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Pathology > Tissue Healing, Scar Tissue, Fractures > Flashcards

Tissue Healing, Scar Tissue, Fractures Flashcards

1
Q

Which layers of the skin are damaged by first degree burns?

A

The epidermis (and sometimes the upper dermis).

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2
Q

What type of burn causes mild pain and redness. E.g. Sunburn, minor scald?

A

First degree burns

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3
Q

What is the healing time for a first degree burn?

A

3-6 days

Superficial skin layer over the burn may peel off in 1-2 days

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4
Q

T/F: Healing for first degree burn is resolution with scar tissue.

A

False: there is no scar tissue

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5
Q

Which type of burn is characterized by destruction of the epidermis and part of the dermis?

A

Second degree burns.

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6
Q

T/F: Second degree burns cause pain, redness, and blisters that may ooze.

A

True

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7
Q

In which type of burn does healing occur by regeneration from the edges of the blistered area and from epithelial lining of hair follicles and glands. Complications and scar formation can occur.

A

Second degree burns

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8
Q

Which type of burn involves both layers of the skin and may also damage underlying muscles, bones, and tendons. Burned site appears pale, charred, and leathery.

A

Third and fourth degree burns (full thickness)

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9
Q

T/F: third and fourth degree burns are generally very painful.

A

False: generally there is no pain in the area because nerve endings are destroyed.

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10
Q

Which types of burns require skin grafting as no cells are available for regeneration of new skin?

A

Third and fourth degree burns (full thickness)

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11
Q

Complications of healing from burns: 1) _________ of scar tissue, development of 2) ____________ that lead to joint stiffness.

A

1) Hypertrophy

2) Contractures

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12
Q

Therapies can alleviate ______ and _________ (a common complaint from burn patients).

A

Pain and itching

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13
Q

Therapies for burns can diffuse local areas of 1) ________, increase blood flow, and/or reduce 2) __________. It can also help patients feel safe and comfortable with touch again.

A

1) Edema

2) Anxiety

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14
Q

T/F: Regarding burns, massage is most helpful to ease symptoms after emergency care and in recovery phase.

A

False: Massage may help ease these symptoms both in emergency care and in recovery phase.

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15
Q

Massage can also help with better remodelling of _______ tissue.

A

Scar tissue

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16
Q

Therapeutic Touch (TT) is based on the theory that the body, mind and emotions form a “___________________”.

A

“Complex energy field”

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17
Q

T/F: Physician’s consultation is required before therapies for burn patients.

A

True

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18
Q

T/F: Massage is always contraindicated directly on a acute burn, even a First Degree burn, such as a sunburn.

A

True. However, if it is only part of the body that is sunburned, you could use cool compresses on that part and massage elsewhere.

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19
Q

Lesion or trauma/inflammation to the muscle or the musculotendinous unit from violent contraction or excessive forcible stretch.

A

Muscle strain/tear

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20
Q

A direct, blunt, compressive force to a muscle, tearing and crushing the underlying muscle fibres.

A

Muscle contusion

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21
Q

Prolonged performance of repetitive actions, causes pain and impairment of function of tendons and muscles involved.

A

Repetitive Strain Injury

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22
Q

Hyperirritable spot in skeletal muscle that is associated with a hypersensitive palpable nodule in a taut band.

A

Trigger point

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23
Q

What is the difference between an Active and Latent Trigger Point?

A

Active Trigger Point: painful without palpating e.g. causing a tension headache
Latent Trigger Point: not painful unless palpated

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24
Q

Articulating surfaces are no longer intact

A

Dislocation

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25
Q

Incomplete or partial dislocation of a joint (or other structure)

A

Subluxation

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26
Q

Fluid build-up into an anatomical space, e.g. exudate or transudate in knee joint (vs. edema, which is abnormal fluid accumulation in interstitial spaces)

A

Effusion

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27
Q

Swelling and irritation of a bursa (fluid filled sac between structures that reduce friction)

A

Bursitis

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28
Q

Swelling or haemorrhage resulting in build-up of pressure in muscle unit

A

Acute Compartment Syndrome

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29
Q

Increased pressure from Acute Compartment Syndrome leads to decrease 1) -> 2) -> 3) -> 4).

A

1) Decreased blood flow
2) Ischemia
3) Gangrene
4) Necrosis

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30
Q

Acute Compartment Syndrome causes severe pain, palpable tightness, _______ appearance

A

shiny

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31
Q

With Acute Compartment Syndrome fascial surgery (fasciotomy) is done within __ hours to minimize damage.

A

12 Hours

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32
Q

Acute Compartment Syndrome is not to be confused with ____________________ Syndrome, which is not a medical emergency

A

Chronic/Exertional Compartment Syndrome

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33
Q

Tendinopathies, muscle strains, and muscle tears are assessed using 1), 2) (e.g. Active Resisted testing to test for strength and pain), and 3)(pain from passive movement in the opposite direction of the muscle contraction).

A

1) tissue tension tests
2) muscle contractions
3) tissue stretch

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34
Q

Muscle strain occurs when _________ exceeds the weakest structural element

A

Tension

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35
Q

Muscle strain is usually located __ to __ mm from the muscle tendon junction

A

0.1 to 3mm

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36
Q

Predisposing factors for ________________ include: age, inadequate warm up, limited flexibility, fatigue, overuse syndromes, overstressing the muscle, strength imbalances, previous strains, and altered biomechanics.

A

Muscle strain

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37
Q

Minor stretch or tear to the musculotendinous unit. Minimal loss of strength; the person can continue their activity with mild discomfort.

A

Grade 1, mild, or 1st degree strain

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38
Q

Tearing of fibres, variable from several fibres to the majority of the fibres. May be a snapping sound or sensation, or may be a palpable gap in the muscle. The person has difficulty continuing the activity due to pain and muscle weakness.

A

Grade 2, moderate, or 2nd degree strain

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39
Q

Complete rupture of the musculotendinous unit or avulsion fracture of the bony attachment, snapping sound, and gapping or bunching of the muscle belly. The person cannot continue due to severe pain and muscle weakness.

A

Grade 3, severe, or 3rd degree strain

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40
Q

Blow to a part of the body, tearing/crushing underlying muscle fibres and connective tissue without breaking the skin.

A

Contusion

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41
Q

Type of contusion where a pool of blood collects within damaged tissue, forming a lump over the injury, difficult to distinguish from a complete tear.

A

Hematoma

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42
Q

What’s the difference between an Intermuscular and Intramuscular Hematoma?

A

a. Intermuscular: bleeding between
muscle fascia, heals quickly - typical common bruise

b. Intramuscular: bleeding within a muscle bundle, haemorrhage is more confined and localized. The inflammatory response is exaggerated.

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43
Q

Type of contusion where tissue damage is extensive, swelling and bleeding beneath the skin may cause shock (e.g. from fractured bone, dislocated joint, sprain, torn muscle, or other injuries).

A

Severe cases of contusion

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44
Q

Which stage of muscle healing is associated with Haemorrhage, edema formation, myofibril retraction, nerve axon damage, mononuclear invasion, phagocytosis?

A

Inflammatory / Acute

0-72 hours

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45
Q

During which stage of muscle healing is the following implicated?
NSAIDS, immobilization, protection. PIER (pressure, ice, elevation, reduced activity) or POLICE or PEACE and LOVE, Lymph drainage (LD)

A

Inflammatory / Acute

0-72 hours

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46
Q

During stage of muscle healing is the following implicated?
Partial ROM exercise (stretching) -> gentle resistance work (isometric) -> increase to full ROM resisted exercise (isotonic)
-LD at first, progressing to fascia techniques. GST progressing as healing progresses.
-Later stage, gentle challenging scar tissue techniques, e.g. frictions.

A

Fibroblastic Proliferation / Subacute (~3-14 days)

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47
Q

Which stage of muscle healing is associated with increased rate of collagen synthesis, muscle regeneration by satellite cells, muscle fibres bridging begins, tensile strength approx. 50% normal, contraction still inhibited by edema and pain?

A

Fibroblastic Proliferation / Subacute (~3-14 days)

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48
Q

Which stage of muscle healing is associated with maturation of collagen, increase tensile strength (permanent loss of tissue tensile strength of 7%)?

A

Remodelling Maturation / Chronic

~3 wks to 12+ months

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49
Q

During stage of muscle healing is the following implicated?

Progression of activity, Challenge the scar tissue and compensatory structure w/ fascial techniques and frictions (followed by stretch/ice). Decrease TrP, ↓MRT, adhesions, ↑ ROM, etc.

A

Remodelling Phase

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50
Q

Broad term encompassing painful conditions relating to tendon injury.

A

Tendenopathy

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51
Q

Inflammation of tendon resulting from micro-tears that happen when the musculotendinous unit is acutely overloaded with a tensile force that is too heavy and/or too sudden

A

Tendonitis

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52
Q

A degeneration of the tendon’s collagen in response to chronic overuse; (tendonitis is an acute inflammatory condition, whereas this is chronic overuse condition).

A

Tendonosis

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53
Q

Inflammation of a tendon sheath.

A

Tendosynovitis

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54
Q

A tear in a ligament.

A

Sprain

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55
Q

Injury where a body structure is forcibly detached from its normal point of insertion by either trauma or surgery

A

Avulsion

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56
Q

Signs and Symptoms of _____________________
Pain accompanied by tenderness, marked swelling, often discolouration due to hematoma formation, strength and range of movement in the joint are limited. There is highly likely going to be moderate to severe straining of the surrounding muscles, as these generally will fail before a ligament does.

A

Tendon and Ligament Injury

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57
Q

T/F: During tendon and ligament injury, bleeding into joint capsule expedites healing.

A

False: it delays healing

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58
Q

The initial inflammatory phase of tendon healing lasts about ______ hours.

A

24 Hours

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59
Q

During the inflammatory phase of tendon healing, 1), 2), and 3) cells (e.g. neutrophils, monocytes and macrophages) migrate to the wound site and clean the site of necrotic materials by phagocytosis.

A

1) Erythrocytes
2) platelets
3) inflammatory cells

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60
Q

During which phase of tendon healing do cells release vasoactive and chemotactic factors which recruit tendon fibroblast to begin collagen synthesis and deposition.

A

The inital inflammatory phase

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61
Q

The proliferative phase of tendon healing begins __________ after injury and lasts __________

A

A few days

A few weeks

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62
Q

During the proliferative phase of tendon healing, _______________ develop at the site.

A

Granulation tissue

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63
Q

In this phase, tendon fibroblasts synthesize abundant collagen and other extra cellular matrix components such as proteoglycans.

A

The proliferation phase

64
Q

The remodelling phase of tendon healing begins __________ after injury.

A

About 6 weeks.

65
Q

This phase of tendon healing is characterized by decreased cellularity, and decreased collagen synthesis.

A

The remodelling phase

66
Q

During the remodelling phase, the repair tissue changes to fibrous tissue, this again changes to ___________ tendon tissue after 10 weeks.

A

Scar-like

67
Q

During the ______________, covalent bonding between the collagen fibres increases, resulting in repaired tissue with highest stiffness and tensile strength.

A

Later remodelling phase (of tendon healing).

68
Q

T/F Except for degenerative tendons (tendinosis), injured tendons tend to heal.

A

True

69
Q

T/F The healing tendon typically reaches the biomechanical properties of the tendon prior to surgery.

A

False

70
Q

Stress on a tendon in the early stages will reopen the tear and lead to development of excessive fibrous tissue in the tendon. This leads to less _________, and decreased ______ at the joint.

A

Less strength and decreased ROM

71
Q

Name the Grade of this Acute muscle strain.
- Local edema, heat and bruising is minimal or not present.
- Tenderness at site
- Little or no loss of
strength or ROM
- Can continue activity

A

Grade 1

72
Q

Name the Grade of this Acute muscle strain.

  • Tearing of several or many fibres
  • Snapping noise/painful sensation at time of injury
  • Moderate local edema, heat, hematoma, bruising (red, black and blue)
  • Protective mm spasm
  • Moderate tenderness, palpable gap in tissue
  • Moderate pain with activities that stretch or contract MT unit.
  • Moderate loss of strength and ROM
  • Difficulty continuing the activity d/t pain and may experience disability the next day.
A

Grade 2

73
Q 
Name the Grade of this Acute muscle strain.
- Complete rupture of the muscle/or avulsion
- Snapping/popping noise or sensation at time of injury
- Significant edema, heat and
red/black/blue bruising,
hematoma
- Gap in the tissue, muscle
bunched up/or spasms.
- Severe pain
- Immediate loss of strength
and ROM
- Patient cannot continue
activity.
A

Grade 3

74
Q

Name the grade of this EARLY SUBACUTE muscle strain

  • Little or no pain or reduced strength
  • Adhesions are forming around injury site
A

Grade 1

75
Q

Name the grade of this EARLY SUBACUTE muscle strain

  • Pain and moderately reduced strength
  • Bruising is black and blue with hematoma
  • Alteration in the contour of the muscle
  • Symptoms are present but reduced from acute phase
  • Adhesions, slow healing, protective spasm diminishes, TrP in antagonists and synergists
  • Supportive tools may be still in use.
  • Decreased ROM
A

Grade 2

76
Q

Name the grade of this EARLY SUBACUTE muscle strain

  • Pain and significantly reduced strength with AR testing.
  • Bruising is black and blue with hematoma
  • Gap in tissue, muscle may bunched up.
  • Symptoms are present but reduced from acute phase
  • Adhesions, slow healing, protective spasm diminishes, TrP in antagonists and synergists
  • Supportive tools may be still in use.
  • Reduced ROM
A

Grade 3

77
Q

Name the grade of this LATE SUBACUTE muscle strain

- Pain, edema, inflammation is reduced

A

Grade 1

78
Q

Name the grade of this LATE SUBACUTE muscle strain

  • Pain, edema, inflammation is reduced
  • Bruising is yellow, green and brown, hematoma is diminished, gap is still palpable
  • Protective muscle spasm is replaced by increased tone in affected mm, antagonists, and synergists
  • TrP in affected and compensatory mm
  • Adhesions maturing
  • Reduced ROM
A

Grade 2

79
Q

Name the grade of this LATE SUBACUTE muscle strain

  • Pain, edema, inflammation is reduced
  • Bruising is yellow, green and brown, hematoma is diminished, gap is still palpable
  • Protective muscle spasm is replaced by increased tone in affected mm, antagonists, and synergists
  • TrP in affected and compensatory mm
  • Adhesions maturing
  • Range of motion is reduced.
A

Grade 3

80
Q

Name the grade of this CHRONIC muscle strain

  • May have some minor compensation issue (adhesions, trP, etc): normal function
  • Adhesions have matured around site, may be cool due to ischemia.
  • Possible discomfort due to tissue use or stretch
A

Grade 1

81
Q

Name the grade of this CHRONIC muscle strain
- Adhesions have matured
- Full ROM of joint crossed by
affected mm may be reduced

A

Grade 2

82
Q 
Name the grade of this CHRONIC muscle strain
- Adhesions have matured
- Full ROM of joint crossed by
affected mm may be
reduced.
- If surgery is performed may
be casted; address compensatory issues.
A

Grade 3

83
Q

With the Healing Process in Skeletal Muscle, the Inflammatory Phase can last up to __ hours.

A

72 hours

84
Q

In musculotendinous injuries, there is myofilament retraction and peripheral muscle fibre contraction within the first __ hours.

A

24 Hours

85
Q

With the Healing Process in Skeletal Muscle, the ___________ Phase is also called the the fibro-elastic/collagen-forming phase

A

Proliferation

86
Q

The proliferation phase of skeletal muscle healing can last from about ______ hours to __________ weeks.

A

48 hours to 6 weeks

87
Q

During the proliferation phase of skeletal muscle healing, Fibroblasts begin to synthesize ____________.

A

scar tissue

88
Q

During the proliferation phase of skeletal muscle healing, __________ budding occurs, bringing nutrition to the area.

A

Capillary budding

89
Q

During the proliferation phase of skeletal muscle healing, collagen cross-linking begins and the number of _______________ decreases as more collagen is laid down.

A

fibroblasts

90
Q

This phase ends with the beginning of wound contracture and shortening of the margins of the injured area.

A

The Proliferation phase (of skeletal muscle healing)

91
Q

Remodelling and Maturation Phase of skeletal muscle healing lasts from __________ to ____________

A

3 weeks to 12+ months

92
Q

During the remodelling and Maturation Phase of skeletal muscle, cross-linking and shortening of the collagen fibres promote formation of a tight, strong _____.

A

scar

93
Q

Final aggregation, orientation and arrangement of collagen fibres occur during this phase.

A

The remodelling an maturation phase (of skeletal muscle healing)

94
Q

Doxorubicin (Adramycin) given pre-operatively, __________s post-operative wound healing.

A

Inhibits

95
Q

Glucocorticoids (e.g. prednisone) limit the proliferation of ____________ and the production of collagen, and thus steroids make scars relatively weak.

A

fibroblasts

96
Q

Hemostatic solutions (e.g. ferric subsulfate, 30% aluminum chloride, silver nitrate - DW) _____ the healing of large wounds.

A

Slow

97
Q

Some ointments _______ wound healing; these include Neosporin ointment, Silvadene cream, benoxyl peroxide preparations and Eucerin.

A

Speed

98
Q

Some topical ointments _____ wound healing (DW - these include triamcinolone acetonide ointment (0.1%), Furacin and UPS petrolatum).

A

Slow

99
Q

__________________ can be flat (ideal), raised (hypertrophic), sunken / pitted (atrophic) excessive and spreading beyond the wound (keloid).

A

Scar tissue

100
Q

A common type of scarring caused when skin stretches or shrinks quickly.

A

Stretch Marks / Striae

101
Q

T/F: The propensity for stretch marks may be hereditary, and fluctuating hormone levels, particularly increased cortisone, seem to play a role.

A

True

102
Q

___________ typically develop during:
- Growth spurts that happen in puberty  Pregnancy
- Rapid weight loss or gain
- Weight training when you have rapid muscle
growth

A

Stretch marks

103
Q

What do Prolonged corticosteroid use on the skin, Cushing’s disease and Marfan syndrome have in common?

A

They can all cause… stretch marks!

104
Q

When ___________ first appear, they tend to be red, purple, pink, reddish-brown, or dark brown, depending on your skin color.

A

Stretch marks!!!

105
Q

__________ fibres form in edema; therefore, reducing edema prior to scar tissue techniques is important.

A

Collagen

106
Q

___________ softens scar tissue by freeing restrictions and adhesions and increasing local circulation.

A

Massage Therapy

107
Q

Stretching after modalities is essential for ___________ of scar tissue.

A

Realignment

108
Q

T/F: Fibrous tissue can form adhesions from skin to many layers of tissue below, preventing free movement of skin, fascia, and other connective tissue.

A

True

109
Q

T/F: Scar tissue expands with growth.

A

False

110
Q

T/F: Scars are aneural and avascular.

A

True

111
Q

Pain pattern referrals may arise from scar tissue, such as altered ______, _______, and _____________.

A

Posture
Gait
Biomechanics

112
Q

Typically, surgical wounds seal within ___ hours.

A

48 hours

113
Q

During the proliferation phase of wound healing, granulation tissue is in place within __-__ days.

A

5-10 days

114
Q

Until granulation tissue has formed and it clear the wound is healing in a healthy manner, the _”/__cm avoidance rule applies for the therapist.

A

4”/10 cm rule

115
Q

Problems at the surgical site can include infection, oozing, poor perfusion, swelling, pain at rest – what does a massage therapist do if these occur?

A

Consult an MD

116
Q

Generally, pain should taper off as the wound heals, but ______ _______ pain is cause for concern.

A

Sudden acute pain

117
Q

If there is an infection, techniques that improve __________ circulation can potentially be used.

A

Proximal

118
Q

T/F: The beginning of healing is when infection started, so if there has been an infection, you need to count the days from the beginning of infection to determine what stage of healing the wound is in.

A

False, the beginning of healing is when infection stops, so if there has been an infection, you need to count the days from the end of infection to determine what stage of healing the wound is in.

119
Q

Collagen synthesis / collagenisation also begins in proliferation phase, in the 2-4 week range. During this period, when tissue is no longer _____, and _________from light pressure, it is safe to start working on the scar.

A

When the tissue is no longer pink, and bounces back from light pressure.

120
Q

The sooner the scar is treated, the easier and more likely it is that movement and flexibility will return (and it will prevent complications, compensating factors). However, do not stress tissue before this time, as it may cause premature ____________ formation that can get out of control and will not be stressed in proper direction.

A

collagen

121
Q

While treating a scar, position the patient so that the scar is easily accessible and not in a ___________ position.

A

Stretched

122
Q

As you palpate the scar tissue, identify differences in the __________ of the scar tissue and areas in which the scar appears to be adhered to tissues adjacent to it or deep to it.

A

mobility

123
Q

The scar tissue should move freely within the ________ tissue. It is wise to document this movement or lack of movement, e.g. decreased inferior glide, or for circular palpation: restricted at 3 o’clock.

A

non-scar

124
Q

Identify visual cues/appearances, such as puckering, contracture, hypertrophy (keloid) or discolouration (ideally the scar should be close to the same colour as the skin, either paler or slightly darker).
- ________ red colour may indicate congestion, _______ or edema may indicate lack of
perfusion.

A

Dark red colour may indicate congestion, white or edema may indicate lack of perfusion.

125
Q

Warm or warm contrast hydro can be used in in 1)_______ stages, deep moist heat/cold post- treatment in 2)_________ stages.

A

1) early

2) later

126
Q

In later stages or with bad scars, use heat and _______ oil (with paraffin wax to seal the heat in) first to do most of the work.

A

castor oil

127
Q

Fascial techniques should be used to promote mobility and flexibility of the fascia - gentle modified fascial work in early stages. _____________ can be used in later stages and more challenging scars.

A

Muscle stripping

128
Q

________ and _________ exercise are effective to remodel a scar

A

Stretching and resistance

129
Q

___________ exercises are useful for joints and ligaments

A

Proprioceptive

130
Q

If a patient has a complex and/or older scar, collagen fibres still can often be realigned (based on anecdotal experience from RMTs). Get the patient stretching & mobilizing the scar and continuing to regularly use it. Frequency is more important than intensity. Make sure _______ ______ matches scar.

A

Stretch angle

131
Q

Type of fracture where skin stays intact

A

Closed/simple

132
Q

Type of fracture where bone breaks the skin, or projects into another cavity.

A

Open/compound

133
Q

Type of fracture where bone is broken into two or more pieces.

A

Complete fracture

134
Q

Injury to the smooth articular cartilage and the bone underneath it

A

Osteochonral

135
Q

Type of fracture where the periosteum is intact (bent or cracked)

A

Incomplete

136
Q

Type of incomplete fracture common in vertebra

A

Compression

137
Q

Type of incomplete fracture where broken ends of the bone are jammed together by the force of the injury

A

Impacted

138
Q

Type of incomplete fracture where bone breaks only on the convex side – often in young people

A

Greensticks

139
Q

Type of incomplete fracture caused by a missile such as a bullet or shrapnel

A

Perforation

140
Q

Type of incomplete fracture common in tarsal bones

A

Stress fracture

141
Q

Fracture healing depends on the type of bone, and amount of _________ that occurs there.

A

Movement

142
Q

Bone usually takes _ to _ weeks to heal a significant degree.

A

6 to 8 weeks

143
Q

During inflammatory phase of bone healing, inflammation is at its peak __ hours after a fracture.

A

48 hours

144
Q

During inflammatory phase of bone healing, ___________ formation or fibrin clot can be expected within 72 hours

A

Hematoma

145
Q

During inflammatory phase of bone healing, bone ends die off and clean-up of necrotic tissue begins by ___________

A

Osteoclasts

146
Q

During inflammatory phase of bone healing, hematoma is gradually replaced by ___________ tissue.

A

granulation

147
Q

What phase of bone healing does this describe?
- A mass of proliferating osteoblasts
- Lasts for approximately six weeks from the time
of injury
- Bony fragments become united by fibrous and
cartilaginous tissue.
- Osteoclasts are present, cleaning up dead
bone and debris.

A

Soft Callus Formation of Reparative phase

148
Q

What phase of bone healing does this describe?

  • Starts when the fracture ends are linked together by soft callus, and lasts until the fragments are firmly united by new bone (3–4 months).
  • Bone callus growth begins at the periphery of the fracture site and progressively moves towards the center of the fracture and the fracture gap.
  • Soft tissue within the gap undergoes ossification and the callus is converted into rigid calcified tissue (immature/woven bone).
  • Reaches a state of “clinical union” but will not support full loads on the bone/muscle, and the fracture is still visible on imaging
A

Hard/Bony Callus Formation of Reparative phase

149
Q

During remodelling phase of bone healing, -immature/woven bone is then slowly replaced by mature/___________ bone through surface erosion and osteonal remodeling.

A

lemellar

150
Q

Remodelling occurs by osteoblastic and __________ activity in response to mechanical stress on the bone (Wolff’s law).

A

osteoclastic

151
Q

The remodelling phase of bone healing lasts until the bone has completely returned to its original morphology, including restoration of the __________ canal.

A

Medullary

152
Q

T/F: Immobilization is a critical part of bone healing; any movement of bone fragments will slow down the initial healing process

A

True

153
Q

General term for an ankle fracture affecting one or both malleoli, but also often defined as being bi-malleolar.

A

Potts

154
Q

Fracture of the radius with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint

A

Galezzi

155
Q

Fracture of the distal radius with a posterior/ dorsal displacement of the wrist and hand, aka “dinner fork deformity”

A

Colles

Pathology (4 decks)

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