Topic 2: Design Constraints Flashcards
1
Q
What is max baluster opening?
A
4” (100mm)
2
Q
Define coproduct
A
A marketable byproduct from a process that can include materials traditionally considered to be waste but that can be used as raw material in a different manufacturing process
3
Q
Define: demand controlled ventilation
A
A system designed to adjust the amount of ventilation air provided to a space, based on the extent of occupancy. The system normally uses carbon dioxide sensors, but can use occupancy sensors or air quality sensors
4
Q
Define: embodied energy
A
The total energy required to extract, produce, fabricate, and deliver a material to job site
Including the collection of raw materials, the energy used to extract and process the raw material, transportation from original site to processing plant or factory, the energy required to turn raw material into a finished product, and energy required to transport to job site
5
Q
Define: post-consumer
A
Refers to a material or product that has served it’s intended use and has been diverted or recovery from a waste destined or disposal, having completed its life as a consumer item
6
Q
Define: post-industrial
A
Reffing to materials generated in n manufacturing process (trimmingorscrape) that have been recovered or diverted from solid waste. Also called pre-consumer
7
Q
Define: renewable product
A
A product that can be grown, naturally replenished, or cleanse at a rate that exceeds humane manufacturing process.
8
Q
Define: Sustainable
A
The condition of being able to meet the needs of the present generation without compromising the needs of future generations
9
Q
Define: Area of refuge
A
An event where persons unable to use stairways can remain temporarily to await instructions or assistance during emergency evacuation
10
Q
Define: corridor
A
An enclosed exit access component that defines and provides a path of egress travel to an exit. A corridor may or may not be protected depending on the particular requirements of the code.
11
Q
Define: exit access doorway
A
A door or access point along the path of egress travel from an occupied room, area, or space where the path of egress enters an intervening room, corridor, enclosed exit access stair, or enclosed exit access ramp.
12
Q
Define: egress court
A
A court or yard that provides access to a public way for one or more required exits. Firmly called exit egress
13
Q
Define: exit enclosure
A
A fully enclosed portion of an exit that is only used as a means of egress and provides for a path of egress either in a or vertical horizontal direction. In most cases, exit enclosures mean protected stairways
14
Q
Define: exit passageway
A
A horizontal fully enclosed portion of an exit that is only used as a means of egress. An exit passageway leads from an exit doorway to an exit discharge or public way. Common example: exit from the door at ground level of an interior stairway that leads through a building to an outside exit
15
Q
Define: horizontal exit
A
An exit through a minimum 2 hour rated wall that divides a building into two or more separate exit access to afford safety from fire and smoke.
16
Q
Define: stair
A
A change in elevation, consisting of one or more risers
17
Q
Define: stairway
A
One or more flights of stairs, either exterior or interior, with the necessary landings and plotforms connecting them, to form a continuous and uninterrupted passage from one level to another
18
Q
Define: travel distance
A
The measurement of the distance between the most remote occupiable point of an area or room to the entrance of the nearest exit that serves it.it is part of the exit access and is measured in a straight a long the line path of exit travel.
19
Q
Define: combustible
A
Material that will ignite and burn, either as a flame or glow, that undergoes this process in air at pressures and temperature that might occur during a fine
20
Q
Define: fire assembly
A
An assembly of a fire door, fire window, or fire damper, including all required anchorage, frames, silk, and hardware
21
Q
Define: fire barrier
A
A fire-resistance-rated vertical or horizontal assembly designed to restrict the spread of fire in which openings are protected. 1-4 hour rating
22
Q
Define: fire partition
A
A fire-resistive component used to separate dwelling units in r-2 construction, guest rooms in r-1 construction, and tenant spaces in covers mall buildings;they are also used as corridor walls.
23
Q
Does fire barrier or fire partitions have more strict requirements?
A
Fire barrier
24
Q
Define: fire protective rating
A
The period of time an opening assembly can confine a fire or maintain integrity when test in accordance with nfpa252 (doors) nfpa257 (windows)
25
What does an assembly that requires a fire-protected rating have to withstand?
Must with stand fire exspoure and thermal shook as would an assembly that required fire-resistance rating, but it need not with stand heat transmissionas walls, columns, and floors do.
26
Define: fire rated glazing
Glazing with either a fire-protection rating or a fire resistance rating.
27
Define: fire resistance
The property of a material or assembly to withstand or resist the spread of fire or give protection from it.
28
Define: fire resistance rating
The period of time a building component such as a wall, floor, roof, beam, orcolumn can confine a fire or maintain it's structural integrity or both,when tested in accordance with ASTM E119. This is different from fire-protection rating, which involves protected opening assemblies
29
What is ASTM E119
Standard test methods for fire tests of building construction and materials
30
Define: flame resistance
The ability to withstand flame impingement or give protection from it.this is for individual materials as well as combinations of components when test in accordance with NFPA 701
31
Define: flame spread
The propagation of flame over a surface
32
What are the 10 major occupancy groups?
A - assembly
B - business
E - education
F - factory and industrial
H - hazardous
I - institutional
M - mercantile
R - residential
S - storage
U - utility
33
What is a fire partition?
A wall assembly with a fire-resistance rating of 1 hour
34
Where are fire partitions used?
1. Walls separating dwelling units
2. Walls separating guest rooms (R1,R2,I1)
3. Walls separating tenant spaces in covered malls spaces
4. Corridor walls
5. Elevator lobby separation for I-2 and I-3
35
What is NFPA 252?
Standard methods of fire tests of door assemblies - evaluates the ability of a door assembly to resist the passage of flames heat, and gases.
35
What is NFPA 257
Standard on fire tests for window and glass block assemblies - determines the degree of protection from the spread of fire, including flame, heat, and not gases.
36
What is the " hose stream ' portion of fire tests for door and window assemblies?
Determines if the door or window will stay within its frame when subjected to a standard blast from a fire hose
37
What is ASTM E84? How is test preformed?
Standard Test method for surface burning characteristics of building materials. Also known as Steiner tunnel test. Test is preformed in a harrow test chamber with a sample piece that has a controlled flame at one end.
38
What is the "smoke developed index"? And what test generates this number?
A number representing the amount of smoke generated as a material burns in the test chamber. ASTM E84 (standard test methods for surface burning characteristics of building materials
39
What are the 3 groups/classes based on the ASTM E84 test
1. Class A: 0 - 25 flame spread rating (most fire resistant)
2. Class B: 26 - 75 flame spread rating
3. Class C: 76 - 200 flame spread rating
40
Most codes require a smoke density of _____ or less?
450
41
What is the ADA?
Americans with disabilities act. Regulate the removal of barriers for people with disables.it is not a code or standard, but a piece of civil rights legislation
42
Can local jurisdictions write their own building codes?
Yes. But most cases a model code is adoptédinto law by reference.
43
What is a model code?
A code that has been written by a group comprised of experts knowledgeable in the field., without reference to any particular geographical area. If certain provisions are needed, the model code will be enacted with modification.
44
What is the primary model code? What is the primary code for Canada?
IBC - international building code
NBC - National building code of Canada
45
What does ASTM stand for? What do they do?
American society for testing materials, they publish thousands of test procedures that prescribe in detail all requirements. They do not actually preform the tests, but create the standards used by testing agencies.
46
What does NFPA stand for? What do they do?
National fire protection association, they create standards related to causes and prevention of destructive fires
47
What does ANSI? What do they do?
American national standards institute - they do not develop or create test standards, they instead approve standards developed by other organizations, they work to avoid standard duplication between organizations.
48
When a material or product standard requires a test procedure, where are these performed?
In a NRTL nationally recognized testing laboratory - an independent laboratory recognized by the occupational safety and health administration (OSHA)
49
What is "means of egress"?
A continuos and unobstructed path of vertical and horizontal egress travel from any point in a building or structure to a public way.
50
What are the 3 parts of a means to egress?
Exit access, exit, and exit discharge.
51
What is exit access and exit discharge?
Exit access is the portion of means of egress that leads to the entrance of an exit,i.e. The corridor on a second level which has a door to a staircase.
Exit discharge is the portion of the egress system between the termination of an exit and a public way. I.e. An exit balcony or stair case on the exterior of a building
52
What is occupant load?
The number of people that a building code assumes will occupy a given building or portion of a building based on its Occupancy classification
53
How are occupancy loads determined for areas without fixed seating?
Taking the area assigned to a particular use and dividing it by the occupant load factor as given in the code.
Occupant load factor = Area ÷ occupant
54
How are occupancy loads determined for areas with fixed seating?
Taking the actual number of fixed seats installed and adding the occupant load of areas without fixed seats.
55
What is occupant load factor?
The amount of area presumed to be occupied by one person and seen in table 1004.5 in IBC
56
What is the common path of egress travel?
The portion of the exit access travel distance measured from the most remote point of an area to **the point where the occupants have separate and distinct access to two exits and can choose which direction to go.**
57
When are two exits required in a building?
When the occupant load or the common path of egress travel exceeds the number given in IBC table 1006.2.1
58
When two exists are required for a space, what distance should they be placed apart from one another?
They must be placed at a distance apart equal to not less than one-half the length of the maximum overall diagonal dimension of the area being served. Distance apart can be reduced to one-third of the diagonal if the area is sprinklered.
59
What is the multiplying factor for determining exit & corridor widths?
0.3inches for stair ways and 0.2inches for egress components other than stairways- this generates a minimum width, but the minimum width must not be less than specified elswhere in code.
60
What corridor width satisfies most code requirements?
5 feet
61
What door width satisfies most code requirements?
3 feet
62
What length can a dead end corridor be? What are the exceptions?
20 feet.
50 feet if entire building is equipped with sprinkles for certain occupancies (B E F I-1 M R-1 R-2 R-4 S & U)
63
How is door opening width measured?
Dear opening width must be measured between the face of the door and the door stop when door is opened at 90 degrees.
64
What is minimum width & height of an egress door? (Without taking occupant load into account)
32 inch clear opening which results in a 36" door size. 80 inch minimum height.
65
What is panic hardware?
Hardware on a door that unlatches the door when pressure is applied against it rather than requiring a turning motion
66
What is the minimum width of a stairway?
When occupant load is over 50 occupants, 44 inches wide or multiplying the occupant load by 0.3 or 0.2. When occupant load is 49 occupants or less, 36 inches
67
How far can hand rails project into the minimum width of a staircase without affecting the width size?
4 1/2 inches on each side.
68
What are the minimum / maximum dimensions for stair risers & treads?
Risers between 4 inches & 7 inches - treads no smaller than 11 inches.
69
What is minimum dimension for a stair landing in direction of travel?
Not less that the width of the stair but need not be more than 48 in if stair is a straight run.
70
When is an intermediate hand rail required?
When a stair way is wider than 5 feet
71
How high does a stair hand rail need to be mounted?
Between 34 inches & 38 inches above stair nosing
72
How far must a handrail extend past the top stair riser? And the bottom risen?
Not less than 12 inches past top riser and not less than tread width for bottom riser
73
How far should a handrail be from the wall to allow for easy grasping?
1-1/2 inches
74
When does a handrail require a graspable finger recess?
When handrail perimeter is greater than 6 1/4 inches.
75
When are emergency escape and rescue openings required?
R2 occupancies with only 1 exit and R3 & R4 occupancies
76
What is the sequence for the permitting and contracting process?
1. Plan submitted & review - contractor or interior designer submits full sets and required form to the proper authorities
2. Review of the information required by building departments within the full drawing set and supporting documents
3. Issuance of permit & construction inspections
4. Final inspection & certificate of occupancy
5. Appeal process if necessary
77
What is the LCA and it's 4 phases?
LCA is a life cycle assessment, it provides the methodology to evaluate the environmental impact of using a particular material or product.
Phase 1 - determine **goals**
Phase 2 - **inventory analysis** to determine and quantify all inputs and outputs of the study
Phase 3 - **impact assessment** to characterize the effects of the process found in the inventory analysis
Phase 4 - **improvement analysis** to provide suggestions on how to reduce environmental impact
78
What are the 4 main stages of a products life cycle?
1. Raw material acquisition
2. Manufacturing
3. Use and maintenance
4. Disposal
79
What is an EPD and it's two types?
EPD is an environmental product declaration
Type 1 - industry wide which covers a generic type of product that several manufacturers make
Type 2 - product specific which is specific to a single manufacturers product
80
How high can a light switch be mounted?
48"
81
What height is the rim of a urinal to be mounted above the floor? What floor clearance is required around the urinal?
17 inches AFF, 30” x 48”
82
What is the toe clearance of a toile t stall?
9"
83
How far should a toilet be from the wall?
16" - 18" but min 18" when in a universal toilet stall
84
What is the floor space clearance at a lavatory or drinking fountain?
30" x 48"
85
What height is a universal lavatory mounted at? What is the minimum foot clearance height?
Lavatory 29" above finished floor - foot clearance of min 6" above finished floor
86
What is minimum universal lavatory depth?
17"
87
What is the min and max depth for an accessible water fountain?
17" - 25"
88
What is the knee clearance and spout height for an accessable drinking fountain?
Knee durance is 27" min - spout height is 36" Max
89
What are the floor clearances for an accessible bath tub with seat in the tub at front approach and side approach?
Side approach 30"min x the length of the bath tub - front approach 48"x60"min
90
What are the floor clearances for an accessible bath tub with seat at head of the tub at front approach and side approach?
Both approaches require 30" min x length of the tub plus 12" on side that has the seat
91
What are the required heights for grab bars in accessible bath tub?
One bar located 9" above top edge of tub - rest of grab bars located 33" - 36" above finished floor.
92
What are the dines and clearances for accessible bath tub grab bars
Add picture! Page 9-10
93
What is done when two floor finishes meet and there is a change in height?
- if change is less than 1/4”, it may be vertical without edge treatment
- if the change is between 1/4” and 1/2”, it must be beveled with slope no greater than 1:2
- if the change is greater than 1/2”, must be accomplished with a ramp
94
What ratio should a ramp be no greater than? What are the exceptions?
1:12 - 1 inch of rise for every 12 inch of run
Exceptions:
1:10 is allowed if existing site conditions do not allow for a 1:12 and the maximum rise doesn’t exceed 6” and 1:8 if maximum rise does not exceed 3”
95
When is a landing required within a ramp.
When the rise of the ramp reaches 30" a landing is required before the next run of ramp is encountered
96
What is minimum clear width of a ramp?
36"
97
What is a ramp's landing minimum length and width?
Ramps must be at least as wide as the ramp leading to it and have a length of 60"-if ramp changes direction after reaching the landing, ramp surface must be 60insq
98
What conditions does a ramp require a hand rail on both sides?
Ramps with a rise greater than 6" or when height is greater than 72"
99
When an open riser is permitted, what size sphere is not permitted to pass through tread opening?
4"
100
What are the 3 styles of stair nosings for accessible stairs?
Flush riser, angled nosing, rounded nosing
ADD PIC PG. 9-11
101
What is the max height a protruding objects lower edge for it to be detected by a person using a cane? When an object's lower edge is higher, how far is it allowed to project?
Max height is 27" and an object can project any mount as long as it does not reduce the clear width required for an accessible path of travel - if lower edge is higher than 27”, object can only project 4”
ADD PIC PG. 9-13
102
What is the vertical clearance of a space adjacent to an accessible path of travel?
80" min.
ADD PIC 9-13
103
What is a dectable warning?
A surface feature built in or applied to walking surfaces o the elements to warn hazards on a circulation path.
104
Audible emergency warning systems must produce a sound that exceeds the sound level in a space by at least ______ amount? With a max level of _______ ?
I5 dB and a max of 110 dB
105
Visual emergency warning systems must flash in what frequency?
1 cycle per second
106
What are the required heights for an elevator call button, floor designators. And hall lanterns located?
Call button at 48", floor designators at 60", an hall lanterns at min 72"
107
What is the required height for an elevators interior floor buttons?
48" - except when a side approach is possible and elevator has more than 16 opening, the buttons can be 54" above floor
108
When fixed seating is provided in accessible public space, what percentage of the seating is required to be accessible?
5% but no less than 1 table
109
What are the clearances for a wheelchairs at table?
30" wide x 49" long (19" under table & 30" from table edge to back of wheelchair)
if there is a wall directly behind, clearance from table edge to wall must be 36" min.
110
What criteria is evaluated to determine now sustainable a product or construction process is?
- embodied energy
- renewable material
- recycled content
- energy efficiency
- use of local materials
- durability
- low VOC
- low toxicity
- moisture problems
- Water conservation
- maintainability
- potential for reuse and recycling
- reusability
111
When using wood in a project, what 3 sustainable strategies can an interior use to help reduce the ecological problem of wood?
1. reclaimed wood: recycled wood from old buildings that have been salvaged
2. Sustainable or alt materials: engineered wood, MDF, laminated veneer wood ect.
3. Certified wood products: wood obtained through sustainable forest management practices
112
What is building commissioning?
The process of inspecting, testing, starting up, and adjusting building systems and then verifying and documenting that they are operating as intended and meet design criteria of the contract documents
113
What types of building systems can require building commissioning?
- mechanical systems
- electrical systems
- plumbing systems
- sprinkler systems
- fire management
- vertical transportation
- communication networks
114
What does building commissioning involve for an interior design project?
Verifying and ensuring building elements are designed, installed, and calibrated t operate as intended for the tenants scope of work
115
What is displacement ventilation? Why does it use less energy?
An air distribution system in which supply air originates at floor level and rises to return-air grilles in the ceiling -because air is distributed close to the users, it does not need to be cooled as much, resulting in less energy consumed.
116
How can interior designer reduce energy consumption with mechanical systems?
- design tenants hvac to conform with Energy Standard for Buildings or local energy codes
- don’t use CFC based refrigerants
- use displacement ventilation
117
How can an interior designer reduce electricity use?
- reduce power needed for lighting
- specify automatic occupancy lighting
- non-emergency lighting on a programmed timer
- specify daylight responsive controls
- specify energy efficient appliances
- specify highly reflective finishes to brighten up space
118
How can an interior designer influence water conservation?
- specify plumbing fixtures that use less than the maximum flow rate
- energy star products
119
What are the two groups of indoor air contaminates?
1. Chemical contaminants - VOC, inorganic chemicals, tobacco smoke,
2. Biological contaminants - mould, pollen, bacteria, viruses
120
What are the 4 basic causes of poor indoor air quality?
1. Contaminates from indoor source
2. Contaminates from outdoor sources
3. Biological contaminates
4. Poor ventilation
121
What are the three classifications of poor indoor air quality symptoms?
1. **Sick building syndrome** - when occupants experience health related symptoms within a building but can not directly link to a specific cause, **symptoms disappear when occupants leave the building**
2. **Building related illness** - health related symptom of a buildings occupant is defined and associated with a certain building contaminate, **symptoms do not disappear when occupants leaves the building**
3. **Multiple chemical sensitivity** - condition brought on by exposure to VOC or other chemicals, occupant will develop long term sensitivity to that chemical
122
What are strategies for maintaining good indoor air qualify?
- eliminate or reduce sources of pollution
- control ventilation
- establish good maintenance procedures
- control occupant activity
123
What is a hazardous material? What are the common ones?
'hazardous materials are chemicals or biological substances that pose a threat to the environment or to human health if related or misused.
Asbestos, vermiculite, lead, radon
124
How high can a light switch be mounted?
48"
125
Emerges lighting for a means of egress require a minimum lighting level of _______ at the floor level upon initial operation?
1 foot candle
126
Which is an acceptable allowance for the circulation faction in an open office plan using systems furniture?
A - 5-8%
B - 10-20%
C - 25-40%
D - 50-65%
C - 25-40%
127
What measurement range is an acceptable height for barrier-free shower set?
18-19inches
128
How far can a door project into the required width of a corridor without reducing it?
Doors, when fully opened, shall not reduce the required width by more than **7 inches** (178 mm). Doors in any position shall not reduce the required width by more than one-half
129
What is BIFMA?
Business and institutional Furniture Manufacturers Association - develops standards related to the commercial furniture industry
130
What is the maneuvering clearance for a front approach on the push side
12” clear from the latch side of door x 48”
PG 9-5
131
What is the maneuvering clearance for a front approach on the pull side
18” clear from latch side of door x 60”
PG 9-5
132
What is the maneuvering clearance for a latch side approach on the push side
24” clear from latch side of door x 42”
PG 9-5
133
What is the maneuvering clearance for a latch side approach on the pull side
24” clear from latch side of door x 48”
PG 9-5
134
What is the maneuvering clearance for a hinge side approach on the push side
54” x 42” no closer
54” x 48” with closer
PG 9-5
135
What is the maneuvering clearance for a hinge side approach on the pull side
36” clear on latch side of door x 60”
OR
42” clear on latch side of door x 54”
136
What is the clear floor space of around a toilet
56 “ (side) x 60”
Residential: 66” (side) - 60”
137
What is the clear floor space around a lavatory?
30” x 48”
138
Where can the toilet paper dispenser be located in a barrier free washroom?
7”-9” from the front edge of toilet to the centre line of the dispenser
15”-48” mounting height (can not interfere with side grab bar )
139
What size side and back grab bar are required for a barrier free washroom?
Where are they located?
Side: 42” - located 12” from the back wall
Back” 36” - located 12” from the centre line of toilet
Both mounted top of grab bar 33 - 36” AFF
