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Year 3 of UU > Toegepaste Cognitieve Psychologie > Flashcards

Toegepaste Cognitieve Psychologie Flashcards

1
Q

Over welke interactie gaat TCP?

A

Over de interactie tussen mens en omgeving, de interactie met andere mensen valt hierbuiten!

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2
Q

Wat doet een TCP-er?

A

Een TCP-er evalueert de interactie van gebruikers met de omgeving en komt met mogelijke oplossingen.

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3
Q

Waar gaat TCP over?

A

Over het bevorderen van de veiligheid, het verbeteren van alledaagse dingen & ondersteunen van werk-en leefsituatie door de omgeving aan te passen aan de mens en daarbij kennis en methoden uit de cognitieve psychologie te gebruiken.

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4
Q

Human-data interaction

A

The complex interactions between humans / online software agents and data access.

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5
Q

Human factors

A

The study of those variables that influence the efficiency with which the human performer can interact with the inanimate components of a system to accomplish the system goals.

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6
Q

What is the intention of the human performance researcher?

A

To characterize the processes within the human component.

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7
Q

What is the intention of the human factors specialist?

A

To design the human-machine interface to optimize achievement of the system goal.

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8
Q

HCI (abbreviation)

A

Human-computer interface

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9
Q

Macroergonomics

A

The interactions between the organizational environment and the design and implementation of a system.

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10
Q

What does total system performance depend upon?

A

The operator, the machine and the environment in which they are placed.

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11
Q

What component of total system performance does the design engineer study?

A

The machine.

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12
Q

What component of total system performance does a human performance researcher study?

A

The operator.

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13
Q

What component of the total system performance does a human factors specialist study?

A

The interrelations between the different components.

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14
Q

Weber’s law

A

Describes people’s ability to determine that 2 stimuli differ in magnitude.
diff. in I / I = K

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15
Q

Fechner’s law

A

Relates physical intensity to psychological sensation.
S = k* log (I)

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16
Q

Human information processing

A

Assumes that cognition occurs through a series of operations performed on information originating from the senses.

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17
Q

What 3 contributions did Frederik W. Taylor make?

A
  1. Task analysis
  2. Pay for performance
  3. Personnel selection
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18
Q

Time-and-motion study

A

Analyzes worker’s movements across time to determine the best way to perform a task.

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19
Q

Pay for performance

A

The amount of compensation to a worker is a function of the amount of pieces completed.

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20
Q

Hoe wordt TCP in Europa ook wel genoemd?

A

Ergonomie

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21
Q

Hoe wordt TCP in de USA ook wel genoemd?

A

Human Factors

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22
Q

Welke 3 geschiedenis dingen zijn bepalend geweest voor de ontwikkeling van TCP?

A
  1. industriële revolutie
  2. 2e wereldoorlog
  3. digitale revolutie
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23
Q

Wat was het doel van de industrialisatie?

A

Het verhogen van de productiviteit op de werkvloer.

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24
Q

Charles Babbage

A

Belangrijk in de industriële en digitale revolutie. Voorstander van arbeidsverdeling op de werkvloer.

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25
Q

Frederik Winslow Taylor

A

De grondlegger van scientific management. Gaf oorzaken van lage productiviteit op de werkvloer en oplossingen om dit te verbeteren.

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26
Q

soldiering

A

Arbeiders werken met opzet onder hun maximale capaciteit.

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27
Q

Wat was Taylor’s conclusie over de oorzaken van soldiering?

A

De mens is van nature lui, beloning is niet gerelateerd aan productie en de vuistregels van trainingsmethoden zijn inefficiënt.

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28
Q

Wat voor oplossingen voor soldiering gaf Taylor?

A

Belonen, werk standaardiseren en betere selectie en training.

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29
Q

Hawthorne effect

A

= observer bias.
Individuen passen hun gedrag aan wanneer ze weten dat ze geobserveerd worden.

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30
Q

Wat was de oorsprong van signaaldetectietheorie?

A

De tweede wereldoorlog.

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31
Q

Wanneer kwam er aandacht voor ‘fitting the job to the worker’?

A

In de tweede wereldoorlog.

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32
Q

Bij welke periode hoort het ‘fitting the worker to the job’?

A

De industriële revolutie.

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33
Q

What are the two kinds of attention?

A
  1. Selective attention.
  2. Divided attention.
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34
Q

Selective attention

A

The ability to focus on certain sources of information and ignore others.

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35
Q

Divided attention

A

The ability to do more than one thing at once.

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36
Q

Executive control

A

The strategies that a person adopts in different task environments to control the flow of information and task performance.

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37
Q

Mental workload

A

An estimate of the cognitive demands of an operator’s duties.

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38
Q

What are the two types of models of attention?

A
  1. Bottleneck models
  2. Resource models
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39
Q

What are the two types of bottleneck models?

A
  1. Early-selection
  2. Late-selection
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40
Q

What are the two types of resource models?

A
  1. Single resource
  2. Multiple resource
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41
Q

Bottleneck models

A

Models of attention that specify a particular stage in the information processing sequence where the amount of information to which we can attend is limited.

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42
Q

Resource models

A

Models of attention that view attention as a limited-capacity resource that can be allocated to one or more tasks.

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43
Q

When does performance get worse in bottleneck models?

A

When the information stuck at the bottleneck increases.

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44
Q

What is early and late in the bottleneck models?

A

Early is closer to perception, later is closer to response.

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45
Q

When does performance get worse in resource models?

A

When the amount of resource decreases.

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46
Q

Executive control models

A

Models of attention that view performance decrease as a consequence of the need to coordinate different aspects of human information processing, a 3rd class of attention models.

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47
Q

Filter theory

A

An early-selection bottlemeneck model that captures the phenomena that ‘it’s difficult to attend to more than one message at a time and little remembered about unattended message’. Unwanted/-attended info is filtered before identification.

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48
Q

Filter-attenuation model

A

An early-selection bottleneck model that attenuates the incoming information, so does not block unattended information entirely.

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49
Q

Late-selection model

A

A bottleneck model that puts the block filter after identification and says that identified information decays rapidly if not attended.

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50
Q

Load theory

A

As the information processing shifts from early to late selection, more information is gathered from irrelevant sources, requiring more effort to focus on relevant sources. Place of selection depends on perceptual load.

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51
Q

Perceptual load

A

Number of stimuli and the rate at which they are presented.

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52
Q

Unitary-source models

A

Attention models that view attention as a limited-capacity resource that can be applied to a variety of processes and tasks.

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53
Q

What do unitary-resource models say about multi-tasking?

A

Simultaneous execution of tasks is easy unless the capacity of resources is exceeded. Then the processing system needs to make an allocation strategy depending on intentions and evaluations of demands on resources in that moment.

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54
Q

Probe technique

A

A method that uses two tasks, one priming and one secondary task. Secondary task is usually a tone or visual stimulus that is briefly presented during the primary task.

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55
Q

What do probe studies show about attention?

A

Dual-task procedures can provide sensitive measures of the momentary attentional demans on a person.

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56
Q

Malleable attentional resources

A

An aspect of resource theory, says that available capacity may fluctuate with the level of arousal and demands of the task.

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57
Q

Multiple-resource models

A

Attention models that propose that there’s no single pool of attentional resources. Distinct cognitive subsystems have their own limited pool of resources.

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58
Q

What components does Wickens & McCarley’s 3D model contain?

A

Stages of processing, information codes, input form, output form and visual channels.

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59
Q

What is the idea of Wickens & McCarley’s 3D model of attention?

A

The greater the extent to which 2 tasks require separate pools of resources, the more efficiently they can be combined.

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60
Q

EPIC theory (abbreviation)

A

Executive process interactive control theory

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61
Q

Executive process interactive control (EPIC) theory

A

A theory of multi-tasking that says that decrements in multi-task performance are due to strategies that people adopt to perform different tasks in different ways. Poses no limitation in capacity of central cogniitve processes.

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62
Q

Selective listening

A

A method where a target auditory message is presented together with another distractor auditory signal.

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63
Q

Covert orienting

A

Selectively attending to a location in the visual field that is different from the fixation point.

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64
Q

Endogenous orienting

A

A shift from attention that is initiated voluntarily by the individual.

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65
Q

Exogenous orienting

A

A shift in attention that initiated involuntarily by rapid onset or perceived motion of a stimulus.

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66
Q

Inhibition of return

A

The phenomenon that if the time between the cue and target stimulus is more than 300 ms, responses to the target presented in uncued locations are faster than to targets in cued locations.

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67
Q

POC (abbreviation)

A

performance operating characteristic

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68
Q

What does the POC-curve describe?

A

The tradeoff in dual-task performance.

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69
Q

Independence point (P)

A

A point on the POC-curve that described the performance when the two tasks could be performed together as efficiently as when alone.

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70
Q

Performance efficiency

A

The distance between the POC-curve and the independence point P. Indicates how efficiently the tasks can be performed together.

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71
Q

Cost of concurrence

A

The difference between performance of 1 task and dual-task performance where all resources are devoted to that one task.

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72
Q

Yerkes-Dodson law

A

Performance is an inverted U-shaped function of arousal level.

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73
Q

What happens to attention when arousal level is high?

A

It becomes more focused and the range of cues used to guide attention become more restricted.

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74
Q

Name the 2 important effects of arousal level on attention:

A
  1. perceptual narrowing
  2. vigilance decrement
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75
Q

Perceptual narrowing

A

The restriction of attention that occurs under high arousal levels.

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76
Q

Vigilance

A

Sustained attention

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77
Q

Vigilance task

A

A task that requires detection of relatively infrequent signals that occur at unpredictable times. Performance decreases over time.

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78
Q

Workload

A

The total amount of work that a person or group of people is to perform over a given period of time.

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79
Q

Mental workload

A

The amount of mental work / effort necessary to perform a task in a given period of time.

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80
Q

What is the purpose in a mental workload assessment?

A

To maintain workload at a level that will allow acceptable performance.

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81
Q

What are the four major empirical techniques used for workload assessment?

A
  1. Primary task measures
  2. Secondary task measures
  3. Physiological measures
  4. Subjective assessment.
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82
Q

What two types of techniques are used for workload assessment?

A
  1. analytical techniques
  2. empirical techniques
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83
Q

Empirical techniques

A

Used in workload assessment to measure and assess workload directly in an operational system or simulated environment.

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84
Q

Analytical techniques

A

Used for workload assessment, predict workload demands early in the system development process.

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85
Q

Primary task measures

A

A workload assessment method that directly examines the performance of the operator or of the overall system.

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86
Q

Secondary task measures

A

Workload assessment method based on the logic of dual-task performance. Measures the degree to which performance on either the primary or secondary task deteriorates in the dual-task situation relative to when each task is performed alone.

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87
Q

Which is more sensitive: primary task or secondary task measures?

A

Secondary task measures.

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88
Q

Loading task paradigm

A

A method where operators are told to maintain performance on the secondary task even if the primary task performance suffers.

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89
Q

Subsidiary task paradigm

A

Method where operators are told to maintain performance on primary task at the expense of the secondary task.

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90
Q

What is the major benefit of psychophysiological measures in workload assessment?

A

They can provide online measurement of the dynamic changes in workload.

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91
Q

What two classes do psychophysiological measures fall into?

A
  1. measuring general arousal
  2. measuring brain activity
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92
Q

Pupillometry

A

The measurement of pupil diameter, this indicates the amoundmt of attentional resources used to perform a task.

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93
Q

P300

A

Can be interpreted as workload,a positive signal 300 ms after event. Latency is index of stimulus-evaluation difficulty.

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94
Q

Cooper-Harper scale

A

A standardized measure of subjective mental workload, measures overall workload.

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95
Q

What methods estimate distinct aspects of workload?

A

the NASA task load index and the subjective workload index

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96
Q

SWAT (abbreviation)

A

subjective workload assessment technique

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97
Q

SWAT

A

Workload assessment method that lets operators judge workload using a card-sorting procedure. 27 possible card combinations ara analysed.

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98
Q

What 5 analytical techniques for workload assessment are discussed in the book?

A
  1. comparison
  2. expert opinion
  3. mathematical models
  4. task analysis methods
  5. simulation models
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99
Q

PRP (abbreviation)

A

psychological refractory period

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100
Q

Psychological refractory period (PRP)

A

The period of time during which the response to a second stimulus is significantly slowed because a first stimulus is still being processed.

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101
Q

Hoe kan PRP worden verkort?

A

Dor kennis over de tweede stimulus, oefening of compatibiliteit.

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102
Q

Hoe meten we mentale belasting?

A

Door naar prestatie als functie van de moeilijkheid van een taak te kijken.

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103
Q

Wat zijn nadelen van een single-task onderzoek?

A

Is alleen gevoelig wanneer limiet van mentale capaciteit is bereikt, meet niet of prestatie gelijk blijft bij meer inspanning.

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104
Q

Wat zijn nadelen van een dual-task onderzoeksmethode?

A

De tweede taak kan interferen met de hoofdtaak, of slecht gekozen zijn, of is niet altijd haalbaar.

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105
Q

Wat zijn nadelen van fysiologische maten voor mentale belasting?

A

Gevoelig voor vermoeidheid, lichtniveau, fysieke activiteit.

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106
Q

Automatic processing

A

Vereist geen aandacht, is parallel, moeilijk te vergeten of veranderen, ongevoelig voor mentale belasting en snel.

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107
Q

Controlled processing

A

Vereist aandacht, is serieel, makkelijk te veranderen, gevoelig voor mentale belasting en langzaam.

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108
Q

Hoe kun je het effect van aandachtsverdeling op prestatie meten?

A

met een POC-curve.

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109
Q

Response-selection error

A

When perception and cognition are accomplished flawelessly, but still the inappropriate action is taken.

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110
Q

What 3 processes happen between onset of stimulus and the completion of response to that stimulus?

A
  1. Identification of stimulus
  2. Reponse selection
  3. Response execution
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111
Q

Response selection

A

How quickly and accurately people can determine which response they are to make to a stimulus.

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112
Q

Simple reaction task

A

Situations in which a single response must be made to a stimulus event.

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113
Q

What are the two types of errors commonly made on a go/no go task?

A
  1. Omission error
  2. Comission error
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114
Q

Choice reaction tasks

A

Situations in which one of several possible responses could be made to a stimulus.

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115
Q

What does the time to make a response in the choice reaction task depend on?

A

On how accurate the choice must be.

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116
Q

Speed-accuracy tradeoff

A

A function showing different combinations of speed and accuracy for a single choice situation.

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117
Q

Information theory about information:

A

Expresses the amount of information (H) in a set of stimuli or responses as a function of the number of possible alternatives and their probabilities.

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118
Q

Hick-Nymann law

A

Reaction time is a linear function of the amount of information in the stimulus set.

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119
Q

What is the equation of the Hick-Hyman law?

A

Reaction time = a + b [ T(S,R) ]
with
a = constant, sensory & motor factors
b = time to transmit one bit of info
T(S,R) = info transmitted between stimulus and response

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120
Q

stimulus-response compatibility

A

Phenomenon that responses are faster and more accurate for pairings of stimulus sets and response sets that correspond naturally than for those that don’t.

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121
Q

Simon effect

A

The influence of the spatial correspondence between the locations of stimuli and the responses. A special case of S-R compatibility that arises when the location of the stimulus is irrelevant to the response that is to be made.

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122
Q

Structural similarity

A

A way in which stimuli and responses can be similar that has nothing to do with conceptual or physical similarity. Ex: 1-2-3 and A-B-C.

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123
Q

Medisch model

A

Gaat uit van het beeld dat de mens met beperking afwijkt van de norm hoe de meeste mensen zijn. Beperking moet door dokters, hulpverleners en andere deskundigen geminimaliseerd worden.

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124
Q

Sociaal model

A

Gaat uit van het beeld dat de mens met beperking net als iedereen een variant van de mens is. Gedrag en omgeving moeten ontwikkeld worden zodat zoveel mogelijk mensen mee kunnen doen.

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125
Q

Uit welke twee componenten bestaat inclusief ontwerpen?

A
  1. Co-creatie
  2. Toegankelijkheid
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126
Q

Welke 3 vormen van toegankelijkheid worden meegenomen in inclusief ontwerpen?

A
  1. Digitaal
  2. Sociaal
  3. Cognitief
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127
Q

DSA (abbreviation)

A

design for social accessibility

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128
Q

Frequentie

A

f, het aantal trillingen per seconde gemeten in Herz. Eigenschap van geluid.

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129
Q

Intensiteit

A

I, energie in signaal gemeten in decibels. eigenschap van geluid

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130
Q

Golflengte

A

lambda = v/f, de voortplantingssnelheid van geluid.

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131
Q

Wat is de drempel van het menselijk gehoor in intensiteit?

A

0 dB

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132
Q

Klankkleur

A

Ook wel timbre, ontstaat wanneer frequenties gemengd worden. Bepaald door harmonische inhoud van het signaal.

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133
Q

Wat is de subjectieve kwaliteit van intensiteit?

A

Loudness

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134
Q

Fletcher-Munson curve

A

Laat zien dat voor een hogere frequentie een lagere amplitude nodig is om dezelfde luidheid waar te nemen.

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135
Q

Loudness

A

Een functie van intensiteit, wordt beïnvloed door frequentie en tijd (adaptatie) en door de kritische bandbreedte van een geluid.

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136
Q

Scherpte (geluid)

A

hoge frequencties

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137
Q

Roughness (geluid)

A

Sterke modulatie in intensiteit.

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138
Q

cognitive lock-up

A

The tendency of operators to deal with disturbances sequentially and ignore higher priority tasks if they require switching tasks.

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139
Q

Earcons

A

Abstracte geluiden waarvan de betekenis moet worden geleerd.

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140
Q

Auditory icons

A

bekende geluiden met stereotype betekenissen.

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141
Q

Sonificatie

A

Vertaling van de over te brengen informatie naar het akoestische domein.

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142
Q

Wat is human error volgens Frank Klap?

A

Een gevolg, geen oorzaak. Het is geen intentie om te falen: de actie wijkt af van de intentie.

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143
Q

Dual-route dimensional overlap model

A

A model in which a stimulus automatically activates the most compatible response, regardless of whether or not that response is the correct one. If the automatic response is not the same aws the one identified by the intentional route, then it must be inhibited before the correct response can be eecuted.

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144
Q

What explains the Simon effect?

A

Inhibition of the automatically activated response when it conflicts with the correct response.

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145
Q

Theory of Event Coding

A

Poses structures event codes/files: temporary, linked collection of features that define an event. A stimulus and its associated response are linked in an event file, and thus less available for other perceptions and actions.

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146
Q

S-C-R compatibility

A

A term to emphasize the central processes. C = mediating processes, they reflect the operator’s mental model of the task.

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147
Q

Ideomoter feedback

A

The sensations resulting from an action.

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148
Q

When do stimuli and responses have high ideomotor compatibility?

A

When the modality of the stimulus is the same as the ideomotor feedback from the response.

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149
Q

Stroop effect

A

Occurs when the word and the ink color of written colors conflict. when naming the color of the word, people say the color that is written instead of the ink color.

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150
Q

What is the difference between the Stroop and the Simon effect?

A

The Stroop effect seems to arise from conflicting stimulus dimensions, and the Simon effect fro conflicting response dimensions.

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151
Q

Eriksen Flanker effect

A

When finding a single letter that is among other letters, participants respond slower if one target is surrounded by other targets than if one target is surrounded by non-targets.

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152
Q

grip patterns

A

The limb movements and finger placements that people use to grasp and manipulate an object.

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153
Q

What are grip patterns affected by?

A
  1. The properties of the object for which a person is reaching.
  2. The intended use of the object.
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154
Q

Population stereotype

A

When most people would intuitively make an association.

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155
Q

Name the four principles that determine the preferred diplay-control relationship:

A
  1. Clockwise-to-right/up principle
  2. Warrick’s principle
  3. Clockwise-to-increase principle
  4. Scale-side principle
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156
Q

Warrick’s principle

A

When the control is at one side of the display, the pointer should move in the same direction as the side of the control nearest the display.

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157
Q

Scale-side principle

A

The indicator is expected to move in the same direction as the side of the control that is next to the display’s scale/

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158
Q

Visual field compatibility

A

Display movement that mirrors the control movement while the person looks at the control.

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159
Q

Control-display compatibility

A

The actual direction of movement of the control relative to the display.

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160
Q

Visual-trunk compatibility

A

When the control movement is in the same direction as the display movement relative to the operator’s trunk.

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161
Q

Compatibiliteit

A

De mate waarin de reactie die een stimulus opwekt een resultaat oplevert overeenkomstig met het verwachte resultaat.

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162
Q

Hoe kun je compatibiliteit vergroten?

A

Door bij het ontwerp rekening te houden met de specificaties en verwachtingen van de gebruiker zodat er een adequate en snelle vertaling van stimulus naar respons is.

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163
Q

Waarom is een goede compatibiliteit belangrijk?

A

Een snelle en adequate vertaling van perceptie naar actie zorgt voor kortere reactietijden, minder fouten en lagere mentale belasting.

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164
Q

Welke vier typen compatibiliteit onderscheiden we?

A
  1. Spatial
  2. Modality
  3. Movement
  4. Conceptual
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165
Q

Warrick’s principle geldt alleen als…

A

de knop naast de display staat.

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166
Q

Scale-side principle geldt als…

A

de indicator naast, onder of boven het display staat.

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167
Q

Waardoor kan compatibiliteit vergroot worden?

A

Door goed gebruik van mapping en kennis van de gebruiker.

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168
Q

Hoe kan compatibiliteit gemeten worden?

A

Aan de hand van prestatiematen zoals RT en nauwkeurigheid, een confusiematrix voor symbolen of door fysiologische metingen.

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169
Q

Masked threshold

A

A threshold determined relative to some level of background noise. The signal intensity level required for 75% correct selection of the noise burst when one burst contains signal and one doesn’t.

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170
Q

Likelihood alarm

A

Warns of an impending event, but sounds different depending on how likely the event is.

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171
Q

At what speed do sound waves travel through the air?

A

340 m/s

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172
Q

Intensity is measured in…

A

units of watts per square meter

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173
Q

Sound pressure

A

The root mean square deviation from the static pressure, a function of the difference between the maximal and minimal pressured.

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174
Q

What does it mean that intensity follows an inverse square law?

A

Measured intensity is proportional to one over the square of the distance from the source.

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175
Q

Harmonics

A

Integer multiple of the fundamental frequency.

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176
Q

White noise

A

Has an equal average intensity for all component frequencies.

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177
Q

Wideband noise

A

Has frequencies across most or all of the auditory spectrum.

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178
Q

Narrowband noise

A

Has only a restricted range of frequencies.

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179
Q

How is sound collected in humans?

A

By the pinna, the outer ear shaped part.

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180
Q

What does the pinna do?

A

Collect sound from the environment and amplifies or attenuates sounds, playing a role in localization.

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181
Q

Auditory canal

A

Receives sound from the pinna. Isolates middle & inner ear from the outside world.

182
Q

What is the resonant frequency of the auditory canal?

A

3-5 kHz, these suonds receive a boost in amplitude.

183
Q

Tympanic membrane

A

the eardrum. Vibrates when sound pressure waves strike it.

184
Q

What is the function of the middle ear?

A

Transmission of vibration further into the structures of the auditory system. Passes vibrations to the oval window.

185
Q

Oval window

A

Provides entry to the inner ear. Receives vibrations from the middle ear.

186
Q

Ossicles

A

The malleus, incus and stapes in the middle ear.

187
Q

Where is the malleus?

A

Attached to the center of the tympanic membrane.

188
Q

What does the incus connect?

A

Connects the malleus and stapes.

189
Q

Where is the stapes?

A

Lies on the oval window.

190
Q

Acoustic reflex

A

Reduces sound vibrations sent from the outer ear to the inner ear by making the tympanic membrane and ossicles difficult to move.

191
Q

Cochlea

A

A fluid-fillerd, coiled cavity that contains the auditory sensory receptors.

192
Q

What three chambers does the cochlea contain?

A
  1. vestibular canal
  2. Cochlear duct
  3. Tympanic canal
193
Q

What does the basilar membrane do?

A

Separates the cochlear duct from the tympanic canal.

194
Q

What does the auditory nerve consist of?

A

A set of neurons that have frequency tuning curves with distinct characteristic frequencies.

195
Q

Tonotopic coding

A

The property of the auditory nerve that neurons with similar characteristic frequencies are located near each other in the auditory nerve.

196
Q

Two-tone suppression

A

When the frequency of a second tone falls just outside the tuning curve aof a neuron and thus the activity of an auditory neuron is suppressed.

197
Q

Sone

A

A unit for measuring loudness. One sone is loudness of 1000 Hz stimulus at 40dB intensity.

198
Q

What is de formula for specifying sound-pressure level Lp for a particular sound p?

A

L_p = 20* log_10(p/p_r)
with p_r = reference pressure of 20 microPascals.

199
Q

Frequency theory

A

A theory of pitch perception that says that the basilar membrane vibrates at the frequency of the auditory stimulus, this fq is transformed into a pattern of neural firing at the same fq.

200
Q

Place theory

A

A theory of pitch perception that says that the basilar membrane consists of a series of resonators of decreasing length, corresponding to different fqs. Fq of a tone affects a particular place on the basilar membrane and activity of receptors at that location send signal along the neurons that receive input from there.

201
Q

Auditory stream segregation

A

The effect that a rapid alternation between high- and low-freqnecy notes leads to perception of two distinct melodies.

202
Q

Doppler effect

A

The systematic transformation in the frequency of the sound pattern that results in a shift of pitch corresponding to the changes in location.

203
Q

Glare

A

A high-intensity light that can cause discomfort and interfere with the perception of objects of lower intensity.

204
Q

What are the different kinds of glare?

A
  1. Direct
  2. Reflected
205
Q

Direct glare

A

Glare produced by light sources within the visual field, such as windows and light fixtures.

206
Q

Reflected glare

A

Produced by objects and surfaces that reflect light. Can be avoided by locating light sources and work surfaces so that light sources are not in an ‘offending zone’.

207
Q

Offending zone

A

Where light from the source will reflect from the work surface into the eyes.

208
Q

Specular reflection

A

A type of reflected glare that produces images of objects in the room on the viewing surfaces.

209
Q

Veiling reflection

A

A type of reflected glare where contrast over parts of the viewed surface is completely reduced.

210
Q

Disability glare

A

Reduces the constrast ratio of display characters by increasing the luminance of both the display background and the characters.

211
Q

Discomfort glare

A

May be accompanied by disability glare. Will cause the worker discomfort when the work surface is viewed for a period of time.

212
Q

VCP (abbreviation)

A

Visual comfort probability

213
Q

VCP method

A

A method used to assess the potential for direct discomfort glare. Takes into account the direction, luminance and solid angle of the glare source as well as background luminance.

214
Q

How is the glare sensation index M calculated in the VCP method?

A

M = (Ls * Q) / (2* P * (F^0.44))

with Ls= luminance of glare source
P = index of position of glare source from line of sight
F = luminance of entire field of view incl. glare source

215
Q

How is de Q in the glare sensation index formula calculated?

A

Q = 20.4 * Ws + 1.52 * (Ws^0.2) - 0.075

with Ws = visual angle of glare source

216
Q

DGR (abbreviation)

A

discomfort glare rating

217
Q

What does the VCP mean?

A

It’s the percentage of people who would find the level of direct glare in the environment acceptable.

218
Q

How can the DGR be converted into VCP?

A

VCP = 279-110(log_10(DGR))

219
Q

Noise

A

Undesirable background sound that is irrelevant to the task that someone is trying to accomplish.

220
Q

What does a sound-level meter give us?

A

A single measure of sound amplitude averaged over the auditory spectrum.

221
Q

What calibration scales does a sound-level meter have?

A

One appropriate for low intensities (A), one for intermediate intensities (B) and one for high intensities (C).

222
Q

How can we get a cumulative measure of a worker’s total noise exposure across the course of a day?

A

Use an audiodosimeter, which is worn by the worker for an entire day.

223
Q

Sonic boom

A

Occurs unexpectantly, has rapid onset and is loud enough to shake buildings and startle people. An example of unpleasant noise with strong emotional responses.

224
Q

Noise criterion

A

Specifies the maximum intensity level for noise of different frequencies in different environments that will not interfere with speech or be otherwise disturbing.

225
Q

NCB (abbreviation)

A

balanced noise criterion curves

226
Q

How are noise frequencies in a task environment measured?

A

In octave bands, ranges of frequencies from one-half to double the reference frequency.

227
Q

What do you need to do before using balanced noise criterion curves?

A

Decide what the appropriate NCB level is for the environment in question.

228
Q

Threshold shift

A

Decreases in auditory sensitivity due to constant exposure to very high noise levels.

229
Q

Temporary threshold shift

A

An elevation in a person’s auditory threshold measured 2 min after exposure.

230
Q

System engineering

A

A multidisciplinary approach to design that emphasizes the overall goals of the system or product under development during the design process.

231
Q

What are the two kinds of systems?

A
  1. mission oriented systems
  2. service oriented systems
232
Q

What do higher levels in the system hierarchy represent?

A

System functions

233
Q

What do lower levels in the system hierarchy represent?

A

Specific physical components

234
Q

Mission-oriented systems

A

Subordinate the needs of their personnel to the goal of the mission.

235
Q

Service-oriented systems

A

Cater to personnel, clients or users.

236
Q

Physical system variables

A

Describe the functioning of the physical system and its components. Distinguished by their organization and complexity.

237
Q

Complexity

A

A function of the number and arrangement of subsystems.

238
Q

Interdependent subsystems

A

Subsystems that depend on others for their input and those that must make use of a common resource pool to operate.

239
Q

Feedback

A

Input or information flow traveling backwards in the system. Usually provides information about the difference between the actual and desired state of the system.

240
Q

Positive feedback

A

Is added to the system input and keeps the state of the system changing in its present direction.

241
Q

Why are systems using positive feedback usually unstable?

A

Positive information flow can amplify error instead of correcting it.

242
Q

Negative feedback

A

Is subtracted from the system input.

243
Q

Close-loop systems

A

Systems that make use of feedback

244
Q

Open-loop systems

A

Systems that do not use feedback

245
Q

What kind of systems are error correcting and why?

A

Closed-loop systems that use negative feedback, because the input is continuously monitored.

246
Q

What systems have no error detection mechanisms?

A

Open-loop systems

247
Q

Determinate systems

A

Are highly proceduralized, operators follow specific protocols and have little flexibility in their actions.

248
Q

Indeterminate systems

A

Not very highly proceduralized and operators have a wide range of activities to engage in. Operator’s response might be based on ambiguous inputs with little feedback.

249
Q

When do we speak of a human error?

A

When an action is taken that was not intended by the actor, not desired by a set of rules or an external observer or that led the task/system outside its acceptable limits.

250
Q

Operator error

A

Those system failure that are due entirely to the human.

251
Q

Design error

A

Those human errors that are due to the system design.

252
Q

Error of omission

A

An error made when the operator fails to perform a required action.

253
Q

error of commission

A

Occurs when an action is performed, but is inappropriate.

254
Q

In what categories can we subdivide commission errors?

A
  1. Timing errors
  2. Sequence errors
  3. Selection errors
  4. Quantitative errors
255
Q

Timing error

A

When a person performs an action too early or too later.

256
Q

Sequence error

A

When the worker performs the steps in the wrong order

257
Q

Selection error

A

When the worker manipulates the wrong control

258
Q

Quantitative error

A

When the worker makes too little or too much of the appropriate control manipulation.

259
Q

What is the distinction between recoverable and nonrecoverable errors?

A

Whether they lead to a system failure or not.

260
Q

Recoverable errors

A

Errors that can potentially be corrected and their consequences minimized.

261
Q

Nonrecoverable errors

A

Thos for which system failure is inescapable.

262
Q

Operating error

A

Occurs when a machine is not operated according to the correct procedure.

263
Q

Design error

A

Can occur when the system designer creates an error-likely situation by failing to consider human tendencies or limitations.

264
Q

Assembly/manufacturing error

A

Arises when a product is misassembled or faulty.

265
Q

Installation/maintenance error

A

Occurs when machines are either installed or maintained improperly.

266
Q

Processing classification of errors

A

Classifying errors according to their locus within the human information processing system.

267
Q

Input errors

A

Thos attributable to sensory and perceptual processes.

268
Q

Mediation errors

A

Errors that reflect the cognitive processes that translate between perception and action

269
Q

Output errors

A

Those that are due to the selection and execution of physical responses.

270
Q

Slip

A

Failure in execution of action.

271
Q

Mistake

A

Arises from errors in planning of action.

272
Q

When is an operator in a skill-based mode of behavior?

A

When performing routine, highly overlearned procedures.

273
Q

When is an operator in a rule-based mode of behavior?

A

When situations arise that are relatively unique. Performance is based on problem solving.

274
Q

Lapses

A

Errors that involve memory failures such as losing track of your place in an action sequence.

275
Q

What are the three major categories of slips?

A
  1. Faulty formation of an action plan
  2. Faulty activation of an action schema
  3. Faulty triggering of an action schema.
276
Q

Action schema

A

An organized body of knowledge that can direct the flow of motor activity.

277
Q

Routine violations

A

Disregard for the laws and rules that are to be followed that occur on a regular basis.

278
Q

Exceptional violations

A

Those that do not occur on a regular basis.

279
Q

HFACS (abbreviation)

A

the Human Factors Analysis and Classification System

280
Q

What are the four error taxonomies?

A
  1. Action
  2. Failure
  3. Processing
  4. Intentional
281
Q

What is the crux of reliability engineering?

A

The total system reliability can be determined from the reliabilities of the individual components and their configuration in the system.

282
Q

Reliability

A

A term used to characterize the dependability of performance for a system, subsystem or component. The probability that an item will operate adequately for a specified period of time in its intended application.

283
Q

What are the three categories of failure for hardware systems?

A
  1. operating
  2. standby
  3. on-demand
284
Q

What distinction is important when determining system reliability?

A

The distinction between components arranged in series and in parallel.

285
Q

System arranged in series

A

A system where components are arranged such that they all must operate appropriately if the system is to perform its function. System reliability is product of individual probabilities.

286
Q

In a serial system, the reliability can only be as great as that of…

A

the least reliable component.

287
Q

Parallel system

A

A system where two or more components perform the same function. Succesful performance requires only one of the components to operate appropriately.

288
Q

How do you calculate the reliability of a parallel system?

A

R = [1-((1-r)^n))]
with r = reliability of each individual component and n= number of components arranged in parallel.

289
Q

What does addition of another component in parallel systems do to their reliability?

A

it increases reliability.

290
Q

Physics-of-failure models

A

Are concerned with identifying and modeling the physical causes of failure.

291
Q

Operator error probability

A

The number of errors made divided by the number of opportunities for such errors.

292
Q

What methods are human reliability analyses based on?

A

Either on Monte Carlo methods or on computational methods.

293
Q

Monte Carlo methods

A

Methods that simulate performance on the basis of a system model.

294
Q

First-generation techniques

A

Analyse human task activities instead of machine operations. Typically emphasize observable actions.

295
Q

Second-generation techniques

A

Emphasize the cognitive processing underlying the errors.

296
Q

Stochastic modeling technique

A

A Monte Carlo first-generation method of reliability analysis.

297
Q

What is the intention of the stochastic modeling technique?

A
  1. To determine if an average person can complete all tasks in some allotted time and
  2. to identify points in the processing sequence at which the system may overload its operators.
298
Q

What four estimates of information does the stochastic modeling technique use?

A
  1. Mean time to perform subtask
  2. Probability of success on subtask
  3. Indication of how essential success of subtask is to completion of full task
  4. Subtask that is to be performed next
299
Q

What calculations does the stochastic modeling technique perform on its input?

A
  1. Urgency and stress conditions according to subtasks to be performed by operator in remaining time.
  2. Specific execution time for the subtask.
  3. Whether the subtask was performed correctly.
300
Q

What is the stochastic modeling technique used for?

A

To predict the efficiency of the operator within the entire system based on the simulated performance of each subtask.

301
Q

THERP (abbreviation)

A

Technique for human error rate prediction

302
Q

Technique for human error rate prediction (THERP)

A

A computational first-generation method of reliability analysis.

303
Q

What are the five steps that a reliability analyst using the THERP method of reliability analysis goes through?

A
  1. Determine the system failures that could arise from human errors.
  2. Identify & analyze tasks performed by the personnel in relation to the system functions of interest.
  3. Estimate relevant human error probabilities.
  4. Integrate human reliability analysis with system reliability analysis to determine effects of human errors on system performance.
  5. Recommend changes to system to increase reliability & evaluate changes.
304
Q

What are the most important steps in THERP?

A

The 3rd and 4th step, because these involve the probabilities that an operation will result in an error and that a human error will lead to system failure.

305
Q

What is the benefit of the THERP method of reliability analysis?

A

Weaknesses in the procedure can be identified and eleminated to increase the final probability of success.

306
Q

What is a disadvantage of the THERP method?

A

It relies on error classification & each step in a sequence of actions is seen as either a success or a failure. This is independent of human information processes that produce the specific errors.

307
Q

SHERPA (abbreviation)

A

Systematic human error reduction and prediction approach

308
Q

TAFEI (abbreviation)

A

task analysis for error identification

309
Q

What is the first step for the SHERPA and the TAFEI method?

A

A hierarchical task analysis that decomposes work activities into
a hierachy of goals,
operations to achieve the goals, and
plans for executing operations
in an appropriate sequence.

310
Q

How does the SHERPA method classify each operation at the lowest level of the task hierarchy?

A

As one of five types: action, retrieval, checking, selection or information communication.

311
Q

What does the SHERPA method of reliability analysis do for every operation?

A

Identify several possible error modes and consider the consequences of each error and possibility of recovery from error. Designate each error as critical or not critical.

312
Q

What are pros and cons of SHERPA analysis?

A

Structured procedure and error taxonomy make it easy to perform, but it does not consider cognitive bases of errors.

313
Q

How do you use TAFEI analysis?

A

Basically make a state diagrams of states and actions. Enter info into transition matrix and make design solutions that make it impossible for an operator to make errors.

314
Q

HCR model (abbreviation)

A

human cognitive reliability model

315
Q

Human cognitive reliability model (HCR)

A

A computational second-generation method of reliability analysis. It provides a way to estimate the probability of time-dependent operator failures.

316
Q

Of what three types are the input parameters to an HCR model?

A
  1. category of cognitive behavior
  2. median response time
  3. environmental factors that shape performance
317
Q

On what idea is HCR based?

A

The idea that the median time to perform a task will increase as the cognitive process changes from skill-based to rule-based to knowledge-based behavior.

318
Q

What is the intention of the HCR model of reliability analysis?

A

To provide a way to estimate the probability of time-dependent operator failures (nonresponses).

319
Q

What is the most important part of the HCR model?

A

A set of normalized time-reliability curves, one for each mode of cognitive processing.

320
Q

ATHEANA method of analysis

A

A computational second-generation method of reliability analyis. A technique that identifies possible human failure events from accident scenarios.

321
Q

What final result does the ATHEANA method of reliability analysis give?

A

A quantitive estimate of the conditional probability of an unsafe acion as a function of the error-forcing context in the situation under study.

322
Q

What is the first step in the ATHEANA method of reliability analysis?

A

To identify possible human failure events from accident scenarios and describe the events by enumerating the unsafe actions of the operators: errors of commission or omission.

323
Q

How do you characterize the unsafe actions of operators in the ATHENA method of reliability analysis?

A

Make distinctions between slips, lapses, mistakes and violations of regulations.

324
Q

CREAM (abbreviation)

A

Cognitive reliability and error analysis method

325
Q

Cognitive reliability and error analysis method (CREAM)

A

A Monte Carlo second-generation method of reliability analysis. It takes a cognitive engineering perspective. Human-machine system is conceptualized as a joint cognitive system, human behavior shaped by the context of the organization and technological environment in which it resides.

326
Q

What does the CREAM method of reliability analysis require after the task analysis?

A

An assessment of the conditions under which the task is commonly performed, then describe the demands using cognitive functions of observation, interpretation, planning and execution.

327
Q

What four possible control modes does the CREAM method consider?

A
  1. Strategic
  2. Tactical
  3. Opportunistic
  4. Scrambled
328
Q

Systematic human error reduction and prediction approach (SHERPA)

A

A Monte Carlo first-generation method of reliability analysis.

329
Q

Task analysis for error identificiation (TAFEI)

A

A computational first-generation method of reliability analysis.

330
Q

On what two parameters can we distinguish methods of reliability analysis?

A

Monte Carlo / computational method
and
first-generation / second-generation method

331
Q

What are the six typical steps in a computational method of reliability analysis?

A
  1. Describe the system.
  2. Identify potential errors.
  3. Estimate error likelihood.
  4. Estimate error consequences.
  5. Combine error probabilities.
  6. Predict task/system success probability.
332
Q

What are the six typical steps in a Monte Carlo method of reliability analysis?

A
  1. Describe the system.
  2. Compile/enter input data.
  3. Simulate system/personnel operations.
  4. Output run data.
  5. Repeat model runs.
  6. Predict task/system success probability.
333
Q

Strategic control mode

A

A person’s action choices are guided by strategies derived from the global context.

334
Q

Tactical control mode

A

A person’s performance is based on a procedure or rule.

335
Q

Oppotunistic control mode

A

A person’s next action is determined by salient features of the context/

336
Q

Scrambled control mode

A

A person’s choice of the next action is unpredictable.

337
Q

When is the CREAM method of reliability analysis completed?

A

When the reliability expert identifies what cognitive function failures are most likely to occur and computes cognitive failure probabilities for the task elements and for the task as a whole.

338
Q

Risk analysis

A

An analysis that considers the reliability of the system and the risks that accompany specific failures.

339
Q

Probabilistic risk analysis

A

Risk analysis that involves decomposing the risk of concern into smaller elements for which the probabilities of failure can be quantified.

340
Q

Noem voorbeelden van perator variables:

A

Ervaring, vaardigheid, grootte van het team etc.

341
Q

Taxonomie

A

Hiërarchisch ingedeelde ordening

342
Q

Wat zijn de drie fasen van cognitieve verwerking van taken?

A
  1. Planning
  2. Opslag
  3. Executie
343
Q

Wat is de planning fase van cognitieve verwerking van taken?

A

Er wordt een doel geïdentificeerd en een reeks acties geselecteerd om het doel te bereiken (WAT en HOE).

344
Q

Wat is de opslag fase van cognitieve verwerking van taken?

A

Het geselecteerde plan wordt in het geheugen opgeslagen totdat het geschikt is om het uit te voeren.

345
Q

Wat is de executie fase van cognitieve verwerking van taken?

A

Het plan wordt geïmplementeerdf door het peroces van het uitvoeren van de acties die in het plan zijn gespecificeerd.

346
Q

GEMS (abbreviation)

A

generic error-modeling system

347
Q

Wat is GEMS?

A

Een poging om menselijke fouten te begrijpen op 3 niveaus.

348
Q

Wat zijn de 3 niveas in het Generic Error-Modeling System (GEMS)?

A
  1. Skill-based
  2. Rule-based
  3. Knowledge-based
349
Q

Capture slips

A

Zonder intentie een vaak toegepaste actie uitvoeren.

350
Q

Description slips

A

De verkeerde, maar sterk gelijkende, actie uitvoeren.

351
Q

Associative activation slip

A

Extern getriggerde foute actie

352
Q

Loss of activation slips

A

De intentie om iets te doen vergeten door iets anders.

353
Q

SA (abbreviation)

A

Situation awareness

354
Q

Situation awareness

A

Weten wat er om je heen gebeurt.

355
Q

Waarin wordt de lichtstroom S gemeten?

A

In lumen.

356
Q

Waarin wordt de lichtintensiteit I gemeten?

A

In candela

357
Q

Waarin wordt de luminantie L gemeten?

A

In candela/m2

358
Q

Waarin wordt de verlichtingssterkte E gemeten?

A

In lux.

359
Q

Wat betekent de inverse square law over het licht van een lamp op de tafel?

A

2x zo ver van de lamp betekent 4x zo weinig licht op de tafel.

360
Q

Hoe kun je de inverse square law vermijden?

A

Door het gebruik van lenzen of parabolische spiegels.

361
Q

Wat is het verschil tussen luminance en illuminance?

A

Luminance is de hoeveelheid licht van een lichtbron, ‘brightness’ en illuminance is de hoeveelheid licht die op een object valt.

362
Q

Waarom is daglicht geen goede oplossing voor op de werkvloer?

A

De intensiteit is te variabel over het seizoen en over de dag, en de frequentie=inhoud varieert over de dag.

363
Q

Welke zichtbaarheidsfactoren spelen een rol mbt prestatie?

A

Grootte van object, hoeveelheid licht en contrast, taak en leeftijd.

364
Q

Welke kleur heeft een kleurenfilter dat blauw licht wegfiltert?

A

Geel

365
Q

Environmental ergonomics

A

The study of human factors issues with respect to the physical environment.

366
Q

What four environmental factors doest chapter 17 in the book discuss?

A
  1. lightning
  2. noise
  3. vibration
  4. climate
367
Q

What four major human factors issues determine lightning considerations?

A
  1. How important light level’s are for performance ability.
  2. Speed and accuracy required.
  3. Person’s comfort.
  4. Person’s subjective impressions of quality of lightning.
368
Q

Illuminance

A

The amount of light falling on a surface.

369
Q

Luminance

A

The amount of light generated by a surface, either a light sourse or a reflection.

370
Q

What determines luminance and illuminance?

A

Luminous flux

371
Q

Lumens

A

Represents the amount of visible light in a light source, also the power of the light source corrected for the spectral sensitivity of the visual system/

372
Q

Photometer

A

Measures luminance and illuminance, measures light in the same way as the human visual system in daylight viewing conditions.

373
Q

Candela

A

A fixed amount of luminous flux within a fixed cone of measurement.

374
Q

Contrast

A

The difference in luminance between two areas in the visual field.

375
Q

Give the formula for the contrast C between the luminance L_0 of an object and that of the background L_b.

A

C = (L_0 - L_b) / L_b

376
Q

Color rendering

A

The accuracy of color perception.

377
Q

PSALI (abbreviation)

A

Permanent supplementary artificial lightning installation

378
Q

Permanent supplementary artificial lightning (PSALI) approach

A

First analyzes the availability of natural light throughout the interior. Then artificial light is added to supplement natural light, creating uniform light distribution over all areas.

379
Q

Incandescent light

A

Produced by current flowing through a tungsten filament inside a glass bulb. Low-cost, across visual spectrum and directly output when turned on. But not efficient.

380
Q

Fluorescent light

A

Electric current is alternated through an inert gas producing invisible ultraviolet light, which excites phosphors coating the indside of the bulb. Little power required, long life. Light output decreases over lifespan.

381
Q

Direct lightning

A

when 90% or more of the light from a source is directed toward the work surface.

382
Q

Indirect lightning

A

If 90% of the light from a light source is directed away from the work surface.

383
Q

Semi-direct / semi-indirect lightning

A

When 60-90% of the light from a light source is directed toward or away from the work surface.

384
Q

What are the two catgories of ear protection devices?

A
  1. Earplugs
  2. Earmuffs
385
Q

Give the formula for the root-mean-square value measuring vibration:

A

RMS = ROOT ( (1/T) * Integral(0 to T) x^2 * (t)dt
with x(t) = displacement along a particular dimension as a function of time.

386
Q

What distinction do we make when evaluating vibration?

A
  1. Whole-body vibration
  2. Segmental/hand-tranmissted vibration
387
Q

When does vibration discomfort increase?

A

As the amplitude of the vibration increases.

388
Q

What three categories can pollutants be classified in?

A
  1. Solid particulates (dust, pollen, mold, fumes…)
  2. Liquid particulates (mist or fogs)
  3. Nonparticulate gases
389
Q

Sick building syndrome

A

When many occupants of a building experience recurring respiratory symptoms, headaches and eye irritation.

390
Q

General adaptation syndrome

A

Swollen adrenal glands, atrophied thymus glands and stomach ulcers. Characterized by stages of physiological responses of increasing intensity.

391
Q

What is the first stage in the general adaptation syndrome?

A

Alarm reaction, the body’s initial response to a change in its state. Discharge of adrenalin into the blood stream.

392
Q

What is the second stage in the general adaptation syndrome?

A

Resistance. Adrenalin is no longer secreted and the body acts to adapt to the presence of the stressor.

393
Q

What is the third stage in the general adaptation syndrome?

A

Exhaustion. The body’s resources are depleted and tissue begins to break down.

394
Q

Hypervigilance

A

A panic state in which one’s memory span is reduced and thinking becomes overly simplistic.

395
Q

What are the three classes of stressors?

A
  1. Physical stressors
  2. Social stressors
  3. Drugs
396
Q

External stressors

A

Arise from changes in the environment.

397
Q

Internal stressors

A

Arise from the natural dynamics of a person’s body.

398
Q

Transient stressors

A

Are temporary

399
Q

Occupational stress

A

Stress associated with a person’s job.

400
Q

Waarom neemt het verschil tussen levensverwachting en de stervensleeftijd af?

A

Er sterven minder jonge mensen.

401
Q

Cohorteffect

A

Het effect van leeftijd gegeven geboortejaar. Bijv: allemaal de crisis meegemaakt.

402
Q

Presbyopie

A

Ouderdomsverziendheid. De lens wordt hard en slechts één afstand is nog optimaal scherp.

403
Q

Wat gebeurt er met de pupil bij het ouder worden?

A

Die wordt kleiner, dus ouderen hebben meer licht nodig om goed te kunnen zien

404
Q

.Staar

A

Verstrooiing in de cornea/vitreous humor/lens, waardoor het contrast in het gehele beeld verlaagd wordt.

405
Q

Waar moet je rekening mee houden als je internetpagina’s voor ouderen maakt?

A

Genoeg luminantie-contrast en grootte.

406
Q

UFOV (afkorting)

A

Useful field of view

407
Q

Useful field of view (UFOV)

A

The visual are over which information can be extracted at a brief glance without eye or head movements.

408
Q

Heeft het zin het brein te trainen op latere leeftijd?

A

Nee, er wordt alleen voor specifieke taken getraind dan. Er is geen transfer.

409
Q

Lapse

A

Korte periode van inefficientie.

410
Q

Hoe kan licht beschreven worden?

A

In termen van golven (golflengte) en deeltjes (quanta).

411
Q

Waardoor wordt licht gedefinieerd?

A

Richting, intensiteit en spectrum (fysische kleur).

412
Q

Wat voor effect heeft het verkleinen van de pupil?

A

Minder last van sferische abberatie en een betere scherptediepte.

413
Q

Sferische abberatie

A

Wanneer het scherpte punt voor het beeldvormingsvlak valt, dus de stralen elkaar al gekruist hebben als ze op het hoornvlies komen.

414
Q

Wat is de functie van de pupil bij genoeg licht?

A

Scherptediepte verbeteren

415
Q

Wat is de functie van de pupil bij weinig licht?

A

Regelen van meer licht.

416
Q

Wat zijn static cues voor diepte?

A

Grootte, Occlusie, Shading en perspectief.

417
Q

Op welke afstand werkt stereopsis?

A

De effectieve range is onveveer 6 meter.

418
Q

Stereopsis

A

Diepte zien door het beeld veschil tussen je ogen.

419
Q

Hoe kan de pupil met een groeifactor 10 toch de visuele wereld met lichtverschil factor miljard zien?

A

De kegeltjes en staafjes in het netvlies passen hun gevoeligheid aan op het lichtniveau.

420
Q

Fotopisch

A

Kegeltjes

421
Q

Scotopisch

A

Staafjes

422
Q

Waarom is instrumentverlichting op bijv boten vaak rood?

A

Je wilt donkergeadapteerd zijn voor als je naar buiten op het dek gaat, dan kun je meteen wat zien. Staafjes adapteren niet aan rode verlichting, dus blijven donkergeadapteerd wnr je instrumenten bekijkt.

423
Q

Temporeel constrast

A

Verandering van het contrast als functie van de tijd

424
Q

Spatieel contrast

A

Verandering van het contrast als functie van de plaats

425
Q

Spatio-temporeel contrast

A

Temporeel en spatieel contrast samen :).

426
Q

Wat is de formule voor luminantie contrast?

A

C = luminantie verschil / gemiddelde luminantie.

427
Q

Wat is de formule voor het Weber contrast?

A

C = (I-I_background) / I_background

428
Q

Wanneer gebruik je de formule voor het Weber contrast ipv de algemene voor luminantie contrast?

A

Als I-I_background < I_background.
Als de achtergrond heel groot is.

429
Q

Wat is de formule voor het Michelson contrast?

A

C = (I_max-I_min) / (I_max+I_min)

430
Q

Wanneer gebruik je de formule voor het Michelson contrast ipv die voor het algemene luminantie contrast?

A

Als I_max en I_min ongeveer evenveel ruimte innemen.

431
Q

CSF (abbreviation)

A

Contrast sensitivity function

432
Q

Wat beschrijft het Koenderink stackmodel?

A

De opbouw van het netvlies.

433
Q

Koenderink stackmodel

A

Uit het 180x100 deg gezichtsveld is 1.5x1.5 deg echt scherp, dat is de fovea. Oogbewegingen zijn noodzakelijk om perifere doelen op de fovea te krijgen.

434
Q

Flicker fusion frequency

A

Frequency at which an intermittent light stimulus appears to be completely steady to the observer.

435
Q

What is the flicker fusion frequency of humans?

A

Under 75 Hz.

436
Q

Waar zijn mensen gevoeliger voor flicker?

A

Verder in de periferie, bij grotere stimuli en bij meer licht.

437
Q

Welke 3 cones hebben mensen?

A

L (long-wave), M(mid-wave) en S (short-wave).

438
Q

Welke kleur neemt de S-cone vooral waar?

A

Blauw

439
Q

Welke kleur neemt de M-cone vooral waar?

A

Groen

440
Q

Welke kleur neemt de L-cone vooral waar?

A

Rood.

441
Q

Metamerisme

A

Verschillende spectra leveren dezelfde kleur.

442
Q

Wat zijn verschillende principes voor ordening door het visuele systeem?

A

Nabijheid, continuering, gelijkenis en symmetrie.

443
Q

Where/when does sensation begin?

A

When a physical stimulus makes contact with the receptors of a sensory system.

444
Q

Cortex

A

The outermost surface of the brain, a wrinkled layer of highly interconnected neurons a few mm thick.

445
Q

What does the thalamus do?

A

It receives signals from the pathways and sens neural signals to the appropriate areas in the cortex for further processing.

446
Q

What does an increase in activitity of neurons do?

A

For neurons with excitatory input: increase firing rate of neuron. For neurons with inhibitory input: decrease firing rate of neurno.

447
Q

What range of the electromagnetic spectrum are we as humans sensitive to?

A

380-760 nm (+-)

448
Q

What side of the electromagnetic spectrum is perceived as red?

A

Long wavelengths

449
Q

As what color do we perceive short wavelengths on the electrmagnetic spectrum?

A

Violet

450
Q
A

Year 3 of UU (12 decks)

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