Topic 2: Design Constraints Flashcards

1
Q

What is max baluster opening?

A

4” (100mm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define coproduct

A

A marketable byproduct from a process that can include materials traditionally considered to be waste but that can be used as raw material in a different manufacturing process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define: demand controlled ventilation

A

A system designed to adjust the amount of ventilation air provided to a space, based on the extent of occupancy. The system normally uses carbon dioxide sensors, but can use occupancy sensors or air quality sensors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define: embodied energy

A

The total energy required to extract, produce, fabricate, and deliver a material to job site

Including the collection of raw materials, the energy used to extract and process the raw material, transportation from original site to processing plant or factory, the energy required to turn raw material into a finished product, and energy required to transport to job site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define: post-consumer

A

Refers to a material or product that has served it’s intended use and has been diverted or recovery from a waste destined or disposal, having completed its life as a consumer item

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define: post-industrial

A

Reffing to materials generated in n manufacturing process (trimmingorscrape) that have been recovered or diverted from solid waste. Also called pre-consumer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define: renewable product

A

A product that can be grown, naturally replenished, or cleanse at a rate that exceeds humane manufacturing process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define: Sustainable

A

The condition of being able to meet the needs of the present generation without compromising the needs of future generations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define: Area of refuge

A

An event where persons unable to use stairways can remain temporarily to await instructions or assistance during emergency evacuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define: corridor

A

An enclosed exit access component that defines and provides a path of egress travel to an exit. A corridor may or may not be protected depending on the particular requirements of the code.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define: exit access doorway

A

A door or access point along the path of egress travel from an occupied room, area, or space where the path of egress enters an intervening room, corridor, enclosed exit access stair, or enclosed exit access ramp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define: egress court

A

A court or yard that provides access to a public way for one or more required exits. Firmly called exit egress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define: exit enclosure

A

A fully enclosed portion of an exit that is only used as a means of egress and provides for a path of egress either in a or vertical horizontal direction. In most cases, exit enclosures mean protected stairways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define: exit passageway

A

A horizontal fully enclosed portion of an exit that is only used as a means of egress. An exit passageway leads from an exit doorway to an exit discharge or public way. Common example: exit from the door at ground level of an interior stairway that leads through a building to an outside exit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define: horizontal exit

A

An exit through a minimum 2 hour rated wall that divides a building into two or more separate exit access to afford safety from fire and smoke.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define: stair

A

A change in elevation, consisting of one or more risers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define: stairway

A

One or more flights of stairs, either exterior or interior, with the necessary landings and plotforms connecting them, to form a continuous and uninterrupted passage from one level to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define: travel distance

A

The measurement of the distance between the most remote occupiable point of an area or room to the entrance of the nearest exit that serves it.it is part of the exit access and is measured in a straight a long the line path of exit travel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define: combustible

A

Material that will ignite and burn, either as a flame or glow, that undergoes this process in air at pressures and temperature that might occur during a fine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define: fire assembly

A

An assembly of a fire door, fire window, or fire damper, including all required anchorage, frames, silk, and hardware

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define: fire barrier

A

A fire-resistance-rated vertical or horizontal assembly designed to restrict the spread of fire in which openings are protected. 1-4 hour rating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define: fire partition

A

A fire-resistive component used to separate dwelling units in r-2 construction, guest rooms in r-1 construction, and tenant spaces in covers mall buildings;they are also used as corridor walls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Does fire barrier or fire partitions have more strict requirements?

A

Fire barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define: fire protective rating

A

The period of time an opening assembly can confine a fire or maintain integrity when test in accordance with nfpa252 (doors) nfpa257 (windows)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does an assembly that requires a fire-protected rating have to withstand?

A

Must with stand fire exspoure and thermal shook as would an assembly that required fire-resistance rating, but it need not with stand heat transmissionas walls, columns, and floors do.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Define: fire rated glazing

A

Glazing with either a fire-protection rating or a fire resistance rating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Define: fire resistance

A

The property of a material or assembly to withstand or resist the spread of fire or give protection from it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Define: fire resistance rating

A

The period of time a building component such as a wall, floor, roof, beam, orcolumn can confine a fire or maintain it’s structural integrity or both,when tested in accordance with ASTM E119. This is different from fire-protection rating, which involves protected opening assemblies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is ASTM E119

A

Standard test methods for fire tests of building construction and materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Define: flame resistance

A

The ability to withstand flame impingement or give protection from it.this is for individual materials as well as combinations of components when test in accordance with NFPA 701

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Define: flame spread

A

The propagation of flame over a surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the 10 major occupancy groups?

A

A - assembly
B - business
E - education
F - factory and industrial
H - hazardous
I - institutional
M - mercantile
R - residential
S - storage
U - utility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a fire partition?

A

A wall assembly with a fire-resistance rating of 1 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where are fire partitions used?

A
  1. Walls separating dwelling units
  2. Walls separating guest rooms (R1,R2,I1)
  3. Walls separating tenant spaces in covered malls spaces
  4. Corridor walls
  5. Elevator lobby separation for I-2 and I-3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is NFPA 252?

A

Standard methods of fire tests of door assemblies - evaluates the ability of a door assembly to resist the passage of flames heat, and gases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is NFPA 257

A

Standard on fire tests for window and glass block assemblies - determines the degree of protection from the spread of fire, including flame, heat, and not gases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the “ hose stream ‘ portion of fire tests for door and window assemblies?

A

Determines if the door or window will stay within its frame when subjected to a standard blast from a fire hose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is ASTM E84? How is test preformed?

A

Standard Test method for surface burning characteristics of building materials. Also known as Steiner tunnel test. Test is preformed in a harrow test chamber with a sample piece that has a controlled flame at one end.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the “smoke developed index”? And what test generates this number?

A

A number representing the amount of smoke generated as a material burns in the test chamber. ASTM E84 (standard test methods for surface burning characteristics of building materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the 3 groups/classes based on the ASTM E84 test

A
  1. Class A: 0 - 25 flame spread rating (most fire resistant)
  2. Class B: 26 - 75 flame spread rating
  3. Class C: 76 - 200 flame spread rating
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Most codes require a smoke density of _____ or less?

A

450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the ADA?

A

Americans with disabilities act. Regulate the removal of barriers for people with disables.it is not a code or standard, but a piece of civil rights legislation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Can local jurisdictions write their own building codes?

A

Yes. But most cases a model code is adoptédinto law by reference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is a model code?

A

A code that has been written by a group comprised of experts knowledgeable in the field., without reference to any particular geographical area. If certain provisions are needed, the model code will be enacted with modification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the primary model code? What is the primary code for Canada?

A

IBC - international building code
NBC - National building code of Canada

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does ASTM stand for? What do they do?

A

American society for testing materials, they publish thousands of test procedures that prescribe in detail all requirements. They do not actually preform the tests, but create the standards used by testing agencies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does NFPA stand for? What do they do?

A

National fire protection association, they create standards related to causes and prevention of destructive fires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does ANSI? What do they do?

A

American national standards institute - they do not develop or create test standards, they instead approve standards developed by other organizations, they work to avoid standard duplication between organizations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

When a material or product standard requires a test procedure, where are these performed?

A

In a NRTL nationally recognized testing laboratory - an independent laboratory recognized by the occupational safety and health administration (OSHA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is “means of egress”?

A

A continuos and unobstructed path of vertical and horizontal egress travel from any point in a building or structure to a public way.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the 3 parts of a means to egress?

A

Exit access, exit, and exit discharge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is exit access and exit discharge?

A

Exit access is the portion of means of egress that leads to the entrance of an exit,i.e. The corridor on a second level which has a door to a staircase.

Exit discharge is the portion of the egress system between the termination of an exit and a public way. I.e. An exit balcony or stair case on the exterior of a building

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is occupant load?

A

The number of people that a building code assumes will occupy a given building or portion of a building based on its Occupancy classification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How are occupancy loads determined for areas without fixed seating?

A

Taking the area assigned to a particular use and dividing it by the occupant load factor as given in the code.

Occupant load factor = Area ÷ occupant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How are occupancy loads determined for areas with fixed seating?

A

Taking the actual number of fixed seats installed and adding the occupant load of areas without fixed seats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is occupant load factor?

A

The amount of area presumed to be occupied by one person and seen in table 1004.5 in IBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the common path of egress travel?

A

The portion of the exit access travel distance measured from the most remote point of an area to the point where the occupants have separate and distinct access to two exits and can choose which direction to go.

57
Q

When are two exits required in a building?

A

When the occupant load or the common path of egress travel exceeds the number given in IBC table 1006.2.1

58
Q

When two exists are required for a space, what distance should they be placed apart from one another?

A

They must be placed at a distance apart equal to not less than one-half the length of the maximum overall diagonal dimension of the area being served. Distance apart can be reduced to one-third of the diagonal if the area is sprinklered.

59
Q

What is the multiplying factor for determining exit & corridor widths?

A

0.3inches for stair ways and 0.2inches for egress components other than stairways- this generates a minimum width, but the minimum width must not be less than specified elswhere in code.

60
Q

What corridor width satisfies most code requirements?

A

5 feet

61
Q

What door width satisfies most code requirements?

A

3 feet

62
Q

What length can a dead end corridor be? What are the exceptions?

A

20 feet.

50 feet if entire building is equipped with sprinkles for certain occupancies (B E F I-1 M R-1 R-2 R-4 S & U)

63
Q

How is door opening width measured?

A

Dear opening width must be measured between the face of the door and the door stop when door is opened at 90 degrees.

64
Q

What is minimum width & height of an egress door? (Without taking occupant load into account)

A

32 inch clear opening which results in a 36” door size. 80 inch minimum height.

65
Q

What is panic hardware?

A

Hardware on a door that unlatches the door when pressure is applied against it rather than requiring a turning motion

66
Q

What is the minimum width of a stairway?

A

When occupant load is over 50 occupants, 44 inches wide or multiplying the occupant load by 0.3 or 0.2. When occupant load is 49 occupants or less, 36 inches

67
Q

How far can hand rails project into the minimum width of a staircase without affecting the width size?

A

4 1/2 inches on each side.

68
Q

What are the minimum / maximum dimensions for stair risers & treads?

A

Risers between 4 inches & 7 inches - treads no smaller than 11 inches.

69
Q

What is minimum dimension for a stair landing in direction of travel?

A

Not less that the width of the stair but need not be more than 48 in if stair is a straight run.

70
Q

When is an intermediate hand rail required?

A

When a stair way is wider than 5 feet

71
Q

How high does a stair hand rail need to be mounted?

A

Between 34 inches & 38 inches above stair nosing

72
Q

How far must a handrail extend past the top stair riser? And the bottom risen?

A

Not less than 12 inches past top riser and not less than tread width for bottom riser

73
Q

How far should a handrail be from the wall to allow for easy grasping?

A

1-1/2 inches

74
Q

When does a handrail require a graspable finger recess?

A

When handrail perimeter is greater than 6 1/4 inches.

75
Q

When are emergency escape and rescue openings required?

A

R2 occupancies with only 1 exit and R3 & R4 occupancies

76
Q

What is the sequence for the permitting and contracting process?

A
  1. Plan submitted & review - contractor or interior designer submits full sets and required form to the proper authorities
  2. Review of the information required by building departments within the full drawing set and supporting documents
  3. Issuance of permit & construction inspections
  4. Final inspection & certificate of occupancy
  5. Appeal process if necessary
77
Q

What is the LCA and it’s 4 phases?

A

LCA is a life cycle assessment, it provides the methodology to evaluate the environmental impact of using a particular material or product.

Phase 1 - determine goals
Phase 2 - inventory analysis to determine and quantify all inputs and outputs of the study
Phase 3 - impact assessment to characterize the effects of the process found in the inventory analysis
Phase 4 - improvement analysis to provide suggestions on how to reduce environmental impact

78
Q

What are the 4 main stages of a products life cycle?

A
  1. Raw material acquisition
  2. Manufacturing
  3. Use and maintenance
  4. Disposal
79
Q

What is an EPD and it’s two types?

A

EPD is an environmental product declaration

Type 1 - industry wide which covers a generic type of product that several manufacturers make
Type 2 - product specific which is specific to a single manufacturers product

80
Q

How high can a light switch be mounted?

A

48”

81
Q

What height is the rim of a urinal to be mounted above the floor? What floor clearance is required around the urinal?

A

17 inches AFF, 30” x 48”

82
Q

What is the toe clearance of a toile t stall?

A

9”

83
Q

How far should a toilet be from the wall?

A

16” - 18” but min 18” when in a universal toilet stall

84
Q

What is the floor space clearance at a lavatory or drinking fountain?

A

30” x 48”

85
Q

What height is a universal lavatory mounted at? What is the minimum foot clearance height?

A

Lavatory 29” above finished floor - foot clearance of min 6” above finished floor

86
Q

What is minimum universal lavatory depth?

A

17”

87
Q

What is the min and max depth for an accessible water fountain?

A

17” - 25”

88
Q

What is the knee clearance and spout height for an accessable drinking fountain?

A

Knee durance is 27” min - spout height is 36” Max

89
Q

What are the floor clearances for an accessible bath tub with seat in the tub at front approach and side approach?

A

Side approach 30”min x the length of the bath tub - front approach 48”x60”min

90
Q

What are the floor clearances for an accessible bath tub with seat at head of the tub at front approach and side approach?

A

Both approaches require 30” min x length of the tub plus 12” on side that has the seat

91
Q

What are the required heights for grab bars in accessible bath tub?

A

One bar located 9” above top edge of tub - rest of grab bars located 33” - 36” above finished floor.

92
Q

What are the dines and clearances for accessible bath tub grab bars

A

Add picture! Page 9-10

93
Q

What is done when two floor finishes meet and there is a change in height?

A
  • if change is less than 1/4”, it may be vertical without edge treatment
  • if the change is between 1/4” and 1/2”, it must be beveled with slope no greater than 1:2
  • if the change is greater than 1/2”, must be accomplished with a ramp
94
Q

What ratio should a ramp be no greater than? What are the exceptions?

A

1:12 - 1 inch of rise for every 12 inch of run

Exceptions:
1:10 is allowed if existing site conditions do not allow for a 1:12 and the maximum rise doesn’t exceed 6” and 1:8 if maximum rise does not exceed 3”

95
Q

When is a landing required within a ramp.

A

When the rise of the ramp reaches 30” a landing is required before the next run of ramp is encountered

96
Q

What is minimum clear width of a ramp?

A

36”

97
Q

What is a ramp’s landing minimum length and width?

A

Ramps must be at least as wide as the ramp leading to it and have a length of 60”-if ramp changes direction after reaching the landing, ramp surface must be 60insq

98
Q

What conditions does a ramp require a hand rail on both sides?

A

Ramps with a rise greater than 6” or when height is greater than 72”

99
Q

When an open riser is permitted, what size sphere is not permitted to pass through tread opening?

A

4”

100
Q

What are the 3 styles of stair nosings for accessible stairs?

A

Flush riser, angled nosing, rounded nosing

ADD PIC PG. 9-11

101
Q

What is the max height a protruding objects lower edge for it to be detected by a person using a cane? When an object’s lower edge is higher, how far is it allowed to project?

A

Max height is 27” and an object can project any mount as long as it does not reduce the clear width required for an accessible path of travel - if lower edge is higher than 27”, object can only project 4”

ADD PIC PG. 9-13

102
Q

What is the vertical clearance of a space adjacent to an accessible path of travel?

A

80” min.

ADD PIC 9-13

103
Q

What is a dectable warning?

A

A surface feature built in or applied to walking surfaces o the elements to warn hazards on a circulation path.

104
Q

Audible emergency warning systems must produce a sound that exceeds the sound level in a space by at least ______ amount? With a max level of _______ ?

A

I5 dB and a max of 110 dB

105
Q

Visual emergency warning systems must flash in what frequency?

A

1 cycle per second

106
Q

What are the required heights for an elevator call button, floor designators. And hall lanterns located?

A

Call button at 48”, floor designators at 60”, an hall lanterns at min 72”

107
Q

What is the required height for an elevators interior floor buttons?

A

48” - except when a side approach is possible and elevator has more than 16 opening, the buttons can be 54” above floor

108
Q

When fixed seating is provided in accessible public space, what percentage of the seating is required to be accessible?

A

5% but no less than 1 table

109
Q

What are the clearances for a wheelchairs at table?

A

30” wide x 49” long (19” under table & 30” from table edge to back of wheelchair)

if there is a wall directly behind, clearance from table edge to wall must be 36” min.

110
Q

What criteria is evaluated to determine now sustainable a product or construction process is?

A
  • embodied energy
  • renewable material
  • recycled content
  • energy efficiency
  • use of local materials
  • durability
  • low VOC
  • low toxicity
  • moisture problems
  • Water conservation
  • maintainability
  • potential for reuse and recycling
  • reusability
111
Q

When using wood in a project, what 3 sustainable strategies can an interior use to help reduce the ecological problem of wood?

A
  1. reclaimed wood: recycled wood from old buildings that have been salvaged
  2. Sustainable or alt materials: engineered wood, MDF, laminated veneer wood ect.
  3. Certified wood products: wood obtained through sustainable forest management practices
112
Q

What is building commissioning?

A

The process of inspecting, testing, starting up, and adjusting building systems and then verifying and documenting that they are operating as intended and meet design criteria of the contract documents

113
Q

What types of building systems can require building commissioning?

A
  • mechanical systems
  • electrical systems
  • plumbing systems
  • sprinkler systems
  • fire management
  • vertical transportation
  • communication networks
114
Q

What does building commissioning involve for an interior design project?

A

Verifying and ensuring building elements are designed, installed, and calibrated t operate as intended for the tenants scope of work

115
Q

What is displacement ventilation? Why does it use less energy?

A

An air distribution system in which supply air originates at floor level and rises to return-air grilles in the ceiling -because air is distributed close to the users, it does not need to be cooled as much, resulting in less energy consumed.

116
Q

How can interior designer reduce energy consumption with mechanical systems?

A
  • design tenants hvac to conform with Energy Standard for Buildings or local energy codes
  • don’t use CFC based refrigerants
  • use displacement ventilation
117
Q

How can an interior designer reduce electricity use?

A
  • reduce power needed for lighting
  • specify automatic occupancy lighting
  • non-emergency lighting on a programmed timer
  • specify daylight responsive controls
  • specify energy efficient appliances
  • specify highly reflective finishes to brighten up space
118
Q

How can an interior designer influence water conservation?

A
  • specify plumbing fixtures that use less than the maximum flow rate
  • energy star products
119
Q

What are the two groups of indoor air contaminates?

A
  1. Chemical contaminants - VOC, inorganic chemicals, tobacco smoke,
  2. Biological contaminants - mould, pollen, bacteria, viruses
120
Q

What are the 4 basic causes of poor indoor air quality?

A
  1. Contaminates from indoor source
  2. Contaminates from outdoor sources
  3. Biological contaminates
  4. Poor ventilation
121
Q

What are the three classifications of poor indoor air quality symptoms?

A
  1. Sick building syndrome - when occupants experience health related symptoms within a building but can not directly link to a specific cause, symptoms disappear when occupants leave the building
  2. Building related illness - health related symptom of a buildings occupant is defined and associated with a certain building contaminate, symptoms do not disappear when occupants leaves the building
  3. Multiple chemical sensitivity - condition brought on by exposure to VOC or other chemicals, occupant will develop long term sensitivity to that chemical
122
Q

What are strategies for maintaining good indoor air qualify?

A
  • eliminate or reduce sources of pollution
  • control ventilation
  • establish good maintenance procedures
  • control occupant activity
123
Q

What is a hazardous material? What are the common ones?

A

‘hazardous materials are chemicals or biological substances that pose a threat to the environment or to human health if related or misused.

Asbestos, vermiculite, lead, radon

124
Q

How high can a light switch be mounted?

A

48”

125
Q

Emerges lighting for a means of egress require a minimum lighting level of _______ at the floor level upon initial operation?

A

1 foot candle

126
Q

Which is an acceptable allowance for the circulation faction in an open office plan using systems furniture?

A - 5-8%
B - 10-20%
C - 25-40%
D - 50-65%

A

C - 25-40%

127
Q

What measurement range is an acceptable height for barrier-free shower set?

A

18-19inches

128
Q

How far can a door project into the required width of a corridor without reducing it?

A

Doors, when fully opened, shall not reduce the required width by more than 7 inches (178 mm). Doors in any position shall not reduce the required width by more than one-half

129
Q

What is BIFMA?

A

Business and institutional Furniture Manufacturers Association - develops standards related to the commercial furniture industry

130
Q

What is the maneuvering clearance for a front approach on the push side

A

12” clear from the latch side of door x 48”

PG 9-5

131
Q

What is the maneuvering clearance for a front approach on the pull side

A

18” clear from latch side of door x 60”

PG 9-5

132
Q

What is the maneuvering clearance for a latch side approach on the push side

A

24” clear from latch side of door x 42”

PG 9-5

133
Q

What is the maneuvering clearance for a latch side approach on the pull side

A

24” clear from latch side of door x 48”

PG 9-5

134
Q

What is the maneuvering clearance for a hinge side approach on the push side

A

54” x 42” no closer
54” x 48” with closer

PG 9-5

135
Q

What is the maneuvering clearance for a hinge side approach on the pull side

A

36” clear on latch side of door x 60”

OR

42” clear on latch side of door x 54”

136
Q

What is the clear floor space of around a toilet

A

56 “ (side) x 60”

Residential: 66” (side) - 60”

137
Q

What is the clear floor space around a lavatory?

A

30” x 48”

138
Q

Where can the toilet paper dispenser be located in a barrier free washroom?

A

7”-9” from the front edge of toilet to the centre line of the dispenser

15”-48” mounting height (can not interfere with side grab bar )

139
Q

What size side and back grab bar are required for a barrier free washroom?

Where are they located?

A

Side: 42” - located 12” from the back wall
Back” 36” - located 12” from the centre line of toilet

Both mounted top of grab bar 33 - 36” AFF