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NSG 300 7-9 EXAM 11/9 > TOPIC 2 > Flashcards

TOPIC 2 Flashcards

1
Q

AHRQ culture of safety

A

reduces the risk for illness and injury
-helps contain costs of healthcare by preventing extended lengths of hospitalization, improving and maintaining patients functional status and increasing patient well being

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2
Q

The QSEN safety competency for nurse is defined as

A

Minimizes risk of harm to patients and providers through both system effectiveness and individual performance.

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3
Q

environmental safety

A

identifying and correcting potential hazards that can cause accidents and injuries (to both client and health care workers)

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4
Q

patient education and oxygen

A

supplemental oxygen poses a fire risk and is combustible

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5
Q

what must be met before physical and psychological safety and security can be addressed

A

maslows basic needs

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6
Q

nutrition

A

meet nutritional needs adequately (requires knowledge about healthy food and food safety)

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7
Q

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

A

a federal agency responsible for regulating food and drug products sold to the public (TO PROTECT THE PUBLIC)

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8
Q

what is a persons comfort zone when it come to temperature?

A

18.3-23.9C (65-75 F)

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9
Q

poison

A

any substance that impairs health or destroys life when ingested, inhaled, or absorbed by the body

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10
Q

falls and older adults

A

-older adults at increased risk due to decreased strength, impaired mobility and balance, and endurance limitations combined with decreased sensory perception
-fall prevention is a major nursing priority

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11
Q

pathogen

A

any microorganism capable of producing an illness

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12
Q

immunization

A

primary prevention: reduces/ can prevent the transmission of disease from person to person
-NURSES RESPONSIBILITY TO EDUCATE THE BENEFITS OF IMMUNIZATION

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13
Q

pollutant

A

harmful material that can enter the biosphere through the land, air, or water

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14
Q

what are the factors that influence patient safety

A

patients developmental level
mobility, sensory, and cognitive status
lifestyle choices
knowledge of common safety precautions

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15
Q

what is adult safety revolved around?

A

lifestyle habits (smoking, drinking, hazardous work)

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16
Q

what is older adult safety revolved around?

A

injury related to physiological changes of aging
multiple medications
cognitive factors
acute/chronic disease increase risk for FALLS

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17
Q

falls

A

increase risk of premature death
patients who have underlying disease states are more susceptible to fall related injury

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18
Q

Patient-inherent accidents

A

classified as self-induced. (need to ascertain whether a patient-inherent accident is caused by seizure activity)

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19
Q

Procedure-related accidents

A

occur during therapy (med errors, IV therapy errors, improper application of external device, improper performance procedure)

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20
Q

potential for infection is reduced when…

A

surgical asepsis is used for sterile dressing changes or invasive procedures

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21
Q

equipment related accidents

A

result from malfunction, disrepair, or misuse of equipment or from an electrical hazard

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22
Q

successful critical thinking

A

Requires a synthesis of knowledge, experience, information gathered from patients, critical thinking attitudes, and intellectual and professional standards

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23
Q

what do you consider when taking a thorough patient assessment?

A

-threats to patient safety (environment and individual risk factors)

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24
Q

nursing history

A

Includes data about a patient’s level of wellness to determine if any underlying conditions exist that pose threats to safety

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25
Q

what should be performed in the patients home?

A

a hazard assessment

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26
Q

what is included in a hazard assessment?

A

lighting
presence of safety devices
placement of furniture
condition of flooring

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27
Q

planning and safety

A

minimize threats and increase safety

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28
Q

fall prevention

A
  • Keep the bedside environment free from clutter.
  • Explain how to use the call light.
  • Yellow wristbands mean risk for fall.
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29
Q

what is it important to routinely check on assertive aids

A

rubber tips and integrity of the aid

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30
Q

Physical Restraints

A

-only use as last resort
-usually only two side rails can be put up

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31
Q

chemical restraint

A

any drug that is used for discipline or convenience and not required to treat medical symptoms (anxiolytics)

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32
Q

Fire safety acronym

A

R- rescue patient
A- alarm (pull alarm)
C- contain (contain fire close doors, turn off oxygen)
E- extinguish fire

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33
Q

seizure safety

A

Safety.. Airway…suction oral secretions..turn on side post seiz…side lying.. Check vital signs .. Assess for injuries ..allow rest protect head

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34
Q

aura

A

often a bight light smell or taste that is a warning to sense that a seizure is about to occur

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35
Q

infection

A

the invasion of a susceptible host by pathogens or microorganisms, resulting in disease

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36
Q

colonization

A

the presence and growth of microorganisms within a host but without tissue invasion or damage

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37
Q

communicable disease

A

the infectious process transmitted from one person to another

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38
Q

symptomatic

A

clinical signs and symptoms are present

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39
Q

asymptomatic

A

clinical signs and symptoms are not present

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40
Q

What is the chain of infection?

A

infectious agent
reservoir
portal of exit
mode of transmission
portal of entry
susceptible host

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41
Q

How do you break the chain of infection?

A

hand washing
(infection happens when the chains intact, so prevent infection to break the chain)

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42
Q

reservoir

A

source for pathogen growth, where microorganisms survive, multiply, and await transfer to a susceptible host

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43
Q

what are some examples of frequent reservoirs

A

for HAI- healthcare workers, especially their hands, patients, equipment and environment

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44
Q

human reservoirs

A

-those with acute symptomatic disease
-those who show no signs of disease

45
Q

ideal temperature for human pathogen

A

20-43C (68-109F)

46
Q

preference pH range for microorganisms

A

5.0-7.0

47
Q

portal of exit

A

after microorganisms find a site to grow and multiply, the must find a portal of exit if they are to enter another host and cause disease

48
Q

what are examples of portals of exit

A

blood, skin, mucous membranes, respiratory tract, GU tract, GI tract, transplacental (mother to fetus)

49
Q

what is the major route of transmission in the health care setting

A

-unwashed hands of the health care worker
-equipment

50
Q

portal of entry

A

organisms enter the body through the same routes they use for exiting

51
Q

susceptible host

A

a person likely to get an infection or disease, usually because body defenses are weak

52
Q

infectious process (4 stages)

A

incubation period
prodromal stage
illness stage
convalescence

53
Q

incubation period

A

the time interval between entrance of the pathogen and appearance of first symptoms

54
Q

prodromal stage

A

interval from onset of nonspecific signs and symptoms to more specific symptoms

55
Q

illness stage

A

interval when patient manifests signs and symptoms specific to type of infection

56
Q

convalescence stage

A

interval when acute symptoms of infection disappear

57
Q

what supportive therapy helps defends the body against the infectious process

A

adequate nutrition
rest

58
Q

normal flora

A

microorganisms that reside in the body and so not usually cause disease

59
Q

the use of broad spectrum antibiotics can cause

A

superinfection

60
Q

inflammation

A

a protective vascular reaction that delvers fluid, blood products, and nutrients to an area of injury

61
Q

what are the signs of localized inflammation

A

swelling, redness, heat, pain or tenderness, and loss of function in the affected body part

62
Q

exudates

A

fluid, cells, and other substances (pus) that filter from cells or capillaries ooze into lesions or areas of inflammation

63
Q

serous exudate

A

clear, like plasma
-normal progression of healing

64
Q

sanguineous exudate

A

containing red blood cells (bloody drainage)

65
Q

Health care-associated infections (HAIs)

A

Results from delivery of health services in a health care facility (can occur as the result of invasive procedures, antibiotic admin, presence of multidrug resistant organisms, and breaks infection prevention and control activates)

66
Q

what patients are a greater risk for HAIs

A

multiple illnesses
older adults
poorly nourished
compromised immune system

67
Q

what are the types of HAIs

A

iatrogenic, exogenous, endogenous

68
Q

iatrogenic

A

from a procedure

69
Q

exogenous

A

from microorganisms outside the individual

70
Q

endogenous

A

when the patient’s flora becomes altered and an overgrowth results

71
Q

factors that influence infection prevention and control

A

age
nutritional status
stress
disease process
treatments or conditions that compromise the immune response

72
Q

localized infection

A

an infection that is limited to a specific location in the body and has local symptoms (common areas of skin, mucous membrane breakdown, surgical traumatic wounds, pressure ulcers, oral lesions, abscesses)

73
Q

systemic infection

A

an infection throughout the body

74
Q

Increase in WBC indicates what

A

infection

75
Q

what increases risk for infection

A

imbalance nutrition
impaires oral mucous membrane
risk for impaired skin integrity
social isolation
impaired
tissue integrity
readiness for enhanced immunization status

76
Q

health promotion

A

Preventing an infection from developing or spreading

77
Q

acute care

A

Treating an infectious process includes eliminating the infectious organisms and supporting the patient’s defenses

78
Q

asepsis

A

absence of pathogenic (disease-producing) microorganisms

79
Q

medical asepsis

A

clean technique, includes procedures for reducing the number of organisms present and preventing the transfer of organisms

80
Q

Standard Precautions

A

recommendations that must be followed to prevent transmission of pathogenic organisms by way of blood and body fluids

81
Q

when can you use alcohol based hand rub?

A

if your hands are not visibly soiled

82
Q

disinfection

A

A process that eliminates many or all microorganisms, with the exception of bacteria spores, from inanimate objects

83
Q

sterilization

A

the complete elimination or destruction of all microorganisms, including spores

84
Q

what factors influence the efficacy on disinfecting and sterilization methods?

A

concentration of solution
type and number of pathogens
surface areas to treat
temperature of environment
presence of soap
presence of organic materials

85
Q

barrier precautions

A

appropriate use of gowns, gloves, masks, eyewear, devices

86
Q

contact precautions

A

practices used to prevent spread of disease by direct or indirect contact (gowns and gloves)

87
Q

Droplet precautions

A

Must be followed for a patient known or suspected to be infected with pathogens transmitted by large-particle droplets expelled during coughing, sneezing, talking, or laughing.
(surgical mask within 3 feet of the patient, proper hand hygiene)

88
Q

Airborne precautions

A

Methods of infection control that must be used for patients known or suspected to be infected with pathogens transmitted by airborne droplet nuclei.
(negative air flow room, N95)

89
Q

Protective environment

A

Room with positive airflow. Used for highly susceptible, immunocompromised patient such as Transplant and gene therapy.

90
Q

what are the psychological implications of isolation?

A

loneliness because of lack of sisal relationship
*take time to listen to patients concerns and issues

91
Q

surgical asepsis

A

sterile technique prevents contamination of an open wound, serves to isolate the operative area from the unsterile environment, and maintains a sterile field for surgery

92
Q

When is surgical asepsis used?

A

Dressing changes
Catheterizations
Surgical procedures

93
Q

what is something a nurse should remember when looking at a sterile field

A

never turn their back of a sterile field
open a sterile package on work area above waist level

94
Q

A sterile object remains sterile only

A

when touched by another sterile object

95
Q

Only sterile objects may

A

be placed on a sterile field

96
Q

A sterile object or field out of the range of vision or an object held below a person’s waist is

A

contaminated

97
Q

a sterile object or field becomes contaminated by

A

prolonged exposure to air

98
Q

body mechanics

A

coordinated efforts of the musculoskeletal and nervous systems

99
Q

Body balance occurs when…

A

a relatively low center of gravity is balanced over a wide, stable base of support and a vertical line falls from the center of gravity through the base of support.

100
Q

Nurses use balance to maintain proper body alignment and posture through two simple techniques.

A

· First, widen the base of support by separating the feet to a comfortable distance.
· Second, increase balance by bringing the center of gravity closer to the base of support.

101
Q

Physical activity (PA) is

A

any movement produced by skeletal muscles that results in energy expenditure.

102
Q

Safe patient handling and mobility (SPHM)

A

Involves improved assessment, the use of mechanical equipment, and safety procedures to lift and move patients
-Nurses often provide care for immobilized patients whose position must be changed, who must be moved up in bed, or who must be transferred from a bed to a chair or from a bed to a stretcher.

103
Q

assessment for activity and exercise

A

o Ask questions related to the patient’s exercise and activity tolerance to gather important information.
o Assess the patient’s expectations concerning activity and exercise and determining individual perceptions of what is normal or acceptable is of utmost importance in developing a plan of care.

104
Q

nursing diagnosis for activity and exercise

A

o Activity intolerance
o Risk for injury
o Impaired mobility in bed
o Impaired mobility
o Acute or chronic pain

105
Q

goal of activity and exercise in a patient

A

improve or maintain the patient’s motor function and independence

106
Q

when using a cane

A

Have the patient keep the cane on the stronger side of the body.

107
Q

crutch gait

A

alternately bearing weight on one or both legs and on the crutches.

108
Q

restoration of activity and chronic illness

A

Coronary heart disease, hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, diabetes mellitus (Exercise reduces systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings)

NSG 300 7-9 EXAM 11/9 (10 decks)

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