Top 400 Flashcards

1
Q

Bumex

A

bumetanide (sulfa allergy, 1mg PO Bumex = 40mg PO lasix)

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2
Q

Lasix

A

furosemide (PROTECT FROM LIGHT)

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3
Q

Demadex

A

torsemide

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4
Q

chlorthalidone

A

Hygroton, Thalitone

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5
Q

HCTZ

A

Microzide, Hydrodiuril (triamterene/hctz: maxzide, dyazide)

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6
Q

Zaroxolyn

A

metolazone (can use in renal failure)

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7
Q

aldactone

A

Spironolactone (SE: gynecomastia, HF dose = 50mg QD)

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8
Q

Lotensin

A

benazepril

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9
Q

Vasotec

A

enalapril (ONLY ACEI THAT HAS IV FORM)

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10
Q

Zestril, Prinvil

A

lisinopril

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11
Q

Zestoretic

A

lisinopril/HCTZ

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12
Q

Accupril

A

Quinapril

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13
Q

Altace

A

ramipril (ONLY ACEI THAT COMES IN CAPSULES)

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14
Q

Avapro

A

irbesarten

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15
Q

Cozaar

A

Losartan

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16
Q

Hyzaar

A

Losartan/HCTZ

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17
Q

Diovan

A

valsartan

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18
Q

Diovan HCT

A

Valsartan/HCTZ

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19
Q

Benicar

A

olmesartan

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20
Q

Micardis

A

telmisartan

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21
Q

Normodyne

A

Labetalol (Take with food, safe in preggo)

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22
Q

Bystolic

A

Nebivolol (Inc NO = vasodilation)

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23
Q

Tenormin

A

Atenolol

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24
Q

Coreg, Coreg CR

A

Carvedilol (take with food)

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25
Q

Inderal

A

Propranolol (take with food)

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26
Q

Lopressor

A

metoprolol tartrate (IR=take with food)

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27
Q

Toprol XL

A

metoprolol succinate (can split in half for HF, start = 12.5mg inc to target of 200mg/d)

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28
Q

Zebeta

A

bisoprolol ( bisoprolol/HCTZ = Ziac)

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29
Q

Calan SR, Veralan, Verlan PM

A

Verapamil ( for rate control, inhibitor/substrate of 3A4)

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30
Q

Cardizem, Tiazac, Taztia XT

A

diltiazem ( for rate control, inhibitor/substrate of 3A4)

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31
Q

Norvasc

A

amlodipine (substrate of 3A4)

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32
Q

Plendil

A

felodipine (sustrate of 3A4, ER=DO NOT CRUSH/CHEW, QD)

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33
Q

Procardia, Procardia XL

A

nifedipine (substrate 3A4)

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34
Q

Catapres, Catepres TTS, Kapvay

A

clonidine (1 patch Q7d, Kapvay = clonidine ER for ADHD)

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35
Q

Tenex, Intuniv

A

guanfacine ( Tenex = for HTN, Intuniv = for ADHD)

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36
Q

Apresoline

A

hydralazine (safe in preggo, BiDil = hydralazine/isosorbide dinitrate for HF)

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37
Q

Minipress

A

prazosin (short acting for HTN)

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38
Q

Cardura, Cardura XL

A

doxazosin (for HTN and BPH, titrate due to risk of orthostatic dec BP)

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39
Q

Hytrin

A

terazosin (for HTN and BPH, titrate due to risk of orthostatic dec BP)

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40
Q

Flomax

A

Tamsulosin (SULFA, take 30min after meal each day)

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41
Q

Rapaflo

A

silodosin (QD with FOOD, caps can be opened/sprinkled on applesause)

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42
Q

Uroxatral

A

alfuzosin (take with same meal each day)

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43
Q

Avodart

A

dutasteride (0.5mg QD or in combo with tamsulosin)

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44
Q

Proscar, Propecia

A

finasteride (Proscar = 5mg BPH, Propecia = 1mg male baldness)

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45
Q

Lotrel

A

amlodipine/benazepril

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46
Q

Tarka

A

Verapamil/Trandolapril (with food)

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47
Q

Prestalia

A

Amlodipine/Perindopril

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48
Q

Exforge

A

amlodipine/valsartan

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49
Q

Twynsta

A

Amlodipine/telmisartan

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50
Q

Azor

A

amlodipine/olmesartan

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51
Q

caduet

A

amlodipine/atorvastatin

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52
Q

Consensi

A

amlodipine/celecoxib

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53
Q

Isosorbide Mononitrate

A

Imdur, ISMO, Monoket (IR = 20mg BID 7hrs apart)

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54
Q

Isordil

A

isosorbide dinitrate (nitrate free interval prevent tolerance IR = 14hr+ SR = > 18hr)

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55
Q

Nitrostat, Nitrobid

A

Nitroglycerin (IV must be in GLASS bottle)

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56
Q

Ranexa

A

ranolazine (chronic stable angina, CI in hepatic impairment

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57
Q

heparin

A

IV (monitor)/SQ, heparin lock flush keep line open

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58
Q

Lovenox

A

enoxaparin (prophylaxis: hip/knee/abd surgery, dvt tx, MI/UA/PCI/ thrombo adj)

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59
Q

Pradaxa

A

dabigatran (block 2a, antidote idarucizumab (prazbind), keep in original bottle 4M)

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60
Q

Eliquis

A

apixaban (BID, antidote Andexanet alfa (Andexxa))

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61
Q

Xarelto

A

rivaroxaban (DVT prophylaxis knee/hip/stroke (novalv afib), dvt/pe tx, antidote Andexanet alfa (Andexxa))

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62
Q

Jantoven

A

warfarin (drug interactions, CYP inhibitors inc INR, CYP inducers dec INR, antidote VItK (phytonadione, Mephyton)

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63
Q

Plavix

A

clopidogrel (LD: 300mg then 75mg QD, prodrug: 2C19i dec plavix)

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64
Q

Effient

A

prasugrel (LD: 60mg, then 10mg QD)

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65
Q

Brilinta

A

Ticagrelor (LD: 180mg MD: 90mg BID BW: asprin > 100mg dec effectiveness)

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66
Q

Aggrenox

A

Dipyridamole/Aspirin (CI: pt with salicylate allergy)

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67
Q

Pacerone, Nexterone

A

amiodarone (drug interaction with warfarin, inc INR, don’t give sofosbuvir)

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68
Q

Multaq

A

dronedarone (with FOOD, avoid grapefruit juice, watch liver failure and HF)

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69
Q

Betapace, Betapace AF

A

sotalol

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70
Q

flecainide

A

Tambocor (PO)

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71
Q

Tikosyn

A

dofetilide (PO, CI: < 20, HCTZ, citalopram (QT prolongation)

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72
Q

Lanoxin, Digitek, Digox

A

Digoxin (Antidote: DigiFAB)

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73
Q

Lipitor

A

atorvastatin (Max: 80mg, Caduet (atorvastatin/amlodipine))

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74
Q

Crestor

A

rosuvastatin (Max 40mg asians start at 5mg and max 20mg)

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75
Q

Zocor

A

simvastatin (Max 40mg, Vytorin (simvastatin/ezetimibe))

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76
Q

Pravachol

A

pravastatin (Max 80mg)

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77
Q

Mevacor

A

Lovastatin (IR with evening meals, Max: 80mg)

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78
Q

Lopid

A

gemfibrozil (do not use with statins inc risk myopathy)

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79
Q

Tricor, Lipofen, Antara, Lofibra

A

fenofibrate (Antara and Lipofen take with FOOD)

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80
Q

Trilipix, Fibricor

A

fenofibric acid

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81
Q

Praluent

A

Alirocumab (SQ Q2wks, in the refrigerator)

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82
Q

Repatha

A

Evolocumab (SQ 140mg Q2wks or 420 once monthly, in the refrigerator)

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83
Q

Zetia

A

Ezetimibe (10mg QD)

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84
Q

Vytorin

A

ezetimibe/simvastatin

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85
Q

Vit B3, Niacor, Niaspan

A

niacin (with food, take ASA 325mg 30min before reduce flushing)

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86
Q

Lovaza

A

omega 3 (inc risk of bleeding with warfarin)

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87
Q

Synthroid, Levoxyl, Levothyroid

A

levothyroxine (T4) (TAKE ON EMPTY STOMACH)

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88
Q

Cytomel, Triostat

A

Liothyronine (T3, rapid absorption, rapid onset)

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89
Q

PTU

A

propylthiouracil (1st trimester of prego)

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90
Q

Tapazole

A

methimazole (2nd and 3rd trimester of preggo)

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91
Q

Androgel, Androderm

A

testosterone (comes in gel and transdermal patch, C3 med)

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92
Q

Estrace, Premarin

A

Estradiol (Formulation: oral tablet and vaginal cream)

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93
Q

Provera, Depo-Provera

A

Medroxyprogesterone (Oral tabs; Depo-Provera-Contraceptive; IM/SQ Q3months)

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94
Q

Prometrium

A

progesterone (CI: peanut allergy)

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95
Q

CombiPatch

A

estradiol/norethindrone (1 patch twice weekly, regrigerate)

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96
Q

Proventil HFA, ProAir HFA, Ventolin HFA, RespiClick

A

Albuterol (prime: 3x ProAir, Proventil/Ventolin 4x, reprime >14d, RespiClick discard 13M)

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97
Q

Xopenex

A

levalbuterol ( Neb good for 2wk once foil open, 1wk out of foil, HFA prime 4x & after 3d of no use)

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98
Q

Flovent HFA, Flovent Diskus, Arnuity Ellipta

A

fluticasone (all ellipta formulations are QD)

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99
Q

Asmanex

A

mometasone (discard 45d after removal from pouch)

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100
Q

Dulera

A

mometasone/formoterol

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101
Q

Pulmicort, Pulmicort Flexhaler

A

budesonide (DOC during preggo)

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102
Q

Symbicort

A

budesonide/formoterol (MDI, good fo 90d after opening foil wrap)

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103
Q

QVAR RediHaler

A

beclomethasone (breath actuated aerosol inhaler DO NOT USE spacer or prime/shake)

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104
Q

Serevent

A

Salmeterol (expires 6wk after opening)

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105
Q

Singulair

A

montelukast (granules cannot be mixed in liquid other than baby formula or breast milk, SE: flu like sx, mood change, restlessness)

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106
Q

Accolate

A

zafirlukast (AccoLATE- EAT LATER, must be taken on an empty stomach)

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107
Q

Zyflo CR

A

Zileuton (LFT)

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108
Q

Atrovent HFA

A

Ipratropium (Solution, Shaking NOT needed)

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109
Q

Combivent Respimat

A

ipratropium/albuterol (Respimat (PTOP) shaking not needed discard 3M after cartridge inserted)

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110
Q

DuoNeb

A

ipratropium/albuterol

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111
Q

Spiriva Handihaler, Spiriva Respimat

A

Tiotropium (Handihaler: inhale 1 capsule QD) (Spiriva Respimat: inhale 2 puffs QD)

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112
Q

Incruse Ellipta

A

Umeclidinium (Ellipta: dry powders No shaking, no priming: discard 6 weeks after removal from foil)

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113
Q

Tudorza Pressair

A

Aclidinium (NO SHAKING, discard 45d after removal from pouch)

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114
Q

Seebri Neohaler, Lonhala Magnair

A

Glycopyrrolate (anticholinergic, IV Rubinul, Glyrx-P reverse brady, IM dec secretions, PO Glycate, Cuvposa-sol drooling and hyperhidrosis)

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115
Q

Striverdi Respimat

A

Olodaterol

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116
Q

Perforomist

A

formoterol (requires refrigeration and is not to be mixed with other drugs)

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117
Q

Advair, Wixela

A

fluticasone/salmeterol (good for 30d after opening)

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118
Q

Breo Ellipta

A

fluticasone/vilanterol (expires 6wk after removal from pouch)

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119
Q

Anoro Ellipta

A

umeclidinium/vilanterol (expires 6wk after removal from pouch)

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120
Q

Stiolto Respimat

A

tiotropium/olodaterol

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121
Q

Trelegy Ellipta

A

fluticasone/umeclidinium/vilanterol (expires 6wks after removal from pouch)

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122
Q

Daliresp

A

Roflumilast (QD, CI in liver impairment, 3A4 substrate, suicidal events, weight loss)

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123
Q

Apidra

A

Glulisine (rapid, room temp 28d, vial = 100U/ml (10ml), pen = 100U/ml (3ml))

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124
Q

Humalog

A

Lispro (rapid, room temp 28d, vial = 100U/ml (10ml), pen = 100U/ml (3ml))

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125
Q

Novolog

A

Aspart (rapid, RT 28d, vial = 100U/ml (10ml), pen = 100U/ml (3ml))

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126
Q

Humulin R, Novolin R

A

regular insulin( short, SQ/IV, Humulin R: RT 31 days, Novolin R: RT 42 days)

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127
Q

Humulin N, Novolin N

A

insulin NPH (SQ, Humulin N RT: 31d, Novolin N RT: 42d)

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128
Q

NPH/Regular (70/30)

A

70% NPH + 30% regular

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129
Q

Levemir

A

Detemir (SQ)

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130
Q

Lantus, Basaglar

A

Glargine (SQ, Lantus RT: 28d DO NOT MIX)

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131
Q

Tresiba

A

Degludec (SQ, RT 56d (8wk) DO NOT MIX)

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132
Q

SymlinPen

A

Pramlintide (SQ TID immediately before meals)

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133
Q

Glucophage (XR)

A

metformin (hold if contrast dye 48hr after, CI: CrCl <30)

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134
Q

Glynase

A

Glyburide (Long Acting = more hypoglycemia; Avoid in pt > 65 years old, Glyburide + Metformin = Glucovance)

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135
Q

Glucotrol (XL)

A

glipizide (DOC in renal failure among sulfonylureas)

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136
Q

Amaryl

A

glimepiride (8mg QD)

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137
Q

Actos

A

pioglitazone (BBW: HF, fractures, fluid retention, liver fail, Max 45mg QD)

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138
Q

Byetta, Bydureon, BCise

A

Exenatide (Bydur once wkly, frigerate, 4wks RT, Bye bid, fridge 30d RT, BCise susp shake 15 sec)

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139
Q

Victoza, Saxenda

A

Liraglutide ( 1.8mg QD for DM, 3mg QD Saxenda for wtloss, refrig RT 30d)

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140
Q

Trulicity

A

dulaglutide (weekly, refrig RT 14d)

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141
Q

Onglyza

A

saxagliptin (inc risk of HF 3A4 substrate)

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142
Q

Januvia

A

Sitagliptin (25/50/100mg QD, dose adjust in renal)

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143
Q

Nesina

A

alogliptin (inc risk of HF)

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144
Q

Tradjenta

A

Linagliptin (no dose adjustment renal/hepatic/CYP3A4 substrate)

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145
Q

Janumet XR

A

sitagliptin/metformin

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146
Q

Kombiglyze

A

saxagliptin/metformin

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147
Q

Kazano

A

alogliptin/metformin

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148
Q

Invokana

A

canagliflozin (do not initiate if GFR <30)

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149
Q

Jardiance

A

empagliflozin (do not initiate if GFR <30)

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150
Q

Farxiga

A

dapagliflozin (do not initiate if GFR <30, FDA approved HF)

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151
Q

Steglatro

A

ertugliflozin (do not initiate if GFR <45)

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152
Q

Moxatag, Amoxil

A

Amoxicillin (with or without food)

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153
Q

Augmentin

A

amoxicillin/clavulanate (with food, susp refrigerate)

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154
Q

Zosyn

A

piperacillin/tazobactam (anti-pseudomonal)

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155
Q

keflex

A

cephalexin

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156
Q

omnicef

A

Cefdinir (Do not refrigerate oral suspension; separate form vitamins/antacids)

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157
Q

fortaz

A

Ceftazidime (IM/IV)

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158
Q

Avycaz

A

ceftazidime/avibactam (IV intra-abdominal infection and HAP)

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159
Q

ceftriaxone

A

Rocephin (N. gonorrhoeae tx monotherapy, <150kg 500mg IM x1, >/= 150kg 1g IM 1)

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160
Q

Zithromax, Azasite

A

Azithromycin (AzaSite: ophthalmic; refrigerate- discard after 14 days) (do not refrigerate oral suspension)

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161
Q

EES, Ery-tab

A

Erythromycin (most macrolides are strong 3A4 inhibits = C/I warfarin and Theophylline; refrigerate suspension)

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162
Q

Biaxin/Biaxin XL

A

Clarithromycin (XL with food)

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163
Q

Cleocin

A

Clindamycin (BBW: c diff, do not refrigerate susp)

164
Q

cubicin

A

Daptomycin (Gram + with SE neuropathy, myopathy = hold statin, IV in NS; Do not use for pneumonia)

165
Q

vancocin

A

Vancomycin (Gram + with SE of nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and red man syndrome if infused <1 hr)

166
Q

Gentamicin

A

Garamycin (gram-, ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity)

167
Q

amikacin

168
Q

zyvox

A

Linezolid (PO/IV 600mg BID Thrombocytopenia, MAOI, Eyes, renal)

169
Q

Septra, Bactrim DS

A

sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim 1:5 sulfa allergy, Hydrate to dec risk of crystaluria IV D5W Don’t refrigerate, dc 6hr

170
Q

MacroBid, Macrodantin

A

Nitrofurantoin (UTI; with food) (Note: Macro BID = Nitrofurantoin monohydrate + macrocrystals BID) (vs Macrodantin which is just the nitrofurantoin macrocrystals)

171
Q

Cipro

A

Ciprofloxacin (BBW: tendon rup, peripheal neuopathy, CNS (avoid hx seizure), UTI, do not use susp in NG tube)

172
Q

Leavquin

A

levofloxacin (BBW: tendon rup, peripheal neuopathy, CNS (avoid hx seizure)

173
Q

Avelox, Vigamox (ophthalmic)

A

Moxifloxacin (BBW: tendon rup, peripheal neuopathy, CNS (avoid hx seizure, CAP, greatest risk of QT prolongation)

174
Q

floxin

A

ofloxacin (BBW: tendon rup, peripheal neuopathy, CNS (avoid hx seizure)

175
Q

minocin, solodyn

A

minocycline (avoid in preggo, CI pt </=8 toot discoloration)

176
Q

Vibraymycin, Doryx

A

Doxycycline (avoid in preggo, CI pt </=8 toot discoloration, use in renal impairment)

177
Q

Flagyl

A

metronidazole (ER on empty stomach)

178
Q

tamiflu

A

oseltamivir (flu: star within 2d of sx 75mg BID x5d, prevention 75mg QD x7d)

179
Q

zovirax

A

Acyclovir (HSV, PO/IV/Topical)

180
Q

valtrex

A

valacyclovir (HSV, prodrug)

181
Q

diflucan

A

Fluconazole (vag candidiasis 150mg x1)

182
Q

Nizoral

A

Ketoconazole (BBW: hepatotoxicity)

183
Q

Mycostatin

A

nystatin (oral yeast infection, swish and swallow 4-5x daily)

184
Q

Terbinafine

A

Lamisil (1st line PO tx for Onychomycosis)

185
Q

Itraconazole

A

Sporanox (PO tx for Onychomycosis)

186
Q

Ciclopirox

A

Penlac (Topical tx for Onychomycosis)

187
Q

Efinaconazole

A

Jublia (Topical tx for Onychomycosis)

188
Q

Tavaborole

A

Kerydin (Topical tx for Onychomycosis)

189
Q

Baraclude

190
Q

Viread

A

tenofovir disoproxil (renal tox and reduced bone density)

191
Q

Vemlidy

A

tenofovir alafenamide (25mg QD WITH FOOD)

192
Q

Epclusa

A

sofosbuvir/velpatasvir (do not give with amiodarone, 1 tab QD for 12wks, separate from antacids)

193
Q

Mavyret

A

Glecaprevir/Pibrentasvir (3tabs with FOOD for 8 wks, 3A4 sub)

194
Q

Isoniazid

A

300mg PO QD empty stomach, give with pyridoxine (vitb6 10-50mg PO QD)

195
Q

rifadin

A

rifampin (empty stomach, hepatotox, thrombocytopenia, inducer, red/orange body fluid)

196
Q

neosporin

A

Bacitracin, Neomycin, Polymixin B

197
Q

bactroban

A

Mupirocin (MRSA, impetigo, topical apply 2-3x daily x5d)

198
Q

Nolvadex

A

tamoxifen ( used in premeno breast cancer, inc risk of clots, endometrial cancer, metab by 2D6 into active metabolite, paroxetine/fluoxetine dec levels

199
Q

Arimidex

A

anastrozole (1mg QD)

200
Q

femara

A

letrozole (2.5mg QD)

201
Q

aromasin

A

Exemestane (25mg QD)

202
Q

Herceptin

A

Trastuzumab (IV, cardotox (CHF), pul tox, infusion rxn)

203
Q

Lupron

A

Leuprolide (Prostate cancer, endometriosis, breast cancer, premenopausal ovarian suppression)

204
Q

Avastain, Mvasi, Zirabev

A

Bevacizumab

205
Q

Zyloprim (aloprim)

A

Allopurinol (Rash [HLA-B*5801]; 100-800mg QD; adjust dose in renal patients)

206
Q

Uloric

A

febuxostat (box warning CV death)

207
Q

Colycrys, Mitigare, Gloperba

A

Chlchicine (acute gout attack & prevention of recurrences, 1.2mg then 0.6mg 1hr later, max 1.8mg, 3A4 sub)

208
Q

imipramine

A

Tofranil (night time bed wetting episodes)

209
Q

Sinequan, Silenor

A

Doxepin (Silenor is indicated for insomnia)

210
Q

Amitriptyline

211
Q

Pamelor

A

Nortriptyline

212
Q

Celaxa

A

citalopram (inc QT prolong, Max 40mg QD if >60YO and Max 20mg QD)

213
Q

lexapro

A

escitalopram

214
Q

Prozac, Sarafem

A

fluoxetine (2D6 inhibitor, Sarafem for PMDD, wait 5wk when switching)

215
Q

Paxil, Brisdelle

A

paroxetine (2D6 inhibitor, Brisdelle QAM for meno pausal hot flashes)

216
Q

Zoloft

A

sertraline (25-200mg/d)

217
Q

Trintellix

A

vortioxetine ( do not use MAOIs within 21d of stopping

218
Q

Effexor XX

A

venlafaxine (take with food)

219
Q

Pristiq

A

desvenlafaxine

220
Q

Cymbalta

A

duloxetine (2D6 inhibitor, for neuropathic pain, GAD, depression, fibromyalgia)

221
Q

trazodone

222
Q

Vilbbryd

A

Vilazodone (slowly increase dose, take with food)

223
Q

Remeron, Remeron SolTab

A

mirtazapine (SE= Somnolence and Weight gain; available as ODT)

224
Q

Wellbutrin XL/SR, Zyban Idc), Aplenzin, Forfivo XL

A

bupropion (CI: bulimia, alcholics, seizure disorder, Zyban (d/c) for smoking cessation, Contrave (bupropion/naltrexone for weight loss)

225
Q

seroquel, seroquel XR

A

quetiapine (XR = empty stomach, IR: 25-800mg QD/XR 300-800 mg/d)

226
Q

Zyprexa, Zydis

A

Olanzapine (weight gain and DM; max 20 mgQD; Off-label used for chemo induced N/V)

227
Q

Risperdal

A

Risperidone (Tabs 1-8mg BID; ODT, solution, long acting SQ, long acting IM; Consta- IM every 2 weeks overlap with oral for 3 weeks; Perseris-SQ monthly with no overlap required)

228
Q

Geodon

A

ziprasidone (take with food, max 160mg BID)

229
Q

Latuda

A

Lurasidone (take with food 350 calories)

230
Q

abilify

A

aripiprazole (bipolar disorder, MDD, and schizophrenia; 15mgQD for depression/ 30mgQD for schizophrenia)

231
Q

Saphris, Secuado

A

Asenapine (Secuado patch 24 hours QD) (Saphris tablet sublingual BID)

232
Q

Invega

A

Paliperidone (3-12mg tabs daily for OROS (3mg if CrCL <50mg)) (Invega sustenna = 117mg IM monthly no overlap time) (Invega Trinza IM Q3 months need sustenna for 4 months first before using this)

233
Q

Haldol

A

Haloperidol (2-30mg QD; long acting 10-15 oral given monthly)

234
Q

Lithobid

A

Lithium carbonate (with food, thiazide, acei nsaids, increase lithium levels)

235
Q

Cogentin

A

Benztropine (anticholinergic, tx drug induced EPSE, dystonic rxns: IV/IM?po 1-2mg once)

236
Q

Sinemet

A

carbidopa/levodopa (cabidopa >/= 75mg/d needed to be effective, avoid in protein diet)

237
Q

Requip XL

A

ropinirole (RLS)

238
Q

Mirapex, Mirapex ER

A

Pramipexole (RLS, adjust for renal)

239
Q

Neupro

A

rotigotine (Transdermal 24HR patch)

240
Q

Stalevo

A

carbidopa/levodopa/entacapone

241
Q

selegiline

A

eldepryl, emsam patch, zelapar ODT

242
Q

rasagiline

243
Q

safinamide

244
Q

Aricept

A

donepezil (ACEHI, best taken at bedtime due to nausea, swallow whole do not crush)

245
Q

Exelon

A

rivastigmine (ACHEI only for mild-mod Alzh, patch (less GI SE) and oral caps)

246
Q

Namenda

A

memantine (only for mod-sev Alzh)

247
Q

Namzaric

A

donepezil/memantine (mod-sev Alzh)

248
Q

Xanx

A

Alprazolam

249
Q

klonopin

A

Clonazepam (also for seizures)

250
Q

Ativan

A

Lorazepam (IV 2mg/min, safer in elderly, pt with liver dysfun)

251
Q

Onfi, Sympazan

A

Clobazam (seizures causes by Lennox-Gastaut syndrome)

252
Q

Valium, Diastat, AcuDial

A

Diazepam (PO/rectal/Nasal/IV) (indicated for alcohol withdrawal, spasm, and status epilepticus; Diastat AcuDial rectal; ready green ban visible. Place patient on side with top leg bent forward. Insert rectal tip, push med over 3 seconds; hold 3 seconds; remove and hold buttocks together while counting to 3)

253
Q

Halcion

254
Q

Restoril

A

Temazepam (safe in elderly, pt with liver dysfun)

255
Q

Vistaril

A

Hydroxyzine (sedating antihistamine used short term for anxiety)

256
Q

buspirone

A

Buspar (for anxiety, take 4wks to work, comes in dividose tablets scored to be accurately cut)

257
Q

Ambien

A

zolpidem (C4, Ambien CR, Zolpimist, Edluar 5, 10mg (SL), Intermezzo (1.75, 3.5mg (SL)) (>/=4hrs left to waking)

258
Q

Lunesta

A

eszopiclone (C4 start 1mg max 3mg)

259
Q

Dilantin

A

Phenytoin (take with food when given PO, NS, <50mg/min corrected Phen = total phen/(.2xalbum)+0.1)

260
Q

Tegetrol, Carbatrol

A

cArbamazepine (HLA-B1502 test for asians due to skin reaction; Aplastic anemia SE)

261
Q

Trileptal

A

oxcarbazepine (test for HLAB*1502 allele)

262
Q

Depakote (ER)

A

divaLProex (alopecia, inc ammonia, Liver, Pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia)

263
Q

Keppra (XR)

A

Levetiracetam (weight loss, IR-500mg BID max dose of 1.5g BID)

264
Q

Lamictal (XR)

A

Lamotrigine (watch for rash; Blue Kit= pt take valproic start 25mg QOD x 2 wks) (green kit: carbamazepine, phenytoin, primidone, phenobarbital, rifampin start 50mg QD) (Orange kit= pt not taking any of the above start 25mg QD x 2 weeks then increase)

265
Q

Topomax

A

Topiramate (migraine prophylaxis, kidney stones, weight loss)

266
Q

Zonegran

A

zonisamide (SULFA, kidney stones, weight loss)

267
Q

Neurontin

A

Gabapentin (renal elim; SE= edema, myopathy, opthalmic effects-nystagmus)

268
Q

Lyrica

A

pregabalin (cv, renal)

269
Q

Imitrex

A

sumatriptan (5HT1b/1d receptor agonist, PO 50-100mg may repeat in 2hr, max 200mg/d, SQ 6mg may repeat in 1hr max 12mg/d)

270
Q

Maxalt, Maxalt MLT

A

rizatriptan (wait 2hrs btw doses)

271
Q

Relpax

A

eletriptan (3A4 sub, do not use within 72hr of inhibitors)

272
Q

Amege

A

naratriptan (wait 4hr btw doses)

273
Q

Fioricet

A

butalbital/acetaminophen/caffeine (C3 in cali)

274
Q

Adderall (IR, XR)

A

amphetamine/dextroamphetamine (XR capsules can be opened and sprinkled)

275
Q

Focalin (IR, XR)

A

dexmethylphenidate (Can be taken whole or sprinkled over applesauce)

276
Q

Vyvanse

A

lisdexamfetamine (can be mixed with water and drink immediately)

277
Q

Ritalin (LA), Aptenso XR, Methylin (ER), Concerta, Metadate (ER), Quillvant XR, QuilliChew ER, Daytrana

A

Methylphenidate (Concerta OROS: 18, 27, 36, 54mg QD, Methylin po solu, Quillvant XR ER po solu, Daytrana patch apply to hip for 9hr (2hr before desired effect), replace patch every morning alt sites)

278
Q

Dexedrine

A

dextroamphetamine (for narcolepsy)

279
Q

Strattera

A

Atomoxetine (BBW suicidal ideation, CI severe liver disease, do not chew/open cap, swallow whole, initial 40mg/d inc after min of 3d to 80mg/d may admin as a QD dose in morning or as 2 divided doses in morning and evening max 100mg/d)

280
Q

Evista

A

Raloxifene (CI risk of blood clots, not for pre-menopau women 60mg QD)

281
Q

Fosamax, Bbinosto

A

alendronate (1st thing in morning before breakfast with water, stay upright for 30min, osteo prevention 35mg Qwk, Tx 70mg once weekly)

282
Q

Boniva

A

ibandronate (before breakfast with water, upright for 60min, oral 150mg Qmonth/IV Q3months)

283
Q

Actonel, Atelvia DR

A

risedronate (Atelvia DR take after breakfast, rest of formulations on empty stomach)

284
Q

Plaquenil

A

Hydroxychloroquine (admin with food monitor baseline eye exam)

285
Q

Trexall, Otrexup Rasuvo, RediTrex

A

methotrexate (indicated psoriasis, cancer, RA) (antidote leucovorin/glucarpidase (voraxaze))

286
Q

Humira

A

adalimumab (SQ refridg and protect from light, 40mg SQ QOW with MTX/40mg SQ weekly without MTX)

287
Q

Simponi

A

Golimumab (IV; SQ/BBW- risk of TB invasive fungi infection; 50mg SQ once a month with MTX)

288
Q

Remicade

A

infliximab (for CD, UC, RA, Psoriasis; fridge; IV; NS: begin IV infusion within 3hrs of reconstitution; infuse over 2 hrs)

289
Q

Azulfidine

A

Sulfasalazine (Don’t give in: SULFA and salicylate allergy

290
Q

Orange skin/urine RA: 1g BID; Colitis: 1 g QID)

291
Q

Neupogen, Granix, Nivestym, Zarxio

A

filgrastim (IV, SC refridge (RT 24HR), do not place in freezer)

292
Q

Neulasta

A

Pegfilgrastim (SC / refrigerate [RT 48H] )

293
Q

Procrit, Epogen

A

Epoetin alfa (IV/SC; refrigerate (discard after 21 days); don’t shake)

294
Q

Aranesp

A

Darbepoetin (IV/SC; refrigerated (Single-use vials))

295
Q

Tylenol, Ofirmev (IV)

A

Acetaminophen (Max 4g/day; Antidote: N-acetylcysteine NAC) (Hepatotoxicity)

296
Q

Motrin, Advil

297
Q

Naprosyn, Aleve

298
Q

Voltaren/Voltaren gel

A

diclofenac

299
Q

Toradol

300
Q

eye gtt: Acular, Acuvail

A

ketorolac (Due to increased risk of GI bleed max use is 5d except ophthalmic is 2 wks)

301
Q

indocin

A

Indomethacin

302
Q

sulindac

A

Clinoril (no dose adjust needed in renal impairment, PRODRUG)

303
Q

Feldene

A

[orpxoca, (MOST GI SEs)

304
Q

Relafen

A

Nabumetone

305
Q

Mobic

306
Q

Celebrex

A

celecoxib (SULFA, least GI SEs, HIGHEST CV RISK)

307
Q

aspirin

A

ASA (acetylsalicylic acid, NSAIDS (ibuprofen) dec cardioprotective effects of aspirin)

308
Q

Lidoderm

A

Lidocaine patch (Patches may be cut: Applied 12 hours on and 12 hours off)

309
Q

Flector

A

diclofenac patch (applied to the most painful area, Q12HR (bid))

310
Q

Ultram

A

Tramadol (C4; CI seizures and <12 years old; Serotonin syndrome)

311
Q

Nucynta, Nucynta ER

A

tapentadol (C2, no alcohol with ER form, seizures, 5HT syndrome)

312
Q

Tylenol with Codeine

A

acetaminophen/codeine (C3, codeine turns into morphine through 2D6)

313
Q

Demerol

A

Meperidine (C2, seizures, drug interactions 5HT syndrome with SSRI)

314
Q

MS Contin

A

Morphine (C2; Oral to IV 3 to 1; Do not use in renal impaired)

315
Q

Norco, Vicodin, Lortab

A

hydrocodone/acetaminophen (C2)

316
Q

OxyContin

A

oxycodone (C2, OxyContin Q12)

317
Q

Dolophine

A

Methadone (C2 BBW inc QT; 40mg does is used for detoxification)

318
Q

Dilaudid

A

hydromorphone (C2)

319
Q

Duragesic

A

Fentanyl (C2; patch Q72 hours; CYP3A4 substrate; Serotonin syndrome)

320
Q

Butrans Patch

A

Buprenorphine patch (Change patch once a week)

321
Q

Suboxone

A

buprenorphine/naloxone (for chronic pain or opioid dependence tx)

322
Q

Timoptic/Timoptic-XE

A

Timolol (Timoptic -XE = Gel which you turn upside down 1x before use)

323
Q

Trusopt

A

dorzolamide

324
Q

Cosopt

A

dorzolamide/timolol

325
Q

Xalatan

A

latanoprost (refrig, once open RT discard after 6wks)

326
Q

Travatan Z

A

travoprost (store at RT, discard 6wks after opening)

327
Q

Lumigan, Latisse

A

bimatoprost (Latisse used for eyelash growth)

328
Q

Alphagan P

A

brimonidine (alpha2agonist, dec aqueous fluid production and inc outflow, CI in pt taking MAOIs)

329
Q

Azopt

A

brinzolamide (Shake it is a suspension)

330
Q

Pred Mild, Pred Forte

A

prednisolone

331
Q

Pataday

A

olopatadine OTC

332
Q

Astelin, Astepro, Optivar

A

azelastine

333
Q

Flonase

A

fluticasone (nasal) OTC

334
Q

Qnasl, Beconase

A

beclomethasone (nasal)

335
Q

Nasacort

A

triamcinolone (nasal) OTC

336
Q

Atarax

A

Hydroxyzine (for hives)

337
Q

Benadryl

A

diphenhydramine (1st gen antihist (sedating) OTC)

338
Q

Allegra

A

Fexofenadine (LEAST SEDATING OTC)

339
Q

Claritin

A

Loratadine (CYP sub, OTC)

340
Q

Allergy Relief-D (OTC); Claritin-D 12 hour allergy & Congestion; Claritin-D 24 hour Allergy & Congestion (OTC)

A

loratadine/pseudoephedrine (12H L5mg/P 120mg 1tab Q12 max 2tab/d, 24H L10mg/P240mg max 1tab/d pt must be 18+ daily max 3.6g monthly max 9g)

341
Q

Zyrtec

A

cetirizine OTC

342
Q

Zyzal

A

levocetirizine OTC

343
Q

Naphcon A, Opcon A, Visine A

A

Naphazoline/pheniramine (Due to potential rebound effect do not recommend use for longer than 3d at a time, OTC)

344
Q

Delsym

A

dextromethorphan (must be 18+ to buy, inc 5HT do not give with MAOI, OTC)

345
Q

Tessalon Perles

A

Benzonatate (swallow capsule whole; if caps are chewed or dissolved in the mouth, oral mucosa anesthesia may occur and lead to chocking)

346
Q

TussiCaps, Tussionex

A

hydrocodone/chlorpheniramine (C2)

347
Q

Mucinex, Robitussin

A

Guaifenesin (take with a glass of water and maintain adequate hydration; OTC)

348
Q

Ditropan (XL), Oxytrol TD

A

Oxybutynin (Oxytrol TD-OTC patch for women; patch has less anticholinergic SE)

349
Q

Detrol (LA)

A

tolterodine (anticholinergic)

350
Q

Vesicare

A

solifenacin (anticholinergic)

351
Q

Myrbertiq

A

mirabegron (beta3 agonist, watch for HTN)

352
Q

Anusol-HC, Protosol-HC

A

hydrocortisone (rectal) (indicated for hemorrhoids)

353
Q

Temovate

A

Clobetasol (topical)

354
Q

Decadron

A

Dexamethasone

355
Q

Medrol

A

methylprednisolone

356
Q

Prednisolone

A

Millipred, Orapred ODT (oral), Pred Forte, Pred Mild (ophthalmic)

357
Q

Deltasone, Rayos

A

Prednisone

358
Q

Kenalog

A

triamcinolone (systemic & topical)

359
Q

mometasone

A

Nasonex (medium potency topical steroid)

360
Q

Prilosec

A

Omeprazole

361
Q

Nexium

A

esomeprazole

362
Q

Prevacid

A

lansoprazole

363
Q

Dexilant

A

dexlansoprazole (take any time of day, with or without food)

364
Q

Protonix

A

pantoprazole

365
Q

Aciphex

A

rabeprazole

366
Q

Pepcid

A

famotidine

367
Q

Reglan

A

Metoclopramide (only for short term use, long term leads to EPSE (tardive dyskinesia)

368
Q

carafate

A

sucralfate (empty stomach, contains aluminum avoid in pt with renal disease)

369
Q

Creon, Pancreaze, Pertzye, Zenpep

A

pancrelipase lipase, pancrelipase protease, pancrelipase amylase (tale w/meals or snacks with water or juice, do not crush or chew, caps can be opened and added to small amount of an acidic food (pH </=4.5 ~ applesauce), the food should be RT and swallowed immediately)

370
Q

Bentyl

A

dicyclomine (used as antispasmodics)

371
Q

Lomotil

A

diphenoxylate/atropine (for diarrhea)

372
Q

Asacol, Pentasa, Lialda, Canasa, Rowasa, Apriso

A

Mesalamine (CI in patients with salicylate allergies)

373
Q

Linzess

A

Linaclotide (CIC, IBSC, empty stomach before 1st meal of the day)

374
Q

Amitiza

A

Lubiprostone (CIC, IBSC, opioid induced constipation, take BID with food)

375
Q

Relistor

A

Methylnaltrexone (only for use with OPIODs in patients who have failed bisacodyl or docusate + senna)

376
Q

Colace

A

Docusate (lowest risk in preggo)

377
Q

Senna-KOT, Senna-LAX

A

senna (QD)

378
Q

Miralax

379
Q

Avonex, Rebif

A

Interferon Beta-1a (must refrigerate; Avonex is IM; Rebif is SQ)

380
Q

Tysabri

A

Natalizumab (IV; only used for 2 years due to PML)

381
Q

Gilenya

A

fingolimod (PO; Observe for 6h after 1st dose to monitor for bradycardia)

382
Q

Viagra, Revatio

A

sildenafil

383
Q

Cialis, Adcirca

A

Tadalafil (“the weekender” erectile function improved for p to 36HR)

384
Q

Prograf, Astagraf XL

A

tacrolimus (monitor levels; Astagraf XL empty stomach and avoid with alcohol; 3A4 sub avoid grapefruit juice)

385
Q

Sandimmune, Neoral, Gengraf

A

Cyclosporine (monitor levels; sandimmune- cyclosporine non-modified/neoral, gengraf-cyclosporine modified; restasis= dry eyes at room temp and 3A4 sub)

386
Q

Cellcept

A

Mycophenolate mofetil (take on empty stomach and monitor CBC/Pregnancy)

387
Q

Phenergan

A

Promethazine (Also for cough, combined with dextromethorphan or codeine, don’t give promethazine to kids < 2YO)

388
Q

Zofran

A

ondansetron (available in ODT)

389
Q

Antivert, Bonine

A

meclizine (for motion sickness)

390
Q

Robaxin

A

methocarbamol (urine discoloration (brown, brown/black, or green)

391
Q

soma

A

carisoprodol (C4)

392
Q

Lioresal

393
Q

Amrix, Fexmid, Flexeril

A

cyclobenzaprine (anticholinergic 5HT syndrome, looks like TCA and carbamazepine)

394
Q

Zanaflex

A

tizanidine (alpha2 agonist)

395
Q

Vitamin C

A

ascorbic acid (antioxidant, helps with collagen synthesis, lack of it causes scurvy (fatigue, bleeding gums))

396
Q

Rocaltrol

A

calcitriol (vit D def)

397
Q

Vitamin D2, Drisdol

A

ergocalciferol (vit D def)

398
Q

Vitamin D3

A

cholecalciferol (vit D def)

399
Q

Vitamin B12

A

Cyanocobalamin (Megaloblastic anemia, def causes neurologic sx, metformin & strict vegan diet can also cause Bb12 def)

400
Q

Fergon

A

Ferrous gluconate (12% of elemental iron)

401
Q

Feosol, Fer-in-sol, Fer-Iron

A

Ferrous sulfate (20% of elemental iron)

402
Q

Ferrerts, Ferrimin, Hemocyte

A

ferrous fumarate (33% elemental iron)

403
Q

folic acid

A

Folvite (Megaloblastic anemia, given in preggo to prevent neural tube defects)

404
Q

Peridex, Periogard oral rinse

A

chlorhexidine gluconate (for gingivitis, periodontitis, and oropharyngeal decontamination)

405
Q

EpiPen & EpiPen Jr.

A

ephinephrine auto injector (0.3 mg for pt >/= 30kg, Jr. 0.15mg for pt <30kg)