out of the cells
  • does not diffuse out of cells
  • more starch/glycogen, so glucose and energy, can be stored in a smaller space
159
Q

State the structural differences between glucose and maltose

A

Maltose has two glucose molecules bonded together ( two single glucose units) with a 1,5 glycosidic bond and is a disaccharide while glucose is a monosaccharide with 6 carbon atoms and a single sugar unit

160
Q

Write a glycosidic bond

161
Q

Name the two monosaccharides which make up lactose

A

Glucose and galactose

162
Q

Name the polysaccharide which stores energy in animal cells

163
Q

State the role of glucose in the human body

A

Glucose is needed for respiration in every cell of the body. Immediate energy source

164
Q

Give key features of monosaccharides which make them good for their role

A

They are able to for hydrogen bonds with water and therefore are soluble. The molecules are very small

165
Q

Is amylose branched or unbranched?

A

Unbranched

166
Q

Name the two monosaccharides which make up sucrose

A

Glucose and fructose

167
Q

Which polysaccharide, glycogen or amylose can be hydrolysed faster? Why?

A

Glycogen because it has branched endings

168
Q

Which polysaccharide, glycogen or amylose can be hydrolysed faster? Why?

A

Glycogen because it has branched endings

169
Q

Name the two monosaccharides which make up maltose

A

Glucose and glucose

170
Q

Name the two types of glycosidic bond present in glycogen

A

1,4 glycosidic bond and 1,6 glycosidic bond

171
Q

Name the polysaccharide which stores energy in plant cells

172
Q

State structural differences between amylose and glycogen

A

Glycogen is branched and contains 1,6 AND 1,4 glycosidic bonds and amylose ONLY has 1,4 glycosidic bonds

173
Q

How is energy released from glucose and where in a cell does this take place?

A

Through aerobic respiration in the mitochondria and cytoplasm. Or anaerobic respiration in cytoplasm

174
Q

By which process do glucose molecules enter cells when there is a higher glucose concentration outside the cell than inside the cell?

A

Facilitated diffusion

175
Q

Name the type of reaction that joins two monosaccharides to form a disaccharide

A

Condensation

176
Q

Is starch soluble in water ?

177
Q

If an animal cell cytoplasm contains a very high level of glucose, what might happen to the cell and why?

A

It may take in water by osmosis and burst, as the cell membrane does not prevent cell rupture

178
Q

Is glycogen sweet?

179
Q

Does fructose contain a glycosidic bond?

180
Q

Why is it important that monosaccharides like glucose are soluble in water?

A

So that they can be transported in liquids, blood

181
Q

Glucose has lots of polar OH groups, which make it soluble in water . Using your knowledge of water , explain how glucose dissolves in water?

A

Because the OH groups are able to bond the water with hydrogen bonds and become hydrated and therefore dissolve

182
Q

State structural differences between amylose and amylopectin

A

Amylopectin has branches and contains 1,6 glycosidic bonds, amylose does not
Amylose is straight chained and helixical

183
Q

State structural differences between lactose and amylose

A

Lactose is made of galactose and glucose whereas Amylose has many sugar units. Lactose only contains one glycosidic bond

184
Q

If 1100 monosaccharides are joined to form a polysaccharide, how many glycoside bonds are present in the polysaccharide?

185
Q

If 120 glucose molecules are present in a polysaccharide and 13 more are added, calculate the percentage increase in glucose molecules

A

13/120= 0.1083x100= 10.8%

186
Q

What is one simple sub-unit called?

A

Monomer, monosaccharide

187
Q

What are two sub units called

A

A dimer, disaccharide

188
Q

What is the general formula of monosaccharides?

189
Q

What are monosaccharides called with 6 carbon atoms?

A

Hexose sugars

190
Q

What is the OH group called?

A

Hydroxyl group

191
Q

What is the formula of the side chain?

192
Q

What does hydrolysis mean?

A

Water splitting

193
Q

In a hydrolysis reaction water is _________________?

A

Added to the bond

194
Q

What type of molecule is cholesterol?

195
Q

Where does the cholesterol in the body come from?

A
  • From our diet (Saturated and unsaturated fat)
  • Produces in the liver from other molecules
196
Q

State the functions of cholesterol in the body

A
  • Used to make bile salts (for lipid digestion)
  • Used to make vitamin D
  • Regulates fluidity of cell membranes
  • Used to make steroids
197
Q

Explain how cholesterol is transported in the blood

A

Cholesterol is a lipid and therefore is insoluble. In order to carry cholesterol is the blood it must combine with a lipoprotein which are soluble so can be transported in the blood

198
Q

Explain why too much saturated fat/cholesterol/LDLs in the body can increase the risk of developing CVD

A
  • An excess of LDL is blood will overload LDL receptors, so blood cholesterol levels increase
  • Saturated fats also decrease LDL receptor activity, further increasing blood cholesterol levels
  • An excess of LDL leads to large fatty deposits forming in blood vessels when damaged. These deposits increase blood pressure by blocking blood flow. This also means that they may cause heart attacks or strokes
199
Q

Explain why HDLs is the body can decrease CVD risk

A

HDLs bind to LDL cholesterol deposits in vessels. This reduces the affect of the LDL which in turn reduces risk of CVD

200
Q

Explain why a high fibre diet reduces the CVD risk

A

Dietary fibre can’t be digested so it passes through the digestive system. It helps lower the absorption of cholesterol and increase excretion of cholesterol, reducing atherosclerosis risk

201
Q

Explain the benefit of taking statins

A

Statins reduce cholesterol levels and this reduces the formation of fatty deposits

202
Q

Explain the risks associated with taking statins

A

Statins can lead to side effects like muscle inflammation, muscle pains, liver damage and nausea

203
Q

State the 3 elements that all lipids are made from

A

Oxygen, Carbon, Hydrogen

204
Q

State the key role of lipids in the body

A

Lipids create fatty tissue which stores energy and acts as padding/protection/insulation and is used in cell membranes

205
Q

Name the two types of monomers that triglycerides are made from

A

Glycerol and 3 fatty acids

206
Q

Name the bond that links these two types of monomers in a triglyceride

A

Ester bond

207
Q

Describe the structure of a fatty acid

A

A fatty acid is comprised of a carboxylic acid group and a hydrocarbon chain/tail

208
Q

How many OH groups does glycerol have?

209
Q

What name is given to a long chain made only of C and H atoms?

A

Hydrocarbon chain

210
Q

What is the name given to a COOH group?

A

A carboxylic acid group

211
Q

Which group on a glycerol molecule does a fatty acid bond to?

212
Q

Explain how a triglyceride forms

A

A glycerol molecule and 3 fatty acids bond together in a condensation reaction resulting is the release of a water molecule and a triglyceride bonded with and ester bond. Using an enzyme

213
Q

State the differences between an unsaturated fatty acid and a saturated fatty acid

A
  • Saturated fatty acids have no double carbon bonds whereas unsaturated fatty acids do
  • Unsaturated fatty acids have ‘kinks’ in the chain whereas saturated fatty acids are long straight chains
  • Saturated fatty acids can be stored compactly and have strong intermolecular bonds between chains whereas unsaturated fatty acids can’t be compactly stored, leading to weak intermolecular bonds
  • Saturated fatty acids have the full complement of H atoms but unsaturated fatty acids do not
214
Q

Explain why saturated fats have a higher melting point than unsaturated fats.

A

Saturated fats have long straight chains that can be stored compactly together. This leads to strong intermolecular bonds between molecules whereas unsaturated fats have weak intermolecular bonds due to their bent shape. Therefore saturated fats have a higher melting point as they have stronger intermolecular bonds that need to be overcome

215
Q

How many ester bonds are found in a triglyceride?

216
Q

What is a condensation reaction?

A

A reaction between two or more molecules that results in a bond being formed and a release/loss of water molecule/s as one of the products

217
Q

Which type of chemical reaction takes place when a triglyceride breaks down into fatty acids and glycerol?

A

A hydrolysis reaction

218
Q

If 4 triglyceride molecules are broken down, how many water molecules will be released?

A

3x4=12 12 bonds

219
Q

What is an essential fatty acid?

A

A fatty acid that is needed for the function of our body but can’t be formed by the body so must be obtained in the diet

220
Q

Is an enzyme needed to break down a triglyceride into its monomers?

221
Q

What would happen to the pH in a flask when the triglycerides in the flask are hydrolysed?

A

The pH would decrease as the hydrolysis of a triglyceride would lead to the release of fatty acids. These acids would lower the pH

222
Q

Are unsaturated fats usually solid or liquid at room temperature?

A

Liquid (or soft solids)

223
Q

A fatty acid has one double bond. Is is necessarily an unsaturated fatty acid?

A

No the double bond could be the C=O double bond carboxyl group

224
Q

What does an ester bond look like?

225
Q

Define polysaccharide

A

Many sugar monomer joined together by glycosidic bonds formed in a condensation reaction

226
Q

What type of glucose is starch made from?

A

Alpha glucose

227
Q

What type of glucose is glycogen made from?

A

Alpha glucose

228
Q

What type of glucose is cellulose made from?

A

Beta glucose

229
Q

What is cellulose used for?

A

Plant cell walls

230
Q

What is glycogen used for?

A

Storage of glucose in animals

231
Q

What do starch used for?

A

Storage of glucose in plants

232
Q

What are lipids soluble in?

A

Organic solvents (ethanol)

233
Q

What is energy input?

A

the energy you put into your body e.g food

234
Q

What is energy output?

A

the energy that your body uses up e.g. BMR and exercise

235
Q

What happens in the body is energy input is regularly higher than energy output?

A

energy imbalance, energy stored as fat and body will gain weight - become obese

236
Q

What happens in the body if energy output is regularly higher than energy input?

A

energy imbalance, body will lose weight - become underweight

236
Q

What does energy balance mean?

A

where energy input in equal to energy output

237
Q

List the consequences of excessive weight gain

A
  • become obese, lose mobility
  • increase risk of atherosclerosis and therefore heart attack or stroke (CVD)
  • increase risk of type II diabetes
  • increase heart rate and blood pressure (Hypertension)
238
Q

List the consequences of excessive weight loss

A
  • malnourishment, gallstones, tiredness, dehydration, irritability, depression
  • reduced cognitive ability, reduced muscle/tissue mass, decreased mobility/stamina. difficulty staying warm
  • death
239
Q

Why does being overweight increase the risk of developing CVD?

A
  • higher blood pressure and heart rate
  • more fatty deposits are restricting blood flow and oxygen supply
  • damaged endothelium
  • atherosclerosis
  • blood vessels harden and narrow
  • Risk of blood clot increases
  • puts extra strain on the heart
  • increased risk of heart attack
240
Q

Name the 2 obesity indicators

A
  • BMI
  • waist to hip ratio
241
Q

State the units for BMI

242
Q

What is the formula for calculating BMI?

A

weight, kg / height2, m2

243
Q

Calculate BMI for a person with a body mass of 55kg and a height of 1.50m

A

55/1.52 = 55/2.25 = 24.44kgm-2

243
Q

Who is BMI unsuitable for?

A
  • people over 60
  • certain ethnic groups
  • Children
  • Athletes
  • those with long term health conditions
243
Q

How can someone reduce their BMI?

A
  • eat less saturated fats
  • eat the cholesterol
  • more polysaturated fat
    -reduce stress
  • increase antioxidants
  • have an energy imbalance towards energy output
  • reduce salt intake
  • reduce alcohol intake
  • stop smoking
  • longer/more intense exercise/ increase activity. this increases muscle mass and metabolic rate. muscles use more energy than fat
243
Q

Define calorie

A

one calorie is the quantity of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1cm3 of water by 1*c

244
Q

What does BMR mean?

A

basal metabolic rate- the amount of energy needed for essential processes

244
Q

How do you calculate waist to hip ratio

A

Waist circumference / hip circumference

244
Q

define multifactorial

A

developing the disease relies on multiple factors all combined/contributing to the risk

244
Q

1 calorie = ______ J

244
Q

What does DRV mean?

A

dietary reference values- estimate requirements

244
Q

What is the lowest boundary for overweight?

244
Q

What is the maximum waist to hip value for men?

245
Q

How do calcium channel blockers work?

A

calcium enters muscle tissue through calcium channels in order to allow the muscle to contract. CC blockers will block the channels resulting in to contraction from the smooth muscle and therefore lower bp

245
Q

What is the maximum waist to hip value for women?

246
Q

What is the main side effect of antihypertensives?

246
Q

What class of drugs are used to reduce blood pressure

A

Antihypertensives

246
Q

How do ACE inhibitors work?

A

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors prevent the production of the angiotensin II hormone from angiotensin I. This hormone is responsible for vasoconstriction so inhibiting it will prevent vasoconstriction and lower bp

247
Q

How do diuretics work?

A

diuretics decreases water retention and increases the volume of urine. this helps to remove excess fluids and salts, leading to a decrease in the blood plasma volume. reducing bp

248
Q

What is the main drug for reducing cholesterol?

249
Q

How do statins work?

A

Statins inhibit the enzyme(HMG-CoA) involved in the production of LDL cholesterol in liver, reducing cholesterol

250
Q

What are the main side effects of statins?

A

tiredness, disturbed sleep

251
Q

What are the two types of drug used to reduce blood clots?

A
  • Anticoagulants
  • Platelet inhibitory drugs
252
Q

How does warfarin work?

A

Warfarin is an anticoagulant that interferes with the production of vitamin K and therefore it affects the blood clotting process

253
Q

How does aspirin work?

A

aspirin is a platelet inhibitory drug that reduces the ‘stickiness’ of the platelets, reducing blood clot formation

254
Q

What is the side effect of drugs that reduce blood clotting?

A

Serious bleeding

255
Q

Explain how antioxidants reduce the risk of developing CVD

A

In the body there are particles called free radicals. antioxidants neutralise these free radicals by donating an electron. this stops the radicals from damaging cells

256
Q

Define free radicals

A

an atom in a molecule which has a free unpaired electron

257
Q

Explain free radicals

A

these are made in the body as a product of reactions and are found in the environment
they will cause damage to cell components and are very reactive

258
Q

Define antioxidants

A

compounds that protect against free radical damage