topic 2.7/7.1/7.2/7.3- DNA replication, transcription and translation Flashcards

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1
Q

describe the meselson and stahl experiment

A

DNA molecules were prepared using the heavier 15N and then induced to replicate in the presence of the lighter 14N

DNA samples were then separated via centrifugation to determine the composition of DNA in the replicated molecules

The results after two divisions supported the semi-conservative model of DNA replication

After one division, DNA molecules were found to contain a mix of 15N and 14N, disproving the conservative model
After two divisions, some molecules of DNA were found to consist solely of 14N, disproving the dispersive model

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2
Q

primary structure of proteins

A

the sequence and number of amino acids in the polypeptide

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3
Q

how many commonly occurring amino acids are there

A

20

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4
Q

secondary structure of a protein

A

the formation of alpha helices and beta pleated sheets stabilised by hydrogen bonding

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5
Q

what do hydrogen bonds form between in secondary structures of protein?

A

the carbonyl (C=O) group of one residue and the amino group (N-H) of an amino acid in another part of the chain

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6
Q

tertiary structure of a protein

A

the further folding of the polypeptide stabilised by interactions between R groups

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7
Q

state the 4 types of interaction between R groups (tertiary protein structure)

A
  • +vely charged R-groups will interact with -vely charged R-groups
  • hydrophobic AAs orientate themselves toward the centre of the polypeptide to avoid water contact, but hydrophilic AAs orientate themselves outward
  • polar R-groups form H bonds with other polar R-groups
  • R-group of AA cysteine forms a covalent bond with the R-group of another cysteine forming a disulphide bridge
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8
Q

quaternary structure of a protein

A

exists in proteins with more than one polypeptide chain (and sometimes non-polypeptide components)

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9
Q

define transcription

A

the synthesis of mRNA copied from the DNA base sequences by RNA polymerase

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10
Q

name the 3 stages of translation

A

initiation, elongation, termination

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11
Q

where does transcription begin?

A

at the promoter (a site in the DNA)

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12
Q

what direction does transcription occur in?

A

the 3’ to 5’ direction

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13
Q

define a cistron

A

the bit of the DNA that unwinds, so the region that codes for one allele

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14
Q

describe the 5 steps of transcription

A
  1. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter
  2. it moves along the gene separating the DNA strand into single strands and pairing up mRNA nucleotides with complementary bases on the template/ antisense strand (in the 3’ to 5’ direction)
  3. it forms covalent bonds between the RNA nucleotides
  4. transcription stops at the end of the gene and the mRNA strand leaves through the nuclear pore
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15
Q

in what direction does transcription occur

A

3’ to 5’ direction, following the antisense strand

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16
Q

why do we call the genetic code degenerate? and universal?

A

there are more codons than amino acids and therefore some amino acids have more than one codon; it is the same across all kingdoms

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17
Q

cap

A

Capping involves the addition of a methyl group to the 5’-end of the transcribed RNA
The methylated cap provides protection against degradation by exonucleases
It also allows the transcript to be recognised by the cell’s translational machinery (e.g. nuclear export proteins and ribosome)

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18
Q

tail

A

at the 3’ end of the mRNA chain, a tail of 100-200 adenine molecules in a row are added (this is called poly-A)- this improves the stability of the RNA transcript and facilitates its export from the nucleus

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19
Q

what are introns?

A

intervening sequences- sequences that will not contribute to the formation of the polypeptide

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20
Q

what does mRNA splicing do?

A

it increases the number of different proteins an organism can produced

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21
Q

what happens during mRNA splicing?

A

before it leaves the nucleus, introns removed by sn RNPs (combine with each other to form a spliceosome) to form a mature strand of mRNA which is all capable of coding for AAs

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22
Q

define translation

A

the synthesis of polypeptides on ribosomes

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23
Q

describe initiation (translation)

A
  1. mRNA molecule binds to small ribosomal unit at an mRNA binding site
  2. an initiator tRNA molecule carrying methionine binds at the start codon, AUG
  3. large ribosomal unit binds to the small one
  4. initiator tRNA= in P site
    another tRNA binds to the next codon= in A site
    peptide bond formed between AAs in P and A sites
24
Q

P site and A site and E site

A

A-site (aminoacyl) is the first binding site.

P-site (for peptidyl) is the second binding site

he E-site is the third and final binding site for t-RNA in the ribosome during translation

25
Q

describe elongation (translation)

A

repeated steps:
- ribosome translocates 3 bases along the mRNA, moving the tRNA in the P site to the E site, and allowing a new tRNA to bind to next codon and occupy the vacant A site

26
Q

describe termination (translation)

A

process continues until a stop codon is reached when the free polypeptide is released.

27
Q

in what direction does translation occur

A

the movement of the mRNA strand is from the 5’ end to the 3’ end

28
Q

what follows the termination of translation?

A

disassembly of the components

29
Q

distinguish between the role of free ribosomes and the role of bound ribosomes

A

free- synthesise proteins for use primarily within the cell (ie destined for cytoplasm, mitochondria and chloroplasts)
bound to endoplasmic reticulum- synthesise proteins primarily for secretion or for use in lysosomes.

30
Q

what determines whether a protein is synthesised by a free/bound ribosome?

A

the presence of a signal sequence on the polypeptide being translated (first part). this becomes bound to a signal recognition protein that stops the translation until it can bind to a receptor on the surface of the ER.

31
Q

describe protein synthesis in prokaryotes

A

translation and transcription are coupled- translation can occur immediately after transcription in prokaryotes due to the absence of a nuclear membrane.

32
Q

what are polysomes and what do they represent?

A

structures visible in an electron microscope- they represent multiple ribosomes attached to a single mRNA molecule.

33
Q

describe replication of DNA

A

the replication of DNA is semi-conservative and depends on complementary base pairing.

34
Q

describe the first 2 steps of semi-conservative DNA replication

A
  1. Hydrogen bonds holding complementary bases together are broken by DNA helicase; the two strands separate and DNA unzips
  2. Topoisomerase releases the strain at the replication fork, and single stranded binding proteins keep the fork open, allowing DNA helicase to function.
35
Q

describe the middle 3 steps of semi-conservative DNA replication

A
  1. RNA primase catalyses the attachment of RNA primers onto the template DNA strand, allowing DNA polymerase (III) to locate the start of the template strand and attach to it
  2. Free floating nucleosides in the nucleus form hydrogen bonds with complementary, exposed bases on unzipped DNA. DNA polymerase ensures that nucleosides are joined together by phosphodiester covalent bonds.
  3. As the nucleosides attach to the growing DNA strand, they lose their 2nd and 3rd phosphate groups
36
Q

what are nucleosides

A

deoxynucleoside triphosphates
- DNA molecules with 3 phosphate groups rather than 1

37
Q

describe the final 2 steps of semi-conservative DNA replication

A
  1. DNA polymerase III can only add nucleotides to a DNA strand in the 5’ to 3’ direction
    LEADING STRAND (5’ to 3’)- joining of nucleotides occurs continuously
    LAGGING STRAND (3’ to 5’)- multiple RNA primers needed, strand is formed in Okazaki fragments
  2. once the process on the lagging strand is done, DNA polymerase I replaces primers with DNA nucleotides and the Okazaki fragments are joined together by DNA ligase.
38
Q

describe a PCR

A

Denaturation – DNA sample is heated (~90ºC) to separate the two strands
Annealing – Sample is cooled (~55ºC) to allow primers to bind to the 2 strands
Elongation – Sample is heated to the optimal temperature for a heat-tolerant polymerase (Taq) to function (~75ºC) and extend the nucleotide chain from the primers

39
Q

give an example of the universality of the genetic code

A

E. coli bacteria were modified by transferring the genes for making human insulin to it. The insulin produced has exactly the same amino acid sequence as if the gene was being transcribed and translated in human cells.

40
Q

describe the Hershey-Chase experiment

A

Viruses (T2 bacteriophage) were grown in one of two isotopic mediums in order to radioactively label a specific viral component
Viruses grown in radioactive sulfur (35S) had radiolabelled proteins (sulfur is present in proteins but not DNA)
Viruses grown in radioactive phosphorus (32P) had radiolabeled DNA (phosphorus is present in DNA but not proteins)

The viruses were then allowed to infect a bacterium (E. coli) and then the virus and bacteria were separated via centrifugation

The larger bacteria formed a solid pellet while the smaller viruses remained in the supernatant

The bacterial pellet was found to be radioactive when infected by the 32P–viruses (DNA) but not the 35S–viruses (protein)

This demonstrated that DNA, not protein, was the genetic material because DNA was transferred to the bacteria

41
Q

what are non-coding regions of DNA?

A

regions of DNA that do not code for proteins but have other important functions (eg telomeres for protective function)
- some non-coding regions play a role in the regulation of gene expression such as enhancers and silencers

42
Q

define a variable number Tandem repeat (VNTR)

A

a short nucleotide sequence that shows variations between individuals in terms of the number of times the sequence is repeated.

43
Q

define a locus

A

the physical location of a heritable element on the chromosome

44
Q

describe DNA sequencing

A
  • many copies of the DNA placed in test tubes with deoxyribonucleotides, the enzymes necessary for replication and dideoxyribonucleotides that have been labelled with different fluorescent markers
  • the ddns will be incorporated into some of the new DNA but will stop replication at exactly the point where they were added
  • fragments separated by length using electrophoresis
  • sequence of bases analysed by comparing the colour of the fluorescence with the length of the fragment
45
Q

what is gene expression regulated by?

A

proteins that bind to specific base sequences in DNA

46
Q

give examples of proteins that regulate gene expression

A

Activator proteins bind to enhancer sites and increase the rate of transcription
Repressor proteins bind to silencer sequences and decrease the rate of transcription
Binding of proteins to promoter-proximal elements is necessary to initiate transcription

47
Q

differentiate between housekeeping genes and tissue-specific genes

A

housekeeping genes are constantly required genes
tissue specific gene- function and expression are preferred in one or several tissues/cell types

48
Q

give 4 types of gene regulation

A

transcriptional- genes turned off and on
post transcriptional- modifying the mRNA so translation produces different proteins
translational- translation can be stopped or started
post translational- the structure of proteins can be changed after they are made to change their role

49
Q

the bacterium E.coli uses glucose as a respiratory substrate. In the absence of glucose E.coli can use lactose. Explain how lactose induces the enzyme system involved in its uptake and metabolism

A
  1. Lac operon; a section of E.coli’s DNA that codes for enzymes that break down lactose into b glucose and galactose
  2. normally a repressor substance is bound to the operator
  3. this prevents RNA polymerase from binding at the promoter, thereby preventing transcription
  4. lactose binds to the repressor, changing the shape of the protein molecule and causing it to be unable to bind to the operator
  5. RNA polymerase binds at the promoter, and transcription occurs (= gene is switched on)
  6. lactose permeate (to allow the cells to take in lactose from the surroundings) and beta-galactosidase (to break lactose down) are produced
50
Q

what are the two types of transcriptional modification?

A
  • use of repressor/activator proteins
  • histone modification
51
Q

gene ‘switched off’- histone modification

A
  • silent (condensed) chromatin
  • methylated cytosines
  • deacetylated histones
  • transcription prevented
52
Q

gene ‘switched on’- histone modification

A
  • active (open) chromatin
  • unmethylated cytosines
  • acylated histones
  • transcription possible
53
Q

DNA is —– and histones are ——

A

negative; positive

54
Q

adding an acetyl group to a histone

A

neutralizes this positive charge on the histone and hence reduces the binding between histones and DNA, leading to a more open structure

55
Q

adding a methyl group to a histone

A

maintains the positive charge, making DNA more coiled and reducing transcription

56
Q

describe the function and actions of tRNA activating enzymes

A
  1. a specific amino acid and ATP bind to the enzyme
  2. the amino acid is activated by the hydrolysis of ATP and covalent bonding of AMP
  3. The correct tRNA binds to the active site. The amino acid binds to the attachment site on the tRNA and AMP is released
  4. the activated tRNA is released