Tiffany's Peds Cards Flashcards

1
Q

Achondroplasia gene

A

FGFR-3, autosomal dominant

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2
Q

Pseudoachondroplasia gene

A

COMP, autosomal dominant

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3
Q

Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia (MED) genes

A

COMP, COL9A, autosomal dominant

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4
Q

Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia (SED) gene

A

COL2A1,
Congenita - autosomal dominant
Tarda - X-linked recessive

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5
Q

Kniest dysplasia gene

A

COL2A, autosomal dominant

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6
Q

Apert syndrome gene

A

FGFR-2, autosomal dominant

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7
Q

Charcot Marie Tooth gene

A

PMP22, autosomal dominant

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8
Q

Marfan gene

A

Fibrillin-1 (FBN1), autosomal dominant

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9
Q

Multiple hereditary exostosis (MHE) gene

A

EXT, autosomal dominant

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10
Q

Neurofibromatosis gene

A

NF1, autosomal dominant

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11
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta type gene

A

COL1A1 and COL1A2
Types 1+4 - autosomal dominant
Types 2+3 - autosomal recessive

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12
Q

Ehlers-Danlos gene

A

COL5A - found in 40%, autosomal dominant
Other gene involved, but COL5A is for the classic type

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13
Q

Diastrophic dysplasia gene

A

DTD, sulfate transport gene, autosomal recessive

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14
Q

Friedreich’s ataxia gene

A

Frataxin, autosomal recessive

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15
Q

Gaucher disease gene

A

B-glucocerebrosidase deficiency, autosomal recessive

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16
Q

Spinal muscular atrophy gene

A

SMN, autosomal recessive

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17
Q

Vitamin D resistant (familial hypophosphatemic) rickets gene

A

PHEX gene, X-linked dominant

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18
Q

Becker’s muscular dystrophy gene

A

dystrophin, X-linked recessive

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19
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy gene

A

dystrophin, X-linked recessive

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20
Q

Hunter syndrome gene

A

Sulpho-iduronate-sulphatase, autosomal recessive

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21
Q

Hurler syndrome

A

Alpha-L iduronidase, autosomal recessive

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22
Q

At what age does puberty start, reach peak growth velocity + finish? What physeal closure marks peak velocity?

A

Girls 10 - 12 - 14
Boys 12 - 14 - 16
Peak growth velocity marked by olecranon closure*
*RC question

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23
Q

When does the triradiate cartilage close?

A

Midway during ascending phase of puberty

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24
Q

RC: What corresponds to peak growth velocity?
A. Closure of olecranon apophysis
B. Risser 1
C. Closure of triradiate
D. Menarche

A

Answer: A

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25
Q

List methods of estimating bone age (3)

A
  1. L hand XR - radiographic atlas of hand + wrist by Greulich + Pyle
  2. Sauvegrain method - elbow ossification
  3. Risser
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26
Q

What is the definition of skeletal maturity? (3)

A
  1. Risser 4
  2. <1cm height growth over 6mo
  3. 2yrs post menarche
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27
Q

What is the Risser classification?

A

Describes stages of iliac apophysis ossification. Useful for assessing spine bone age as the spine matures later than limbs. Ossifies from lateral to medial
1. 25%. Early spine puberty
2. 50%. Spine max velocity
3. 75%. Slowing spine growth
4. 100%. Slowing spine growth
5. Iliac apophysis fused to iliac crest. Growth finished

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28
Q

Describe how knee varus/valgus changes during childhood

A

Max varum at birth, becomes peak valgum by 3yo. Normalizes at 5yo to 5deg valgum

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29
Q

List the zones in the physis

A

Epiphysis
Reserve zone
Proliferative
Hypertrophic zone - subdivided into maturation, degenerative, provisional calcification
Metaphysis
RC question

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30
Q

Describe the percentage growth contributed by each physis to each bone

A
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31
Q

What pathologies are associated w the zone of provisional calcification?

A

Rickets/osteomalacia, hypophosphatasia

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32
Q

What pathologies are associated w the reserve zone of the physis?

A

Gaucher, diastrophic dysplasia, Kneist

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33
Q

What pathologies are associated w the proliferative zone of the physis?

A

Achondroplasia, MHE, gigantism

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34
Q

What pathologies are associated w the hypertrophic zone of the physis

A

SCFE, rickets, hypophosphatasia, enchondromas, mucopolysaccharide, fractures

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35
Q

What is the Heuter-Volkman law?

A

Compression across physis slows growth. Tension accelerates growth

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36
Q

Name some pediatric milestones

A

4mo - good head control
8mo - sits independently
10 - crawls
12 - walks independently. Must walk by 18mo!

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37
Q

% of #s due to NAT?

A

% of #s due to NAT
90% occur <5yo
50% <1yo
30% <3yo

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38
Q

Most common presentation of NAT?

A

Skin lesions

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39
Q

Most common #s in NAT?

A

Humerus > tibia > femur

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40
Q

Risk factors of NAT?

A

Child-related: 1st born, unplanned pregnancy, premature, disability, step-child
Parent-related: single parent, recent stressor, unemployed, drug use, personal hx of abuse as child, low socioeconomic status, lack of social support

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41
Q

DDx of NAT?

A

True accident, OI, osteopenia of prematurity, disuse osteopenia, kidney disease, liver disease

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42
Q

Red flags when suspecting NAT (4)

A
  1. Delay in seeking care
  2. Inconsistent hx
  3. Long bone # in nonambulatory kid
  4. Specific # types (later slide)
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43
Q

What are some # types associated with NAT?

A

s at metaphysis/physis junction

Corner #s
Bucket handle #s
Epiphyseal separations - esp distal humerus

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44
Q

What imaging do you need to order for NAT W/U?

A

Suspected bone XR
Skeletal survey or bone scan

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45
Q

What is the difference between skeletal survey XR for NAT and dysplasia?

A

Dysplasia - skull, spine, chest, pelvis, one side of arm, one side of legs
NAT - all of above, but need both sides of arms + legs

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46
Q

When suspect NAT, what must you do?

A

Admit for multidisciplinary evaluation
Appropriate imaging
Consult CPS + social service
Treat injury

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47
Q

What is congenital pseudarthrosis of the clavicle? Treatment?

A

Congenital failure of fusion between medial + lateral ossification centers. Due to subclavian artery compression. Sometimes mistaken for NAT
Nonop - if asymptomatic
ORIF w iliac crest bone graft if pain, impaired fxn or cosmesis

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48
Q

50% of pediatric septic hip is before what age?

A

2yo

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49
Q

Risk factors for neonatal septic hip? (2)

A

C-section
Prematurity

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50
Q

Routes of inoculation for septic hip? (3)

A

Direct trauma
Hematogenous
Extension from tissue

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51
Q

Describe the blood supply to the hip before 4yo (3)

A
  1. Ligamentum teres - posterior branch of obturator art
  2. Circumflexes
  3. Transphyseal metaphyseal branches (disappear between 4-17yo, then reappear)
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52
Q

What joints have intracapsular metaphyses? (4)

A
  1. Shoulder
  2. Elbow
  3. Hip
  4. Ankle
    NOT KNEE
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53
Q

DDx of hip pain in kids of all ages? (6)

A

OM/septic hip
DDH
SCFE
Perthes
Psoas abscess
Transient synovitis

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54
Q

RC: 7yo presents w 5wk history of painless limp. On exam, he has decreased abduction and internal rotation. There is a trendelenburg gait. What is the diagnosis?
A. DDH
B. JRA
C. Transient synovitis
D. Perthes

A

Answer: D (Perthes)
DDH would not be acute
JRA and transient synovitis would be painful

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55
Q

Indicators of poor prognosis in pediatric septic joints? (4)

A

Age <6mo
Associated OM
Hip (instead of knee)
Delayed presentation >4d

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56
Q

What are the longterm sequelae of pediatric septic hip?

A

AVN
Physeal arrest - LLD, angular deformity

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57
Q

Physical exam findings in pediatric septic hip?

A

Refusal to WB
FABER position
Pseudoparalysis

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58
Q

Most common organisms in pediatric septic hip? (5)

A

GBS, GAS, S. aureus, N. gonorrhea, K. kingae

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59
Q

Most common organisms in neonatal septic hip? (2)

A

GBS - community acquired
S. aureus - nosocomial

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60
Q

Most common organism in pediatric septic hip >2yo?

A

S. aureus

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61
Q

Most common organisms in adolescent septic hip? (2)

A

S. aureus, gonorrhea

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62
Q

What are the signs and treatment of gonorrhea septic hip?

A

Migratory polyarthritis, red papules
Tx - penicillin alone. Don’t need I+D

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63
Q

What is the Kocher criteria? (4)

A

Fever >38.5
ESR >40
WBC >12
Unable to WB
All criteria met - 99% likely septic hip
3/4 - 93%
2/4 - 40%
CRP >2 is not apart of Kocher criteria. Independent risk factor of 74% probability

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64
Q

Pediatric septic hip - what is the order of sensitivity of the following factors - fever, WB status, ESR, CRP, WBC?

A

Fever > CRP > ESR > NWB > WBC

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65
Q

Findings on native joint aspiration that suggest infection?

A

> 50k cells w >75% PMNs

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66
Q

Approach to I+D native septic hip?

A

Bikini incision - Smith Pete approach

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67
Q

MRSA infections are associated w what complications?

A

DVT + septic emboli

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68
Q

What part of the bone is most susceptible to osteomyelitis?

A

Metaphysis. Slow flow in metaphyseal vessels due to sharp turns. Time for bacteria to lodge

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69
Q

Which joints are at risk of septic infection from OM? (4)

A

Shoulder, elbow, hip, ankle. NOT knee

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70
Q

What are the bone findings in chronic OM?

A

Periosteal elevation from abscess
Sequestrum - necrotic bone
Involucrum - outer layer of new bone

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71
Q

What is the most sensitive image modality to detect OM?

A

MRI w gadolinium

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72
Q

Which biochemical marker is best for monitoring treatment response in OM?

A

CRP
Elevated within 6hrs of infection. Decreases rapidly w treatment. Normal in a week
If doesn’t decrease after 48h, reconsider treatment
(ESRP peaks in 3d but decreases too slowly to guide tx)

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73
Q

RC: What is true regarding osteomyelitis?
A. High CRP >20 has a LOW sensitivity
B. High WBC has LOW sensitivity
C. Radiographs are appropriate for diagnosis
D. Bone scan is useful to follow long term

A

Answer: B
CRP is the most sensitive test. WBC is the least. XR is not the best for diagnosing OM because it takes weeks for changes to be seen. Secondly, in patients w neuro-arthropathy or Charcot, XR findings look similar.

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74
Q

RC: In the setting of chronic osteomyelitis that has malignant transformation, what is most true?
A. Wide excision reconstruction is preferred to amputation
B. Most commonly metastasize to lungs
C. Clinical presentation often involves worsening purulence, foul smell and drainage
D. Marjolin’s tumor does not commonly transform in squamous cell

A

Answer: C
Marjolin’s tumor classically results from aggressive squamous cell. Think of this whenever there is a chronic ulcer. Need a biopsy to confirm malignancy. Most common site of mets are lymph nodes. Most common clinical features are pain, foul smell and drainage. Best treatment is amputation. Can consider reconstruction if distal and non-metastatic. No evidence that reconstruction does better than amputation.

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75
Q

Indications for antibiotics alone for OM treatment?

A

Early disease
No subperiosteal or bone abscess
Improvement w antibiotics within 48H - follow CRP

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76
Q

Indications for I+D in OM?

A

Bone or subperiosteal abscess
Failure to respond to abx
Chronic infection
Technique - debride devitalized tissue, drill into intraosseous collections + remove sequestrum. Send for cx + bx

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77
Q

RC: In pediatric patients undergoing biopsy, when should samples also be sent for anaerobes, acid-fast bacilli and fungus?
A. All patients
B. Osteomyelitis w associated septic arthritis
C. Osteomyelitis following a penetrating injury

A

Answer: C
Always send for pathology and aerobic culture. Anaerobe, acid-fast and fungus should also be sent for
- Failed primary treatment (Failed initial abx tx?)
- immunocompromised
- Penetrating wounds

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78
Q

RC: A previously healthy kid presents w pain to the mid tibia w a fever a elevated ESR. Found to have MRSA tibial osteomyelitis. The child comes from an area w a high prevalence of MRSA. What is the best antibiotic?
A. Cefazolin
B. Rifampin
C. TMP-SMX
D. Clindamycin

A

Answer: D (clindamycin)
Antibiotics for serious MRSA: vancomycin, daptomycin, linezolid
Antibiotics for stable MRSA: clindamycin
2016

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79
Q

What is chronic recurrent multifocal osteomyelitis? Diagnostic criteria? (3)

A

Idiopathic inflammatory disease
1. Multiple sites of apparent OM
2. Pathology + culture neg
3. No response to antibiotics

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80
Q

What is the prognosis and treatment of chronic recurrent multifocal osteomyelitis?

A

Comes + goes, resolves in 3yrs. Treatment - NSAIDs + pamidronate, as per Rheum. Rarely causes growth disturbance

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81
Q

RC: You are seeing a patient that has a diagnosis of chronic recurrent multifocal osteomyelitis. What is the ideal plan regarding treatment?
A. Biopsy and cultures are negative in this condition and should be treated according to rheumatology
B. Arrange for percutaneous or open biopsy followed by antibiotics
C. Admit to hospital for 6wks for broad spectrum IV antibiotics
D. Can become a Brodie’s abscess

A

Answer: A

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82
Q

RC: What is true regarding chronic recurrent multifocal osteomyelitis?
A. After core biopsy, it is best treated w I+D, followed by antibiotics
B. Bone scan is needed in the workup
C. It is an inflammatory condition that behaves like osteomyelitis but has sterile cultures

A

Answer: C
Inflammatory process, don’t treat w antibiotics. Treat w NSAIDs and pamidronate. A bone scan can determine other sites but is not necessary

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83
Q

What are poor prognostic factors for physeal injuries?

A

Higher SH grade (3+4)
Higher energy trauma
Numerous reduction attempts
Poor final reduction
Distal femur + tibia #s
Greater initial displacement

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84
Q

What is the F/U protocol for physeal injuries?

A

Repeat XR q3mo until normal growth for 6mo

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85
Q

What are Harris lines?

A

Radiographic finding after physeal injury. Represents growth arrest + resumption. Represents physis position at time of injury

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86
Q

List management options for growth disturbance after physeal injury (4)

A
  1. Physeal bar resection
  2. Epiphysiodesis
  3. Chondrodiastasis
  4. Limb lengthening + deformity correction
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87
Q

What are the indications for physeal bar resection?

A

Existing or developing deformity w >2yrs growth left
<50% physis affected
>1yr without drainage if physeal bar secondary to infection

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88
Q

Describe the technique for physeal bar resection

A

Map physeal bar w MRI
Peripheral bar - approach direct + excise overlying periosteum
Central bar - make metaphyseal window or osteotomy
Remove bar completely w bar. Prevent thermal damage w irritation + suction
Dry scope to check complete resection
Interpositional graft
Insert metallic markers on either side of physis for F/U - to differentiate growth of affected vs other side

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89
Q

Interpositional graft options for physeal bar resection?

A

Fat graft - autologous but no support
Artificial dura
PMMA - don’t use. Generates heat + damages physis

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90
Q

Describes the types of epiphysiodesis

A

Permanent - drilling + curettage
Reversible - physeal staple, 8 plate, transphyseal screws

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91
Q

Indications for epiphysiodesis for physeal injury management?

A

Physeal bar >50%
Central physeal arrest - projected 2-5cm LLD at maturity. Do contralateral limb
Peripheral physeal arrest - do ipsilateral limb

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92
Q

List methods of predicting limb length at maturity (3)

A
  1. Arithmetic method
  2. Multiplier method
  3. Moseley straight line method
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93
Q

What is the arithmetic method of predicting leg length?

A

Girls stop growing at 14. Boys stop growing at 16.
Growth remaining at each physis = (yrs growth remaining) x (inches of growth from that physis/yr)

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94
Q

What is the multiplier method of predicting leg length?

A

Theory - leg growth is constant, based on age + sex
Current limb length x multiplier = predicted length at maturity
Multiplier based on current bone age

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95
Q

Describe the indication + technique of chondrodiastasis for physeal injury management

A

Indication - adolescents approaching maturity
Ex-fix applied above + below physis
Distract physis to lengthen + correct angular deformity (Heuter Volkman law)
Intraop - can over distract + twist to break physeal bar

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96
Q

RC: 12yo has a 4.5cm LLD. Bone age is 14.5. Scanogram shows equal deficit from tibia and femur. What should be done?
A. Delayed epiphysiodesis of femur and tibia
B. Immediate epiphysiodesis of femur and tibia
C. Epiphysiodesis of femur
D. Lengthening w Ilizarov

A

Answer: B
Question stem didn’t specify which physes would be treated. Assume it’s distal femur and proximal tibia
Use the arithmetic method: growth of femur and tibial physes are 3/9/6/5
If boys stop growing at age 16, this child has 1.5yrs of growth left.
If you close the distal femur and proximal tibia physes of the long leg now, the 4.5cm discrepancy + 1.2cm growth from the remaining physes = 5.7cm LLD at maturity
Remaining growth of the short leg is 1.5 x (3+9+6+5) = 3.45
Final LLD would be 2.25, which can be treated w a heel lift
Technically, if his growth rate remained the same and the end deficit was 4.5, could also treat this w a shoe lift. But this wasn’t an option
2017

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97
Q

Acceptable alignment for peds trauma

A
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98
Q

What structures are at risk w posterior displacement of medial clavicle physeal fractures?

A

Brachiocephalic art + v
Internal jugular v
Phrenic n
Vagus n
Trachea
Esophagus

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99
Q

Describe the serendipity XR view for medial clavicle physeal #

A

40deg cephalic tilt
Anterior displaced - clavicle above other side
Posterior displaced - clavicle below other side

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100
Q

Describe the management options and indications for medial clavicle physeal #s

A
  1. Observation - anterior displacement. Posterior displacement w/o mediastinal injury
  2. Closed reduction under anesth - posterior displacement w mediastinal injury
  3. ORIF - failed closed reduction or chronic symptomatic posterior displacement
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101
Q

What is the contraindication to closed reduction of posteriorly displaced medial clavicle physeal #s?

A

Late presentation. May be adherent to mediastinal structures

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102
Q

Describe the closed reduction technique for anterior displaced medial clavicle physeal #

A

Longitudinal traction to both arms
Posterior pressure to medial fragment
Can grasp medial fragment w towel clip

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103
Q

Describe reduction + fixation technique for posterior displaced medial clavicle physeal #

A

Longitudinal traction to affected arm w shoulder adducted
CT after to confirm stability
Grasp medial fragment w towel clip + pull anterior
If unsuccessful, do open. Fix w sutures. Don’t fix w pins - will migrate

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104
Q

Regarding % of physeal growth contribution, which bone has the largest proximal : distal growth difference? Which bone is 2nd largest?

A

Humerus - proximal physis contributes 80% growth + distal contributes 20%. 2nd is femur - proximal is 30%, distal is 70%

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105
Q

What is the Neer-Horwitz classification for pediatric proximal humerus #s?

A

Type 1 - minimally displaced
2 - displaced <1/3 shaft width
3 - displaced 1/3 - 2/3 width
4 - displaced >2/3 width

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106
Q

What are the acceptable alignment parameters for pediatric proximal humerus #s?

A

<5yo: <70deg angulation, 100% displaced
5-12yo: <45-70deg
>12yo: <45deg angulation or <2/3 displaced
*RC question

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107
Q

RC: Proximal humerus # in a 14yo girl. 45deg angulation and 60% translation. What is the best treatment?
A. ORIF
B. Hanging cast
C. CRPP

A

Answer: C

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108
Q

Describe the deformity in proximal humerus #s.
Describe the reduction maneuver for proximal humerus #s.

A

Deformity: proximal fragment is varus + apex anterior from rotator cuff. Distal fragment is anterior, adducted + shortened from pec major + deltoid
Reduction maneuver:
- Traction
- Shoulder flexion + abduction to 90deg
- ER

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109
Q

If unable to reduce a proximal humerus # closed, what structures may be blocking reduction?

A

Long head of biceps - most common
Joint capsule
Periosteum
Deltoid

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110
Q

For pediatric proximal humerus #s, what are fixation options? (4)

A
  1. Perc pinning - avoid axillary n, musculocutaneous n + posterior circumflex (ER arm to avoid). Smooth pins can be removed in clinic. Threaded need OR to remove
  2. Retrograde flexinails. Avoid physis
  3. Cannulated screws
  4. Plate
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111
Q

Proximal humerus #s may fall into varus malunion. How would this affect function?

A

Glenohumeral impingement

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112
Q

In pediatric humeral shaft #s, what are acceptable alignment parameters?

A

Young (?8yo): <45deg angulation
Older: 20deg varus/valgus, 20deg procurvatum, 15deg rotation, 2cm shortening

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113
Q

RC: All are true regarding the use of flexible nails for humeral shaft #s in pediatrics, except:
A. Low risk of radial n injury
B. Low risk of delayed union
C. Should not be used in OI
D. Shortening is well tolerated in the upper extremity

A

Answer: C
2cm shortening is acceptable
Surgical management in OI should include intramedullary fixation

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114
Q

What are common mechanisms of injury for distal humerus physeal separations?

A

Birth trauma - shoulder dystocia, traumatic delivery, excessive traction during c-section
NAT
FOOSH

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115
Q

What are the treatment options for distal humerus physeal separation?

A

Casting - limited role. Most are displaced. Only for late presentation for comfort. Osteotomy later for deformity
CRPP - most cases, to maintain reduction

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116
Q

Describe the technique for CRPP of distal humerus physeal separation

A
  1. Elbow arthrogram: 50/50 saline + contrast
  2. Reduction. Flex elbow for pinning
  3. 2-3 k-wires, divergent at #. Bicortical
  4. Check ROM on fluoro
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117
Q

What complications are associated w distal humerus physeal separation? (3)

A
  1. cubitus varus. 70% incidence. Due to medial condyle AVN, malunion or growth arrest
  2. Fish tail deformity. Medial or lateral condyle AVN
  3. Growth disturbance, causing length discrepancy or angular deformity
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118
Q

At what age do the pediatric elbow ossification centers ossify and fuse?

A

Ossification: CRITOE
Fusion: CTE-ROI

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119
Q

When viewing a pediatric elbow XR, what are you looking for? (7)

A
  1. Anterior humeral line - should pass through middle third of capitellum
  2. Humerocapitellar angle: normal is 65-80deg. Lateral XR. Angle between humeral shaft + line along capitellum physis. Important for supracondylar #s. Sometimes called lateral Baumann’s angle
  3. Baumann’s angle: normal is 70-75deg. AP XR. Angle between humeral shaft + capitellum physis.
  4. Radiocapitellar line - radial shaft should align w center of capitellum. Important for Monteggia
  5. PUDA
  6. Anterior sail sign
  7. Posterior fat pad - occult #
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120
Q

What is the most common type of pediatric supracondylar #?

A

Extension type

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121
Q

What are common nerve injuries associated w pediatric supracondylar #s?

A

Extension type: AIN most common (posterolateral displacement), radial n 2nd most common (posteromedial displacement)
Flexion type: ulnar n

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122
Q

What is the Gartland classification?

A

Pediatric supracondylar #s
1: nondisplaced
2: displaced but posterior cortex intact
2A: posterior tilt, no rotation
2B: there is rotation or medial impaction
3: complete displaced
4: complete periosteal disruption. Unstable in flexion + extension. Diagnosed intraop w EUA
Also: medial comminution type + flexion type

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123
Q

What complications are associated with supracondylar #s? (7)

A
  1. Operative related - pin migration, infection, stiffness
  2. Cubitus valgus malunion - tardy ulnar n palsy
  3. Cubitus varus malunion - gunstock deformity. Causes elbow instability
  4. Recurvatum - due to nonop tx of extension types
  5. Nerve palsies - AIN, radial, ulnar
  6. Vascular injury
  7. Compartment syndrome, Volkmann contracture
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124
Q

In what elbow position do you cast/splint a supracondylar #?

A

Nonop or CRPP w only lateral pins: neutral rotation, don’t flex beyond 90deg to decrease risk of compartment syndrome
If cross pinning: splint in extension to prevent ulnar n subluxing over medial pin

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125
Q

Kid presents w type 3 supracondylar #. Well perfused, good pulses, neuro intact. What is your plan?

A

Splint for elective surgery same day OR. Type 3 can wait 21h without increased complications as long as NVI

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126
Q

Kid presents w supracondylar # that is pulseless but well perfused. What is your plan? What is your DDx?

A

Pink + pulseless. Urgent same day OR.
DDx - vascular injury, thrombosis, spasm
Do not reduce bedside, only reduce in OR. Reduction may lacerate brachial artery + causing expanding hematoma (causing compartment syndrome)
If continues to be pink + pulseless after reduction - monitor vascular + neuro status x24h
Pulses can return in 3wks

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127
Q

In a kid w a supracondylar # and a pink/pulseless hand, when would you open the #?

A
  • Reduction attempt (in OR!) causes expanding hematoma
  • AIN palsy preop (sometimes)
  • Unable to reduce closed
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128
Q

Kid presents w supracondylar # that is pulseless + poorly perfused. What is your plan?

A

White + pulseless. Emergent OR now.
- Ask when injury happened. May need prophylactic fasciotomy
- Bring to OR
- Call vascular (or plastics if hospital doesn’t have vascular)
- Closed reduction + R/A
- Open if unable to reduce closed, continues to be poorly perfused, or expanding hematoma

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129
Q

Describe the incision used to open a supracondylar when suspecting a vascular injury?

A

Anterior, S shaped incision. Proximal arm starts medial on humerus, cross antebrachial fossa + bring distal arm lateral on forearm

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130
Q

Describe the closed reduction technique for an extension-type supracondylar #

A
  • Longitudinal traction
  • Correct varus/valgus. Thumb points towards direction of displacement. Pronate if fragment displaced medially. Supinated if fragment displaced laterally
  • Flex elbow + place pressure on fragment to correct extension
  • Assess w fluoro + pin
    RC question
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131
Q

Describe how to use crossed pins when fixing pediatric supracondylar #s

A
  • Mini open incision medially
  • Place pin w elbow extended, after placing lateral pins
  • Don’t cross pins at # site (very unstable)
  • Splint arm in extension
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132
Q

What is the danger of using a medial pin when fixing pediatric supracondylar #s?

A

Ulnar n
Highest risk when pin placed w elbow in flexion. Ulnar n may sublux anterior over the medial epicondyle in some kids.

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133
Q

In pediatric supracondylar #s, what is most stable: 3 lateral pins vs crossed pins?

A

No difference in stability

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134
Q

RC: Type 3 supracondylar #, which of the following is true?
A. Splint in 120deg flexion to maintain reduction
B. Equivalent outcomes w lateral and crossed pinning
C. Require emergent surgical management
D. There is limited remodeling for translational deformity

A

Answer: B
Do not splint beyond 90deg flexion, otherwise increases compartment syndrome risk. Type 3 can wait as long as NVI
Translational deformity remodels
2017, 2019

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135
Q

In kids, what type of # is most commonly associated with elbow dislocations?

A

Medial epicondylar #

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136
Q

In what direction are pediatric medial epicondylar #s usually displaced?

A

Anteriorly. Avulsion injury from flexor-pronator mass

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137
Q

What XR views is most helpful in assessing medial epicondyle #s?

A

Internal oblique + axial view.
AP + lateral may not be accurate. The medial epicondyle is a posteromedial structure. Fragment is displaced anterior

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138
Q

RC: Which accurate describes the anatomy of the distal humerus?
A. 30deg anterior angulation, 6deg valgus, IR
B. 30deg anterior angulation, 6 varus, IR
C. 10deg anterior angulation, IR
D. 10deg anterior angulation, 6deg varus, ER

A

Answer: A
Distal humerus has 30 anterior angulation, 6deg valgus and 5deg IR

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139
Q

What are the indications for nonoperative treatment of pediatric medial epicondyle #s? What are the outcomes compared to surgery?

A

Indication: <5mm displacement.
Controversial: 5-15mm displacement
Outcomes: 9x more osseous union with surgery. Nonop leads to more fibrous union, which doesn’t affect function + is asymptomatic

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140
Q

What are the indications for ORIF for pediatric medial epicondyle #s?

A

Absolute indications:
- Open #
- Fragment incarcerated in joint
- Post reduction ulnar neuropathy when assoc w elbow dislocation
- Medial condyle involved (articular surface)
Relative indications:
- Ulnar n neuropathy
- >5-15mm displacement
- High level athlete (thrower, gymnast)
- Associated w elbow dislocation

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141
Q

Describe the surgical technique for ORIF of pediatric medial epicondyle #s

A
  • Medial approach between brachialis + triceps
  • Isolate ulnar n
  • Screw or k-wire fixation
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142
Q

RC: 12yo girl presents 6mo after being treated nonoperatively for a minimally displaced medial epicondyle fracture. There is a non-union, but she has full ROM and no pain. What now?
A. ORIF w pins
B. Place in above elbow cast
C. Followup in 6mo
D. Get MRI to investigate for fibrous nonunion

A

Answer: C
Nonoperative management of medial epicondyle #s lead to more fibrous unions. But this doesn’t affect function and is asymptomatic.
2017

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143
Q

In peds, why do lateral condyle #s have worse outcomes than supracondylar #s?

A
  • Articular
  • Often missed
  • Higher malunion/nonunion risk
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144
Q

What is the Milch classification?

A

Pediatric lateral condyle #s
Type 1: # is lateral to trochlear groove
Type 2: # extends into trochlear groove
Not as useful as Weiss classification

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145
Q

What is the Weiss classification?

A

Pediatric lateral condyle #s. Describes displacement to guide treatment
- Type 1: <2mm, intact cartilage hinge. Cast
- Type 2: 2-4mm. Intact articular hinge on arthrogram (thus, more stable). CRPP
- Type 3: >4mm. Articular hinge not intact. Likely need to open to reduce before pinning

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146
Q

Describe the pin or screw configuration when fixing pediatric lateral condyle #s

A

1 pin in lateral column, 1 pin in transverse column parallel to joint. Divergent. This is a different configuration than supracondylar #s. Direction should be from posterolateral to anteromedial

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147
Q

List complications associated w pediatric lateral condyle #s

A
  1. Stiffness: self resolving
    2: Nonunion
  2. Capitellum AVN: assoc w posterior dissection
  3. Trochlear AVN: fishtail deformity from growth arrest. Causes pain, limited ROM, proximal ulnar migration (overloads radiocapitellar joint) and arthritis. Does not cause humeral length deficiency
  4. Lateral overgrowth/prominence
  5. Cubitus valgus: tardy ulnar n
  6. Growth arrest
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148
Q

RC: All of the following are true regarding a fishtail deformity of the distal humerus, except
A. Associated w supracondylar humerus #
B. Results from central physeal growth arrest
C. Predisposes to early ulnohumeral degenerative changes
D. Results in significant humeral length deficiency

A

Answer: D
Fishtail deformity associated with all distal humerus #s (almost usually mentioned w lateral condyle or medial epicondyle #s). Results from central physeal arrest and can cause arthritis. Only 20% physeal growth from distal physis.

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149
Q

Definition of Monteggia injury?

A

Radial head dislocation + proximal ulna # (or plastic deformity in kids)

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150
Q

True or false: in Monteggia injuries, the ulnar # apex and radial head dislocation are always in the same direction

A

True!
RC question gave you the direction of the ulnar # apex. You had to indirectly know the direction that the radial head was dislocated. They asked if you had to increase or decrease the PUDA to reduce the head.

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151
Q

What is the Bado classification? In what position are each splinted?

A

Monteggia #
1: anterior radial head dislocation. Splint in flexion + supination
2: posterior radial head dislocation. Full extension
3: lateral radial head dislocation. Full extension + valgus mold
4: anterior radial head dislocation, radial head # + ulna #

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152
Q

What are signs associated w congenital radial head dislocation? (6)

A
  1. Bilateral
  2. Posterior dislocation
  3. Convex head (usually radial head is concave)
  4. Enlarged head
  5. Atraumatic
  6. Associated w syndromes
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153
Q

What are the indications for nonoperative management of pediatric Monteggia #s?

A

Types 1-3, as long as ulnar # + radial head dislocation stable after reduction

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154
Q

What are the indications for ORIF of pediatric Monteggia #s?

A
  • Types 1-3 w unstable ulnar # or radial head
  • Type 4
  • Open #
  • Older kids may be treated like adults?
    Technique: plate ulna, ORIF radial head w screws like in adults
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155
Q

RC: 16yo is assaulted and presented w a type 1 Monteggia #. What is the most appropriate treatment?
A. Closed reduction and cast
B. Flexible nail of the ulna and reduction of radial head
C. Resect radial head
D. ORIF ulna and closed reduction of radial head

A

Answer: D
Apparently we are to treat a 16yo like an adult. Adult Monteggia are treated w ulna ORIF and radial head closed reduction
Should not treat w flexible nails. Not rigid enough to keep ulna aligned
Don’t resect the radial head in acute cases

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156
Q

Describe the management options of chronic Monteggia #s

A

Radial head reduction vs resection
- Radial head reduction, order of procedure: closed reduction > open reduction via Boyd approach for ulnar osteotomy + open radiocapitellar joint reduction
- Radial head resection: after skeletal maturity

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157
Q

Describe the Boyd approach

A

No internervous plane: approach is between anconeus
- Posterolateral incision along lateral epicondyle + extend along ulnar shaft
- Incise anconeus tendon along its attachment on the ulna
- Elevate anconeus flap anteriorly
- Detach supinator from ulnar origin
- Pronate forearm to protect PIN (within substance of supinator)
- Retract anconeus + supinator anteriorly to expose capsule

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158
Q

In both bone forearm #s, describe how to determine rotational alignment radiographically. (4)

A
  1. AP view: bicipital tuberosity + radial styloid should be 180deg apart
  2. Lateral view: coronoid + ulnar styloid should be 180deg apart
  3. Diameters of proximal + distal fragments should match
  4. Cortical thickness of proximal + distal fragments should match
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159
Q

What are acceptable alignment parameters for pediatric both bone forearm #s?

A

Controversial
Younger than 10yo
- <15deg angulation
- <30deg malrotation
- <100% translation
- bayonet is ok, <1cm short
Older than 10yo
- <10deg angulation
- <30deg malrotation
- <50% translation
- No bayonet, no shortening
Despite all this, rotation does not remodel and some say no malrotation is acceptable

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160
Q

True or false: in both bone forearm #s, using an above elbow cast (as opposed to below elbow) decreases the risk of loss of reduction

A

False. No difference in loss of reduction w short vs long arm cast.
(I would still use a long arm cast in practice, but this is the new literature)

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161
Q

Define “cast index”
What sort of fractures is this term most often associated with?

A

Cast index = lateral width / AP width
Goal is cast index <0.8
You want the AP width to be > than lateral width
This helps you maintain reduction
Cast index is often used when discussing both bone forearm and distal radius #s
RC question

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162
Q

RC: What is true of the cast index?
A. Measured from cast to skin and versus soft tissue shadow
B. Width of sagittal plane compared to width of coronal plane of the inner cast at the fracture site
C. Can predict functional outcome

A

Answer: B

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163
Q

In pediatric both bone forearm #s, what are the indications for flexinail vs plate fixation?

A

Flexinails:
- Unacceptable alignment
- >13yo (thus, near maturity)
Plate fixation: same as flexinail indications but w additional indications
- Open #
- Refracture
- Highly comminuted

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164
Q

Describe the technique for flexinailing pediatric both bone forearm #s

A

Can start w either radius or ulna, whichever is easiest
1. Ulnar nail inserted through olecranon. Avoid ulnar n
2. Radial nail can be inserted through either:
- Radial styloid between compartments 1 and 2. Risk superficial radial n
- Lister’s tubercle. Risk EPL attritional rupture
3. Open starting points w awl
4. Reduce bone. Up to 3 unsuccessful passage attempts allowed before opening #. Otherwise risk compartment syndrome

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165
Q

How do the outcomes for pediatric both bone forearm flexinailing compare to ORIF?

A

Flexinailing has
- Shorter OR time
- Less blood loss
- Equal union rates, ability in restoring radial bow, ability in restoring rotation

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166
Q

When flexinailing pediatric both bone forearm #s, what is the risk of using a radial styloid start point?

A

Superficial radial nerve neuroma

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167
Q

When flexinailing pediatric both bone forearm #s, what is the risk of using a Lister’s tubercle start point? When does this complication usually occur?

A

EPL attritional rupture. 6-12wks postop

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168
Q

What is the treatment for EPL attritional ruptures?

A

EIP to EPL tendon transfer

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169
Q

What are the risk factors for compartment syndrome in pediatric both bone forearm #s? (2)

A
  1. High energy trauma
  2. Multiple attempts (>3) at reduction + passing flexinail
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170
Q

What are some complications associated w pediatric both bone forearm #s?

A
  • Refracture: assoc w plate removal or green stick patterns
  • Malunion leading to loss of prosupination. Treat w corrective osteotomy
  • Compartment syndrome
  • Synostosis: assoc w high energy trauma and head injury
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171
Q

RC: Which of the following is true: both bone forearm # w 10 deg rotational malunion
A. A midshaft malunion will result in more decreased pronation
B. A midshaft malunion will result in a more decreased supination
C. A distal malunion will result in more decreased pronation
D. A distal malunion will result in a more decreased supination

A

Answer: B
Pronation losses were similar for both distal and middle forearm deformities. However, supination loss is more affected w midshaft deformities than distal ones.
2017

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172
Q

What percentage of growth do the proximal and distal radial physis contribute?

A

Proximal: 25%
Distal: 75%

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173
Q

What is the most common site of pediatric distal radius #s?

A

Metaphysis

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174
Q

What are the acceptable alignment parameters for pediatric distal radius #s?

A

Controversial
<9yo
- <20deg angulation
- <50% translation
>9yo
- >10deg angulation
Rotation does not remodel. No malrotation acceptable for any age
RC question

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175
Q

RC: 8yo presents to your clinic 10d after a distal radius # (no XR, no mention of physeal injury). He has been splinted and has 20deg apex volar angulation. He has a well molded cast. What do you do next?
A. Followup in 4-5wks
B. Hematoma block and repeat closed reduction
C. Drill osteoclasis and fixation
D. Open reduction and plate

A

Answer: A

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176
Q

True or false: there is no difference in loss of reduction w short arm vs long arm cast for distal radius #s

A

True. Can use either. Goal is for cast index <0.8

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177
Q

What is the risk of re-displacement w pediatric distal radius #s?

A

30% incidence
Most important risk factor: initial complete displacement. 7x more likely to redisplace
Anatomic reduction reduces risk for re-displacement
RC question

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178
Q

RC: Regarding entirely metaphyseal distal radius fractures in children treated w closed reduction and casting, which of the following is true about re-displacement?
A. 30% incidence
B. More common if younger than 10yo
C. An above elbow cast prevents re-displacement
D. Transverse patterns are more unstable

A

Answer: A
No difference in stability in above elbow vs below elbow cast. Transverse patterns are more stable.
(JPO 2015: Distal radius fractures in children: risk factors for redisplacement following closed reduction)

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179
Q

What is the indication for CRPP in pediatric distal radius #s? Describe the technique

A

Unstable pattern - unable to maintain reduction in cast
Radial styloid pins, just proximal to physis
If need transphyseal pin, use smooth wires
If intra-articular #, pin transversely across epiphysis
Dorsal pin may restore volar tilt
Dangers: superficial radial n

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180
Q

For physeal injuries to the distal radius, what are the management principles for acute vs late presentations?

A

Acute presentation: gentle reduction, NO re-manipulation
Chronic presentation: NO late reductions. Do not attempt reduction after 3ds even if unacceptable alignment. May cause growth arrest. Just well moulded cast to prevent further displacement. Hopefully remodels
RC question

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181
Q

RC: 12yo comes in 10days after a SH2 distal radius # with 15deg radial inclination on AP XR and 50deg apex volar on lateral XR. What is the best treatment option?
A. ORIF w plate
B. ORIF and perc pinning
C. Repeat closed reduction and cast
D. Cast with appropriate molding and observe

A

Answer: D
SH2 and 10days after injury. Therefore, physeal injury w delayed presentation. Don’t reduce as it could cause growth arrest. Just cast with a mold to prevent further displacement.

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182
Q

What is a Galeazzi fracture? In pediatrics, what is a Galeazzi equivalent?

A

Distal third radius # and DRUJ disruption
Galeazzi equivalent: distal third radius # and displaced ulnar physeal injury

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183
Q

What is the Walsh classification?

A

Galeazzi fractures
Type 1: Radius displaced dorsally, due to supination force
Type 2: Radius displaced volarly, due to pronation force

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184
Q

What is the closed reduction technique for Galeazzi injuries?

A
  • Supinate if ulna displaced dorsally
  • Pronate if ulna displaced volarly
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185
Q

In an irreducible DRUJ injury, what is tissue is most likely interposed?

A

ECU

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186
Q

How would you surgically manage a pediatric Galeazzi injury?

A

Radius: fix w volar plate or flexinail
DRUJ pinning:
- Dorsal approach if unable to reduce DRUJ due to interposed tissue
- PIN ulna to radius in supination
- If large ulnar styloid fragment, pin that too
Splint in supination

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187
Q

What are the entry points for radius flexinails? (2)

A
  1. Radial styloid between compartments 1 and 2
  2. Lister’s tubercle
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188
Q

True or False: in pediatric traumatic hip dislocations, associated acetabular #s are common

A

False. Less common than in adults due to cartilaginous acetab. Most common type: posterior wall #

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189
Q

In pediatric traumatic hip dislocations, what increases the risk of AVN?

A

Not reduced within 6hrs

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190
Q

Describe the leg position upon presentation in patients w anterior or posterior hips dislocations

A

Anterior: FABER
Posterior: FADIR

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191
Q

What is the management of pediatric traumatic hip dislocations?

A

Reduction within 6hrs of injury. Options after reduction include
- Spica cast
- <10yo: bedrest + abduction splint x4wks
- >10yo: bracing + protected WB x 6wks

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192
Q

Regarding the greater trochanteric apophysis, what deformity results from growth arrest? What deformity results from overgrowth?

A

Growth arrest causes a short GT and coxa valga
Overgrowth causes coxa vara

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193
Q

Describe the blood supply to the proximal femur in a pediatric patient

A
  • Ligamentum teres: main blood supply at birth. Decreases after 4yo
  • Metaphyseal vessels: contributes at birth but disappears ages 4-17 because blocked by physis. Reappears after 17yo
  • Lateral femoral circumflex: contributes at birth but regresses later in childhood
  • Medial femoral circumflex: posterosuperior and posteroinferior branches. Become main blood supply at 4yo
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194
Q

What is the Delbet classification?

A

Proximal femur fracture classification
Type 1: transphyseal. 100% AVN risk.
2: transcervical. 30% risk.
3: basicervical. 20% risk
4: intertrochanteric. 10%
All displaced #s or kids >4yo need surgery.
Types 1-3 are treated w pin/screws if displaced or in kids >4yo. Type 4 is treated w DHS if displaced or kids >4yo
Any type can be treated w spica if undisplaced in kids <4yo

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195
Q

What are the treatment options for proximal femur #s?

A
  • Closed reduction + spica
  • Emergent ORIF + capsulotomy
  • Closed vs open reduction internal fixation
  • ORIF w sliding hip screw
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196
Q

What are the indications for emergent ORIF and capsulotomy in pediatric proximal femur #s? Why is capsulotomy or hip aspiration suggested?

A

Indications include
- Open #
- Vascular injury requiring repair
- Associated hip dislocation
- Type 1 w epiphyseal dislocation
- Fractures w significant displacement (may increased AVN risk)
Capsulotomy or aspiration may decrease AVN risk

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197
Q

What are the indications for closed reduction + spica in pediatric proximal femur #s?

A

Only if acceptable alignment in kids <4yo, any type
Kids w displaced #s or >4yo, need surgery that is dependent on # type

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198
Q

What are the indications for pin/screw fixation vs DHS for pediatric proximal femur #s?

A

DHS is for type 4 that are either displaced or kids >4yo
Pin/screw fixation are for types 1-3 that are either displaced or kids >4yo

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199
Q

What complications are associated w pediatric proximal femur #s? (6)

A
  1. AVN
  2. Coxa vara
  3. Coxa valga
  4. Nonunion
  5. Physeal arrest
  6. Chondrolysis
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200
Q

What are the risk factors for AVN in pediatric proximal femur #s? (4)

A
  1. Increasing age
  2. Fracture type (Delbet classification)
  3. Delayed reduction >24h
  4. Unstable reduction
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201
Q

In pediatric proximal femur fractures, which # patterns are associated w coxa vara? Coxa valga?

A

Coxa vara - types 1-3
Coxa valga - type 4

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202
Q

What are the treatment options for coxa vara after pediatric proximal femur #s? What are the indications? (3)

A
  1. Observation: kids <3yo will remodel
  2. Trochanteric apophysis surgical arrest. Mild coxa vara in kids <8yo
  3. Subtroch or intertroch valgus osteotomy: associated nonunion, severe Trendelenburg gait, FAI or older patients
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203
Q

RC: What is true regarding femoral neck #s?
A. Rate of osteonecrosis is 5%
B. It is ok to cross the physis w fixation
C. Capsular decompression (?)
D. Age <11yo is a risk factor for osteonecrosis

A

Answer: B
Rate of osteonecrosis is at least 10%, depending on Delbet classification
Increasing age is a risk factor
Question stem didn’t mention anything further regarding capsular decompression.

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204
Q

In pediatric femoral shaft #s, what are the treatment options and indications for each? (6)

A
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205
Q

List 5 implant-related principles of femur shaft flexinails

A
  1. Nail size: 2 nails together must fill 80% canal
  2. Pre-bend the nails to contact the canal walls at the # site. Bend 30deg. Nails should bend in opposite directions
  3. End caps stabilize the nails
  4. Titanium nails are better than stainless steel: better strength. Steel nails are stiffer and have higher reoperation rates
  5. Insert 2 nails retrograde. Starting points is 2cm above distal physis
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206
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using flexinails for pediatric femoral shaft #s?

A

Advantages:
- Small incision, minimal soft tissue damage
- Don’t need to immobilize
- Early WB at 6wks
- Decreased hospital stay
Disadvantages:
- Irritation at tip
- Risk shortening/angulation if length unstable
- Risk malunion if very proximal or distal #s

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207
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using anterograde IM nailing in pediatric femoral shaft #s?

A

Advantages
- Immediate stability + WB
- Known technique for many surgeons
Disadvantages
- AVN associated w piriformis entry. Use GT or lateral entry to avoid. Medial femoral circumflex lies near piriformis fossa

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208
Q

What are the indications for anterograde IM nail in the management of pediatric femoral shaft #s?

A
  • Near skeletal maturity (>11yo)
  • Length unstable
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209
Q

RC: 54kg 10yo w a midshaft femur #. What is the treatment?
A. Ex-fix
B. Rigid IM nail
C. Flexible IM nail
D. Submuscular plate

A

Answer: D
With that body weight, flexible nails are not appropriate. Rigid IM nail or plate would be possible treatments, except the stem specifies that the pt is 10yo
Rigid IM nail is appropriate if the pt is >11yo
Plating is okay for pretty much all ages
2015

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210
Q

What SH type # is most common in pediatric distal femur physeal injuries?

A

SH2

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211
Q

What is a Thurston Holland Fragment?

A

Distal femur physeal injury, SH2. Triangular portion of metaphysis remaining w epiphysis

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212
Q

What is the incidence of physeal injury causing LLD or angular deformity in distal femur physeal injuries? What are the risk factors?

A

30-50% incidence. Risk factors:
- SH type
- # displacement
- Surgical HW invading physis

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213
Q

What are the treatment options and indications for pediatric distal femur physeal injuries? (3)

A
  1. Long leg cast for nondisplaced #s
  2. CRPP - SH 1 +2. Some SH 3 + 4 if anatomic reduction possible
  3. ORIF - Most SH 3 + 4. Irreducible SH 1 + 2 due to interposed periosteum on tension (lateral) side
    Smooth k-wires if crossing physis. Otherwise, use screws
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214
Q

True or False: in pediatric ACL injuries, they are classically due to tibial eminence #s

A

True. There is increasing incidence of ACL ruptures now but classically associated w eminence #s

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215
Q

Risk factors for pediatric ACL tears? (5)

A
  1. Increased posterior tibial slope
  2. Increased Q angle
  3. Decreased intercondylar notch width
  4. Stronger quads then hamstrings
  5. Landing position: hip IR + knee valgus
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216
Q

Indications for nonoperative management of pediatric ACL tears? (3)

A
  1. Younger (<11yo)
  2. <50% tear
  3. Anteromedial bundle
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217
Q

Why is it better to fix pediatric ACL tears acutely, rather than delay until skeletal maturity?

A

Delaying found to increase incidence of:
- Irreparable meniscal tears
- Chondral damage
This is due to repeated episodes of instability

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218
Q

In pediatric ACL reconstruction, what are the general types of reconstruction techniques? (4)

A
  • Extra articular
  • Physeal sparing
  • Partial transphyseal (in tibia)
  • Complete transphyseal
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219
Q

Describe the concept of extra-articular ACL reconstruction in kids

A

No tunnels made. Autograft IT band fixed to femur and brought intra articular, then fixed to tibia. Good stability but may be over constrained

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220
Q

Describe the concept of physeal sparing (all epiphyseal) ACL reconstruction in kids

A

Indicated when >2yo growth left. Tunnels made in femur and tibia epiphyses. Hamstring autograft used. Best restores normal knee kinematics

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221
Q

Describe the concept of partial transphyseal ACL reconstruction in kids

A

Indicated when modest growth left. Spares femur physis and transphyseal tibial tunnel

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222
Q

List risk factors during ACL reconstruction in kids that may cause growth disturbance? (3)

A
  1. HW across physis
  2. Bone across physis (BPTB graft)
  3. Large tunnels in physis
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223
Q

True or False: autograft is best in pediatric ACL reconstruction

A

True. Autograft is best. Usually quadrupled hamstring used. Bone blocks increase risk of growth arrest.
Allograft associated w 4x revision rate.

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224
Q

In patella dislocations, list what you should examine or workup to determine the cause of recurrent instability

A
  • Standing alignment
  • Axial alignment: TT-TG
  • Rotational alignment: rotational profile
  • Trochlear groove morphology: patellar tilt, lateral femoral condyle dysplasia
  • Generalized ligamentous laxity
  • Soft tissue: MPFL tears, tight lateral retinaculum
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225
Q

Which is better in recurrent pediatric patella dislocations, MPFL reconstruction or repair?

A

Reconstruction is better (5% recurrence). Repair alone does poorly (60%) recurrence.

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226
Q

In pediatric MPFL reconstruction, where is the femoral origin?

A

Between medial epicondyle and adductor tubercle. About 5mm distal to physis

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227
Q

In pediatric patella dislocations, what are risk factors for recurrence? (6)

A
  1. Age <18
  2. Trochlear dysplasia
  3. Patella alta
  4. Increased TT-TG
  5. Miserable malalignment: femur anteversion, genu valgum and external tibial torsion
  6. Female
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228
Q

True or False: autograft is best for pediatric MPFL reconstruction

A

False. Equal results with autograft or allograft for MPFL reconstruction.
This is unlike with ACL, where autograft is always best for kids

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229
Q

RC: In a 10year old boy w recurrent patella instability and a TTTG measuring 26mm, what of the following is the least recommended:
A. Medial patellofemoral soft tissue reconstruction
B. Supra-patellar soft tissue realignment procedure
C. Tibial tubercle osteotomy

A

Answer: C
Do not do tibial tubercle osteotomy in skeletally immature

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230
Q

In patellar sleeve fractures, what is most common: superior pole or inferior pole fractures?

A

Inferior pole is most common

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231
Q

What are some clinical findings in kids w patellar sleeve #s? (4)

A
  1. Unable to WB
  2. High-riding patella (if inferior pole #, which is most common)
  3. Palpable gap at either proximal or distal end of patella due to disrupted extensor mechanism (depends on location of #)
  4. Difficulty w active knee extension
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232
Q

What are XR findings w patellar sleeve #s?

A

Flecks of bone near superior or inferior poles
Patella baja or alta depending on where the # is

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233
Q

What is the treatment of patella sleeve #s?

A

2 options
1. Cast x6wks: rare. Only if undisplaced w intact extensor mechanism
2. ORIF: displaced, articular stepoff, disrupted extensor mechanism
Medial parapatellar approach. Repair retinaculum and extensor mechanism with sutures, tension band, suture anchors, screws, etc
Cast in extension after

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234
Q

What structure attaches to the medial tibial spine?

A

ACL

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235
Q

Why are kids more prone to tibial eminence #s?

A

Not completely ossified. More prone to eminence #s than cruciate ligament tears

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236
Q

What is the Meyers and McKeever classification?

A

Pediatric tibial eminence fractures
Type 1: nondisplaced
Type 2: minimally displaced w intact posterior hinge
Type 3: completely displaced. Type 3+ is completely displaced and rotated
Type 4: completely displaced, rotated and comminuted

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237
Q

What are the clinical findings in kids w tibial eminence #s?

A

Knee flexed
Positive anterior drawer

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238
Q

What are the treatment options and indications for pediatric tibial eminence #s? (2)

A
  1. Closed reduction and full extension cast: type 1 and type 2 (if reducible)
  2. Fixation: Types 3 + 4, and irreducible type 2
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239
Q

What are common blocks to reduction in tibial eminence #s?

A

Meniscus and intermeniscal ligament
Most common: medial meniscus

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240
Q

Describe the fixation technique for pediatric tibial eminence #s

A

Arthroscopic vs open
Debride # and disengage entrapped soft tissue
Reduce and fix with either suture or screws

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241
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of suture or screw fixation in treating pediatric tibial eminence #s?

A

Suture fixation
- Advantage: use for smaller fragments. Minimal physeal damage
- Disadvantage: more technically demanding arthroscopically
Screw fixation
- Advantage: less technically demanding, possibly earlier mobilization
- Disadvantage: for larger fragment, HW irritation, may impinge ROM, iatrogenic comminution, physeal injury

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242
Q

True or False: surgically treated pediatric tibial eminence #s are associated with ACL laxity

A

True. ACL laxity after tibial eminence # is more common after surgical treatment. Laxity is noted on Lachman. However, usually functionally stable
ACL reconstruction later in 15-25%

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243
Q

RC: What is the most important factor in causing arthrofibrosis in tibial eminence injuries in kids?
A. Open fixation, instead of arthroscopic
B. Length of immobilization
C. Screw fixation, rather than suture
D. Injury to meniscus

A

Answer: B
Early ROM decreases the risk of arthrofibrosis

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244
Q

What are risk factors associated w tibial tubercle #s?

A

Jumping shorts: basketball, football, sprinting, high jump

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245
Q

Describe how the ossification centers of the proximal tibia close

A

2 ossification centers: physis and tubercle apophysis
Closes from posterior to anterior, proximal to distal

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246
Q

In tibial tubercle fractures with associated compartment syndrome, what else may be injured?

A

Anterior tibial recurrent artery

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247
Q

True or False: tibial tubercle #s may be associated w popliteal artery injury

A

True. Passes posterior over metaphyseal fragment. CTA if suspect injury

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248
Q

What is the Ogden classification?

A

Tibial tubercle #
1: through apophysis
2: between physis and apophysis
3: through apophysis and extends posterior to cross physis
4: through entire physis
5: proximal sleeve avulsion

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249
Q

What are the treatment option for tibial tubercle #s?

A
  • Cast in extension: type 1, minimally displaced or acceptable displacement
  • ORIF: types 2-5 displaced. Fix with smooth K-wires, screws and sutures
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250
Q

What deformity may result from tibial tubercle #s?

A

Recurvatum deformity. More common than LLD
Due to anterior growth arrest but posterior growth continues. Results in decreased tibial slope

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251
Q

RC: What is a complication of tibial tubercle #s?
A. Compartment syndrome
B. Something
C. Something
D. Something

A

Just know that compartment syndrome is a complication. Due to tear of recurrent anterior tibial artery
2017

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252
Q

What are acceptable alignment parameters for pediatric tibial shaft #s?

A

<5-10deg angulation. Accept 10deg angulation if <8yo
<1cm shortening
50% translation

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253
Q

What are treatment options for pediatric tibial shaft fractures?

A
  • Long leg cast: acceptable reduction
  • Ex-fix: DCO, extensive soft tissue injury
  • Flexinails: unacceptable alignment, near maturity
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254
Q

Describe the order of closure of the distal tibial physis

A

Central > anteromedial > posteromedial > latera.

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255
Q

What is a triplane #?

A

Transitional # due to distal tibial physeal closure. Typically metaphyseal # on coronal plane, physeal # on axial plane, epiphyseal # on sagittal plane
Can be different # patterns but this is the classic

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256
Q

With triplane #s, which components of the # would you see on AP and lateral XR views?

A

AP: epiphyseal # as it is a sagittal plane #. SH3 type
Lateral: metaphyseal # as it is a coronal plane #. SH2

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257
Q

With triplanar #s, what radiologic sign may be seen on CT?

A

Mercedes-Benz sign

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258
Q

Describe the technique for closed reduction and casting of triplanar #s

A

Indication: <2mm displaced
Reduce the fibula first
Lateral triplanar #s: most common type. Reduce w IR
Medial triplanar #s: reduce w ER
Long leg cast to control rotation x4wks, then short leg cast x2wks

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259
Q

Describe the technique for operative treatment of triplanar #s

A

Indication: >2mm displaced
CRPP vs ORIF
Approach for ORIF depends if lateral or medial triplanar #
Lateral triplanar: anterolateral approach
Medial triplanar: anteromedial approach
Fixation: smooth k-wires or cannulated screws

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260
Q

RC: What is true of a triplanar # on XR?
A. SH3 # seen on AP view, SH2 # seen on lateral view
B. SH2 seen on AP, SH3 seen on lateral
C. SH4 on AP view
D. SH4 seen on mortise view

A

Answer: A
SH3 # line seen on AP view. # is in the sagittal plane
SH2 # line seen on lateral view. # is in the coronal plane

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261
Q

What is a tillaux fracture?

A

SH3 # of anterolateral tibial epiphysis due to AITFL avulsion. Occurs within 1yr of physis closure, older then triplanar group

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262
Q

What does the AITFL connect to?

A

Chaput tubercle on tibia and Wagstaffe tubercle on fibula

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263
Q

What is the best XR view to visualize a tillaux #?

A

Mortise view

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264
Q

Describe the technique for closed reduction and casting in tillaux #s?

A

Indication: <2mm displaced
Reduction technique: IR foot
Long leg cast x4wks then short leg x2wks

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265
Q

Describe the operative technique for tillaux #s

A

Indication: >2mm displaced
CRPP: k wire to joystick reduction then fix w k wire or cannulated screws
ORIF: anterolateral approach. Visualize joint for reduction.
Transphyseal fixation is OK as physis almost closed
Postop: long leg cast x4wks for rotational stability, then short leg cast x2wks

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266
Q

What is juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

Autoimmune inflammatory arthritis lasting >6wks in kids <16yo
Must R/O infection
Diagnostic criteria: must have one of the following
- Rash
- RF positive
- Iridocyclitis
- C-spine involved
- Pericarditis
- Tenosynovitis
- Intermittent fever
- Morning stiffness

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267
Q

True or False: juvenile idiopathic arthritis is often RF positive

A

False. <15% are RF-positive
RF positive is included in the diagnostic criteria though

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268
Q

What is iridocyclitis and why is it important to R/O in JIA?

A

Type of anterior uveitis. Needs immediate ophtho consult for slit lamp exam. Can cause rapid vision loss.
Higher risk if ANA positive
ANA+: requires slitlamp exam q4mo
ANA-: slitlamp exam q6mo

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269
Q

What is Still’s disease?

A

Acute onset JIA presenting with
- Multiple joint involvement
- Fever
- Rash
- Splenomegaly
Usually 5-10yo

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270
Q

What are the 3 types of JIA? Which is most common and which has the worse prognosis?

A

Pauciarticular: most common (50%)
Polyarticular
Systemic: worse prognosis

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271
Q

What is the difference between pauciarticular and polyarticular JIA?

A

Pauciarticular
- <5 joints involved
- Large joints
- Asymmetric: causes LLD. Involved limb is longer
- Early onset is more common in girls x4 and associated w iridocyclitis
Polyarticular
- >5 joints involved
- Small joints (hand/wrist)

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272
Q

What is the prognosis of JIA?

A

Pauciarticular: 70% remission
Polyarticular: 60% remission
Systemic: worst. Most likely to become adult RA

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273
Q

What systemic findings are associated w systemic JIA?

A
  • Rash
  • Fever
  • Multiple joints
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Pericarditis
  • Heme: anemia, high plts/WBC
  • Stills disease
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274
Q

What must be done preop for JIA?

A

Flex/ex XR for atlantoaxial instability

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275
Q

RC: What are radiographic findings in the c-spine in JIA?

A
  1. Atlantoaxial instability
  2. Basilar invagination
  3. Odontoid erosion
  4. Facet (apophyseal) joint ankylosis
  5. Subaxial instability
  6. Small cervical vertebrae (hypotrophy): most common at C4/5
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276
Q

What is the treatment for JIA?

A

DMARDS and slitlamp exams
Ortho-wise: treat LLD and deformities. May need arthrodesis or arthroplasty

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277
Q

What is the O’Brien classification of pediatric radial head #s?

A

Type 1: <30deg angulation
Type 2: 30-60
Type 3: >60 deg

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278
Q

What XR view should you order to better assess radial head #s?

A

Radiocapitellar view. Oblique later XR performed by placing arm on table w elbow flexed 90deg. Thumb pointing upwards

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279
Q

What are the indications for nonoperative management of pediatric radial head #s?

A

Able to achieve acceptable alignment w closed reduction.
- <30deg angulation
- <3mm translation

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280
Q

Describe closed reduction techniques for pediatric radial head #s (3)

A

Patterson maneuver: elbow in extension/supination. Traction + varus force. Direct pressure over head
Israeli: elbow flexed to 90 and pronation. Direct pressure over head
Esmarch: tightly apply Esmarch from wrist to above elbow. May spontaneously reduce

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281
Q

Describe CRPP techniques for pediatric radial head #s (3)

A
  1. K-wire push technique: use blunt head to push against fragment
  2. K-wire lever technique: kwire into fracture site to lever
  3. Metaizeau technique: pin/nail retrograde across # site. Rotate pin/nail to reduce #
    Pin # if unstable
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282
Q

Describe the open reduction technique for pediatric radial head #s

A

Kocher approach. Internal fixation only if grossly unstable

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283
Q

True or False: in pediatric radial head #s, loss of pronation is a much more common complication than loss of supination

A

TRUE

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284
Q

True or false: in pediatric radial head #s, the incidence of osteonecrosis is increased w open reduction

A

True. 70% incidence w open reduction. Radial head is mostly cartilage in kids. Blood supply from metaphysis

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285
Q

RC: What are poor prognostic factors in radial neck #s in kids?

A
  1. Older (>10yo)
  2. Associated injuries, comminution
  3. Requires open reduction
  4. Delayed treatment
  5. Poor reduction (>30deg angulation, 3mm translation)
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286
Q

What is a Nursemaid’s elbow and what age group is it found in?

A

Annular ligament subluxation after sudden traction on extended and pronated elbow
Found in kids 1-4yo

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287
Q

When suspected Nursemaid’s elbow, what position is the patient’s arm usually held? What is the physical exam like?

A

Arm held in slight flexion and pronation
Pain to lateral aspect of elbow. Full flexion and extension
Pain w supination

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288
Q

Describe the closed reduction techniques for Nursemaid’s elbow (2)

A

-Supination technique: supinate forearm and flex elbow maximally. Put pressure on radial head to reduce
- Hyperpronation: elbow flexed to 90deg and hyperpronate forearm

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289
Q

In pediatric elbow dislocations, what is the most commonly associated #?

A

Medial epicondyle #

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290
Q

True or False: elbow dislocations are common in kids <3yo

A

False. Most common in 10-15yo. “Elbow dislocation” in kids <3yo, suspect physeal separation from NAT

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291
Q

What is Sprengel’s? Describe the associated deformity

A

Congenitally small + undescended scapula
High-riding
Medially rotated scapula (glenoid faces inferior)
Triangle shape

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292
Q

What motion is typically limited in Sprengel’s?

A

Shoulder abduction. Due to loss of scapulothoracic motion

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293
Q

True or False: Sprengel’s is the same as scapular winging

A

False. Sprengel’s is a congenitally small and undescended scapula. It may be associated w winging but not necessarily. Winging is from injury to the long thoracic n or serratus anterior

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294
Q

What is an omovertebral bone?

A

Present in 50% of Sprengel’s deformity. Forms a connection between the scapula and C-spine. Restricts shoulder motion

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295
Q

What conditions are associated w Sprengel’s? (3)

A
  1. Congenital scoliosis: most common
  2. Klippel-Feil
  3. Spinal dysraphism: spina bifida, split cord, etc
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296
Q

For operative management of Sprengel’s, name the 2 procedures that can be performed and general principles of each. What are your options in regards to protecting the brachial plexus?

A
  1. Green procedure
  2. Woodward procedure - more popular
    Both procedures are similar. Position prone. Incision over Cspine spinous processes. In Green procedure, detach muscles from scapula for exposure. In Woodward, detach muscles from spinous processes for exposure. Excise omovertebral bone. Externally rotate scapula and move inferior. Reattach muscles
    Options to protect the brachial plexus
    - Clavicle resection
    - Clavicle osteotomy
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297
Q

What are the outcomes of operative management for Sprengel’s?

A

Both Green and Woodward procedures improve abduction by 45deg

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298
Q

What nerves innervate pec major? Where do they branch off of on the brachial plexus?

A

Medial and lateral pectoral n. From medial and lateral cords, respectively

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299
Q

What are the risk factors for obstetrical brachial plexopathy? (6)

A
  1. Large for gestational age
  2. Multiparous pregnancy
  3. Difficult presentation (breech)
  4. Shoulder dystocia
  5. Forceps delivery
  6. Prolonged labor
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300
Q

Define preganglionic brachial plexus injury vs postganglionic

A

Preganglionic: lesion is proximal to sensory (dorsal root) ganglion

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301
Q

What are the implications of preganglionic brachial plexus injuries?

A

Preganglionic injuries involve root avulsions and will not spontaneously recover. Require nerve transfer

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302
Q

In obstetrical brachial plexopathy, certain nerve injuries suggest preganglionic injury. List them (5)

A
  1. Horner’s syndrome: sympathetic chain
  2. Phrenic n: elevated hemidiaphragm on XR
  3. Long thoracic n: winged scapula from serratus anterior
  4. Dorsal scapular n: rhomboids
  5. Suprascapular n: supra and infraspinatus
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303
Q

What nerve roots are involved in Erb’s, Klumpke’s, and total obstetrical brachial plexopathy? Which is most common

A

Erbs: C5-6 (sometimes C7)
Klumpke: C8-T1
Complete: with or without Horner’s
Erbs is most common > complete > Klumpke
Note: these terms are outdated. Now, we use the Narakas classification

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304
Q

What is the Narakas classification?

A

Obstetrical brachial plexopathy. Eponym classification (Erb’s, Klumpke) is outdated
Group 1 (Duchenne-Erb’s): C5-6
Group 2 (Intermediate): C5-7
Group 3 (Total): C5-T1 without Horner’s
Group 4 (Total w Horner’s)

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305
Q

What major nerves are involved in Erb’s palsy? What is the typical deformity?

A

C5-6. C7 involved in 50%
Suprascapula, musculocutaneous, axillary, and radial n
Waiter’s tip deformity
- Adducted and IR shoulder
- Extended and pronated elbow
- If C7 involved, no wrist extension. Will be fixed in flexion

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306
Q

What neonatal reflexes should be examined in obstetrical brachial plexopathy?

A
  1. Moro: sudden loss of support. Spread out arms (abduction) and then pull back in (adduction)
  2. Tonic neck reflex: aka fencing reflex. When face turned to one side, arm/leg on that side become extended. Opposite arm/leg flex
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307
Q

Describe the general principles of managing obstetrical brachial plexopathy

A
  1. R/O pseudoparalysis from trauma, meaning is this true plexopathy?
  2. Neonatal reflexes
  3. Determine roots involved. R/O Horner’s. Don’t need EMG/NCS (unlike adults)
  4. PT to maintain ROM. Don’t need splinting (unlike in adults)
  5. Serial exams over first 3-6mo of life. Monitor biceps recovery w cookie test
  6. If no biceps recovery by 3-6mo, send to plastics for microsurgery. If preganglionic, can send at 3mo. If not preganglionic, can wait until 6mo to refer
  7. After recovered from nerve surgery (wait at least 2yrs), assess remaining functional deficits for tendon transfers, etc
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308
Q

List 2 motor grading systems developed to assess obstetrical brachial plexopathy

A
  1. Active Movement Scale. Use to track neuro recovery. Motor graded from 0-7. Grades 0-4 if gravity eliminated, grades 5-7 if movement possible against gravity
  2. Mallet classification. Assesses 5 functions: shoulder abduction, shoulder ER, hand to neck, hand to mouth, hand to sacrum
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309
Q

What is the cookie test?

A

Assess biceps recovery in obstetrical brachial plexopathy. Place cookie in hand of affected side. Hold elbow adducted. If able to bring cookie to mouth, then has biceps function

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310
Q

What are good prognostic factors for obstetrical brachial plexopathy? (2)

A
  1. Erb’s palsy
  2. Biceps activity by 2mo. Specifically, antigravity activity
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311
Q

What are poor prognostic factors for obstetrical brachial plexopathy? (4)

A
  1. Klumpke’s or complete palsy
  2. No biceps activity by 3mo
  3. Preganglionic injury
  4. Horner’s syndrome
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312
Q

What is Horner’s syndrome?

A

Ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis

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313
Q

How do you workup phrenic n involvement in obstetrical brachial plexopathy?

A

Chest fluoro or US

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314
Q

What are the indications for nerve transfer in obstetrical brachial plexopathy? Indications for nerve grafting?

A

Nerve transfer for preganglionic
Nerve grafting for postganglionic

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315
Q

How long should you wait after microsurgery for obstetrical brachial plexopathy before proceeding to tendon transfer?

A

Wait at least 2yo to ensure no more recovery after nerve surgery

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316
Q

What is the overall prognosis for obstetrical brachial plexopathy without intervention?

A

90% will resolve without intervention

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317
Q

What is the most common nerve graft used for obstetrical brachial plexopathy?

A

Sural n

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318
Q

Describe the principles of nerve grafting for Erb’s palsy

A

Indications - postganglionic. No biceps return after 6mo
- Cable graft w sural n
- Resect neuroma
- Graft C5 to suprascapular and posterior division of superior trunk (axillary n)
- Graft C6 to the anterior division of superior trunk (musculocutaneous)

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319
Q

Describe the principles of nerve transfer for Erb’s palsy

A
  • Spinal accessory n (CN 11) transferred to suprascapular n
  • Thoracic intercostals (T2-4) transferred to lateral and posterior cords
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320
Q

Describe the principles of nerve surgery for total obstetrical brachial plexopathy

A

Priority is hand function
Graft C5 and C6 nerve roots to medial and ulnar n
Transfer spinal accessory n (CN 11) to suprascapular n
Transfer thoracic intercostals (T2-4) to lateral and posterior cord

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321
Q

What shoulder deformities result from Erb’s palsy? (2)

A
  1. IR contraction
  2. Dislocation from posterior subluxation and glenoid retroversion
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322
Q

In Erb’s palsy, what are the treatment options for shoulder subluxation and glenoid deformity? (2)

A
  • Minimal glenoid deformity: open reduction, subscap release. Possible lat dorsi transfer
  • Retroverted glenoid deformity: humeral derotational osteotomy
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323
Q

In Erb’s palsy, what are the treatment options for shoulder IR contracture? What are the indications? (4)

A
  1. Subscap release: failed PT (<30deg ER) by 1yo, no glenoid dysplasia
  2. Pec major release +/- lat dorsi transfer: failed PT by 2yo, no glenoid dysplasia
  3. Humeral derotational osteotomy: persistent contracture + glenoid dysplasia
  4. Arthrodesis: nonfunctional deltoid but good hand/wrist fxn
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324
Q

Describe the principles of humeral derotational osteotomy

A

Indication: persistent IR contracture with glenoid dysplasia
Deltopectoral approach
Transverse osteotomy just proximal to deltoid insertion on humerus. Protect radial n just posterior
Position distal humerus in 30deg ER
Plate fixation

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325
Q

Shoulder arthrodesis: what is the position of fusion?

A

30-30-30
Abduction 30 deg
Forward flexion 30deg
IR 30deg
Goal: hand to mouth

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326
Q

In Klumpke’s palsy, what are the treatment options for elbow flexion contracture? (2)

A
  1. Splinting
    - Night time extension splint to prevent progression
    - Elbow extension casting when contracture >40deg
  2. Biceps and brachialis lengthening
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327
Q

In Klumpke’s palsy, what are the treatment options for forearm supination contracture? What is the goal? (2)

A

Goal: 20deg supination. Allows gravity assisted wrist flexion, which aids in digit extension via tenodesis
1. Biceps tendon rerouting transfer: distal insertion rerouted around radial neck and sutured to itself, to act as pronator instead of supinator. Indications: intact passive pronation.
2. Forearm osteotomy and biceps rerouting: when passive pronation is limited

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328
Q

RC: Which of the following is true of obstetric brachioplexopathy?
A. Phrenic n injury is indicative of root avulsion
B. Horner’s is usually associated w upper plexus injury
C. Limited biceps flexion at 3mo is indicative of neurotmesis
D. Neurotmesis is usually repairable

A

Answer: A (phrenic n is indicative of root avulsion)
Root avulsion is preganglionic
Horner’s is associated w lower trunk injuries
2017

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329
Q

What are the risk factors for DHH? (5)

A
  1. First born
  2. Female
  3. Frank breech
  4. Family hx
  5. Oligohydramnios
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330
Q

What is a teratologic hip? What is the treatment?

A

Related to DDH. Dislocated in utero and irreducible. Have pseudoacetabulum
Treatment: open reduction. Don’t use Pavlik or closed reduction

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331
Q

What conditions are associated w a teratologic hip?

A
  1. Arthrogryposis
  2. Lumbosacral agenesis
  3. Diastrophic Dwarfism
  4. Larsen’s
  5. Chromosomal abnormalities
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332
Q

What is the typical acetabular deficiency in DDH? In CP?

A

DDH: anterolateral
CP: Posterosuperior

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333
Q

List the soft tissue blocks to reduction in DDH (7)

A

LLLPPCT
1. Labrum
2. Limbus
3. Ligamentum teres
4. Pulvinar
5. Psoas tendon
6. Capsule
7. Transverse acetab ligament
RC question

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334
Q

List common packaging disorders (7)

A
  1. Congenital torticollis
  2. DDH
  3. Congenital knee dislocation
  4. Posteromedial tibial bowing
  5. Calcaneovalgus foot
  6. Club foot
  7. Metatarsus adductus
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335
Q

After what age are Barlow and Ortolani tests no longer useful?

A

3mo
After this, soft tissue tighten. These tests will not be useful

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336
Q

After 3mo, what is the most sensitive physical exam test for DDH?

A

Decreased hip abduction.
Cannot use Ortolani or Barlow tests after 3mo due to soft tissue tightening

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337
Q

Regarding imaging modalities for DHH, at what age range should you use US? When should you start using XR instead?

A

US useful at 4wks to 4mo
>4mo, use XR. Head ossifies. Can’t see through ossified head on US

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338
Q

What are the treatment options for DDH when the child is <6mo?

A

Pavlik harness is the only option

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339
Q

What are 3 parameters you should measure on US for DDH?

A
  1. Alpha angle: between acetab and ilium. Should be >60deg
  2. Beta angle: between labrum and ilium. Should be <55deg
  3. Head coverage %
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340
Q

RC question: List 6 XR findings of DDH before 6mo old

A

Acetabulum
1. Acetabular Index >25deg
2. Widened teardrop
3. Rounded acetabular corners
Head
4. Delayed femoral head ossification
5. Head not inferomedial to Hilgenreiner and Perkin’s lines
6. Disrupted Shenton’s line
Bonus - coxa valga

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341
Q

What is the Tonnis classification in DDH?

A

XR classification based on femoral head displacement relative to Perkin’s line and superior acetab rim
In DDH, head displaces laterally and superiorly
Grade 1: Head is reduced. Medial to Perkin’s
Grade 2: Lateral to Perkin’s but below acetab rim
Grade 3: Level w acetab rim
Grade 4: above acetab rim

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342
Q

In DDH, what are the implications of increasing Tonnis grade?

A

Each increase in Tonnis grade doubles the likelihood of failing nonop

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343
Q

What is a Pavlik Harness and what movements does it restrict?

A

Dynamic abduction brace. Prevents extension, adduction and IR

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344
Q

What are the indications for using a Pavlik Harness in DDH?

A

<6mo and reducible head

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345
Q

How often should the Pavlik Harness be worn for DDH and what is the duration of treatment?

A

Controversial. Some say wear for 23h/d for 6wks. Then wean out for another 6wks. During treatment, F/U q2mo w repeat exam and US. Continue F/U until maturity for recurrent instability or acetab dysplasia

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346
Q

Describes the straps involved in a Pavlik Harness and how to use them

A

Chest strap: at nipple line
Anterior strap: flexion
Posterior strap: abduction

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347
Q

Describe the ideal positioning of the legs in a Pavlik Harness. What complications are associated w its use?

A

90-100deg flexion, 45deg abduction
Complications include
- Transient femoral n palsy: from hyperflexion. Won’t see kid kicking (knee extension)
- AVN: from hyperabduction >60deg due to impinging on medial femoral circumflex
- Brachial plexus palsy: from shoulder straps

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348
Q

When using a Pavlik Harness, what is the stable zone? What is the safe zone? What can you do to increase them?

A

Stable zone: degrees of abduction between dislocation and max abduction possible
Safe zone: degrees of abduction between dislocation and safe amount of abduction
Can increase your zone w adductor tenotomy to increase abduction

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349
Q

After starting a Pavlik Harness of DDH, when should you followup next and why?

A

Should followup after a week to make sure family is using the harness correctly and see if hip reduced. If hip is not reduced after 3wks, need to stop the harness. Otherwise, risk Pavlik Harness disease

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350
Q

What is Pavlik Harness disease?

A

Develops if harness is worn but hip is not reduced. Dislocated hip causes posterosuperior acetab wear.

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351
Q

RC: A child w DDH is treated in a Pavlik harness and develops femoral n palsy. What is not true?
A. Can present bilaterally
B. Leads to increased need for open procedure
C. 60% resolve spontaneously
D. 2.5% incidence

A

Answer: C
100% resolve spontaneously
Most occur within 1wk. Indeed 2.5% incidence
Risk factors: older kid, larger kid, more severe dysplasia

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352
Q

In DDH, what should you do if the hip remains dislocated with Pavlik Harness?

A

Discontinue if not in hip after 3wks to prevent Pavlik Harness disease. Plan for closed reduction when kid is 4mo (safe for anesthesia)

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353
Q

If the Pavlik Harness is successful in keeping DDH hip reduced, what are some radiographic signs suggesting acetab remodeling? (3)

A
  1. Acetab Index decreases
  2. Smooth horizontal sourcil
  3. U-shaped tear drop
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354
Q

Describe the bony abnormalities in DDH hips (4)

A
  1. Shallow anteverted acetab
  2. Excessive femoral anteversion
  3. Delayed head ossification
  4. Coxa valga
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355
Q

What gait patterns are associated with DDH? (2)

A
  1. Trendelenburg: abductor insufficiency from dislocated hip
  2. Toe walking: compensate for shortened affected side
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356
Q

What are Hilgenreiner’s and Perkin’s lines? Where should the head normally sit in relation?

A

Hilgenreiner: horizontal line through triradiate
Perkin’s line: perpendicular to floor, along lateral acetab edge
Head should be inferomedial to these lines

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357
Q

In the hip, what is Shenton’s line?

A

Arc along femoral neck and obturator foramen. It is discontinuous if hip is dislocated

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358
Q

What is the acetabular index? What does it mean?

A

Angle formed between
- Hilgenreiner’s line
- Line from triradiate to lateral acetab margin
Normal is <25deg
Measures inclination of acetab roof

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359
Q

What is the center edge angle? What does it mean?

A

Angle between
- Vertical line through head
- Line from head center to lateral acetab margin
Normal >20deg
Measures acetab coverage

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360
Q

How does the teardrop sign change in DDH?

A

If subluxed/dislocated, widened. Becomes U-shaped when hip is reduced

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361
Q

What are the treatment options for DDH in kids after failing Pavlik or late presentation?

A
  1. Closed reduction + spica
  2. Open reduction +/- femoral shortening derotational osteotomy +/- pelvic osteotomy
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362
Q

What are the indications and contraindications of closed reduction/spica for DDH?

A

Indications
- Failed Pavlik (Do closed reduction >4mo when safe for anesthesia)
- Presented too late for Pavlik
Contraindication: teratologic hip (needs open reduction)

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363
Q

Describe the principles of closed reduction and spica cast for DDH

A
  • Reduction technique: Ortolani
  • Arthrogram
  • Adductor tenotomy if too tight
  • Spica
  • MRI postop
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364
Q

Describe how to do a hip arthrogram for DDH closed reduction?

A

50/50 mix of radio-opaque dye and NS. Inject 2cc w 18gauge needle
Abduct hip and palpate adductor longus. Place needle inferior to adductor longus at head/neck junction. Aim for ipsilateral shoulder
Assess medial dye pool. If <5mm, likely reduced. If >7mm, not reduced

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365
Q

How is the spica cast positioned for DDH?

A

“Human position”
90deg flexion and 45 abduction. Neutral rotation
(Bonus fact: hip only rotated in spica for proximal femur #. Needs IR)

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366
Q

After successful closed reduction and spica cast application for DDH, what is the followup? How long should the spica be on for? What is the management after?

A

Change spica after 6wks
Should have spica cast on for 3mo
Then abduction brace for 2mo (1mo full time, 1mo night time)

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367
Q

On MRI, how do you determine if the hip is reduced in DDH?

A

Line from pubic rami should intersect w proximal femur metaphysis

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368
Q

Describe the principles of open reduction for DDH

A
  1. Bikini incision, Smith-Pete approach
  2. Identify the true acetabulum: iliopsoas will constrict capsule into hourglass shape. Cut iliopsoas. T capsulotomy
  3. Remove soft tissue blocks to reduction: limbus, lig teres, pulvinar, transverse acetab lig
  4. Reduce head. Should be deep and concentric
    - If all good, do capsulorrhaphy
    - If can’t unable to reduce or tight reduction: do femoral osteotomy
    - If reduced but dysplastic acetab (so reduction is not deep and concentric), do pelvic osteotomy if kid >18mo
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369
Q

Describes the principles for femoral derotational shortening osteotomy in DDH. What are the indications?

A

Indications:
- Unable to reduce hip during open reduction
- Tight fit once reduced. Risk of AVN
- Also corrects excessive femoral anteversion
Technique
- Transverse intertrochanteric osteotomy
- Reduce head + remove overlapping bone
- Derotate anteversion by ER femur
- Fix w 4 hole plate

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370
Q

True or False: femoral shortening osteotomy in DDH reduces AVN rate

A

True. Decreases to 0-10% rate

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371
Q

What are the indications for a pelvic osteotomy in DDH? (2)

A
  1. > 18mo. Unlikely to remodel
  2. Severe dysplasia. High AI and deficient anterolateral coverage
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372
Q

Which pelvic osteotomies are commonly used for DDH? What are your considerations for each? (3)

A
  1. Salter: redirectional, for mild dysplasia. Provides anterolateral coverage but uncovers posteriorly. Don’t do for CP or shallow pelvis
  2. Dega: acetabuloplasty, so for shallow and large acetab. Global coverage, so can use for CP
  3. Pemberton: acetabuloplasty, so for shallow and large acetab. Anterolateral coverage
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373
Q

What are the 3 categories of pelvic osteotomies. Define each

A
  1. Redirectional. Shifts acetabulum but preserves its shape/volume
  2. Acetabuloplasty. Changes acetab shape/volume. Incomplete osteotomies, coverage is w own articular cartilage
  3. Salvage. Changes acetab shape/volume. Uses extra-articular bone to augment existing acetab, forms fibrocartilage
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374
Q

What are the contraindications for redirectional pelvic osteotomies? (2)

A
  1. Shallow acetab
  2. Non-concentric reduction
    (If shallow acetab, better to do acetabuloplasty or salvage)
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375
Q

List the 3 pelvic osteotomies that rely on a cartilaginous hinge

A
  1. Salter: pubic symphysis
  2. Dega: triradiate
  3. Pemberton: triradiate
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376
Q

List the 3 types of redirectional pelvic osteotomies. At what age rage are each typically done and why?

A
  1. Salter: done before 8yo, because requires pubic symphysis as hinge. After 8yo, becomes too stiff
  2. Triple: done in adolescents. Pubic symphysis is too stiff for Salter. Triradiate is still open so can’t do PAO (Ganz)
  3. PAO: done after triradiate fusion because osteotomy goes through triradiate. This is why its a common non-salvage osteotomy done in adults
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377
Q

Which non-salvage pelvic osteotomy can be performed in adults and why?

A

Triple and Ganz
Don’t require mobile pubic symphysis (Salter) or open triradiate (Dega, Pemberton)

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378
Q

What are the indications and contraindications for a Salter pelvic osteotomy? What are the general techniques?

A

Indication: mild dysplasia in kids <8yo (mobile pubic symphysis)
CI: CP DDH due to deficient posterior coverage, shallow acetab
Osteotomy from sciatic notch to above AIIS. Iliac crest bone graft wedge into osteotomy site

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379
Q

What are the indications and contraindications for a Triple pelvic osteotomy? What are the general techniques?

A

Indications: adolescents and older
CI: shallow acetab
Technique: Salter osteotomy and cuts in superior and inferior rami

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380
Q

Which redirectional pelvic osteotomy does not violate the sciatic notch?

A

PAO

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381
Q

What are the indications and contraindications for PAO? What are the general techniques?

A

Indications: closed triradiate
CI: open triradiate. Shallow acetab
Technique: 4 cuts in superior and inferior rami, incomplete cut in ilium between ASIS/AIIS, and vertical in ischium. Doesn’t violate sciatic notch

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382
Q

What are the 2 types of acetabuloplasty?

A

Pemberton and Dega

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383
Q

What are the indications and contraindications for acetabuloplasty? What are the general techniques?

A

Difference between Pemberton and Dega: Pemberton involves only anterolateral roof, Dega involves whole acetab roof (so longer cut)
Indications: shallow acetab requiring shape/volume change
CI: closed triradiate (hinge)
Technique: Incomplete cut from just above AIIS towards sciatic notch, without violating. Wedges placed. No fixation needed

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384
Q

What are the 2 types of salvage pelvic osteotomies?

A

Shelf and Chiari

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385
Q

What are the general principles of a Shelf osteotomy?

A

Provides anterolateral coverage
Strips of bone graft taken from outer ilium. Length determined by desired CEA
Strips are wedged above acetab. Held together by repairing reflected rectus head
Complication: graft may resorb

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386
Q

What are the general principles of a Chiari osteotomy?

A

Provides anterolateral coverage
Osteotomy from sciatic notch to AIIS. Medialize acetabulum. Internal fixation.

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387
Q

What is the definition of coxa vara? What are possible causes?

A

Neck-shaft angle <120deg
3 main causes
- Congenital: associated w PFFD
- Acquired: trauma, infection, SCFE, Perthes
- Developmental: ossification defect in medial femoral neck

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388
Q

What is the cause of developmental coxa vara?

A

Due to ossification defect in medial femoral neck. Unknown etiology
- WB causes progressive varus deformity, which further increases compression at medial neck
- Deformity causes vertical proximal physis. Increases shear force across physis
Presents in early childhood after starting to WB

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389
Q

How do patients present w developmental coxa vara?

A
  • Presenting after walking has begun
  • Painless. Waddling, Trendelenburg gait (coxa vara decreases abductor tension and causes weakness)
  • LLD
  • Prominent (high riding) GT
  • Restricted ROM
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390
Q

What are key XR findings for developmental coxa vara? (5)

A
  1. Neck shaft angle <120
  2. Short femoral neck
  3. Vertical physis
  4. Inverted Y sign - triangular metaphyseal fragment at inferior neck. Pathognomonic
  5. Hilgenreiner-epiphyseal angle. Normal <25. Coxa vara >25
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391
Q

What is the Inverted Y sign on hip XR?

A

AP view. Triangular metaphyseal fragment at the inferior femoral neck. Pathognomonic for developmental coxa vara

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392
Q

What is the Hilgenreiner-epiphyseal angle?

A

For developmental coxa vara
On AP XR. Angle between
- Hilgenreiner’s line
- Line through proximal femoral epiphysis
Normal <25deg
Coxa vara >25deg

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393
Q

How is the Hilgenreiner-epiphyseal angle used to prognosticate developmental coxa vara?

A

Correlates w risk of progression
<45deg: unlikely to progress
45-60: indeterminate
>60: likely to progress

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394
Q

What are the treatment options for developmental coxa vara? What are the indications for each? (2)

A
  1. Observation. Indications: H-E angle <60deg. Should closely follow H-E angles between 45-60deg as risk of progression is indeterminate
  2. VDRO (valgus derotation osteotomy). Indications
    - H-E angle >60deg
    - He angle 45-60 but with Trendelenburg gait, hip abductor fatigue or angle progression
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395
Q

Describe the general principles of valgus derotation osteotomy for developmental coxa vara

A
  • Direct lateral approach
  • Likely need adductor tenotomy
  • Osteotomy: intertroch or subtroch. Do not do at neck (poor outcomes)
  • Overcorrect varus to minimize recurrence
  • Correct version
  • Blade plate
  • Can also do GT epiphysiodesis to prevent recurrence
  • Hip spica x6wks
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396
Q

What is the rate of recurrence after VDRO for developmental coxa vara?

A

Up to 50%. Decrease w overcorrection

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397
Q

What is the rate of premature physeal closure after VDRO for developmental coxa vara?

A

Up to 90% within 2yrs

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398
Q

What is Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?

A

Idiopathic osteonecrosis of the femoral head. Mostly in boys, 5-8yo

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399
Q

Perthes is a diagnosis of exclusion. What is the DDx? (5)

A
  1. Septic hip
  2. Sickle cell
  3. Corticosteroid therapy
  4. Skeletal dysplasia - suspect of both hips at same stage of disease
  5. Mucopolysaccharidoses
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400
Q

What are risk factors and associated conditions of Perthes?

A

Risk factors
1. Famhx
2. Low birth weight
3. Abnormal birth presentation
4. 2nd hand smoke
Associated conditions
1. ADHD (30%)
2. Delayed bone age (90%)

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401
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Perthes?

A
  • Insidious groin pain and limp
  • Limited abduction and IR
  • Mild LLD
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402
Q

What are key XR findings in Perthes? (9)

A
  1. Widened joint space: cartilage grows but no ossification
  2. Crescent sign
  3. Smaller head
  4. Head collapse (loss of height)
    Head at risk signs
  5. Gage sign: V-shaped lucency
  6. Lateral epiphysis calcification
  7. Lateral femoral head subluxation
  8. Horizontal physis
  9. Metaphyseal cyst
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403
Q

What is the Waldenström classification?

A

Radiographic stages of Perthes
1. Initial: sclerotic epiphysis. Widened joint space. Cartilage grows but no ossification
2. Fragmentation: lasts 1yr. Crescent sign from subchondral #. Collapse. Bisphosphonates may help here
3. Reossification
4. Remodeling

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404
Q

RC: What are prognostic factors for Perthes? (10)

A
  1. Age of onset: worse if >8
  2. Gender: worse if female
  3. Extent of head involved. Catterall classification. Extensive = bad
  4. Extend of deformity and joint incongruity. Stulberg classification. Aspherical, noncongruous = bad
  5. Extent of subchondral resorption. Salter-Thompson classification. Crescent sign >50% of head = bad
  6. > 2 Catterall head at risk signs
  7. Lateral pillar height (aka Herring classification). Herring C = bad
  8. Premature physeal closure
  9. Stiff ROM
  10. > 20% hip extruded
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405
Q

What is the Stulberg classification?

A

For Perthes disease. There is a relationship between femoral head shape and early OA risk.
1: normal
2: minor head change
3: aspherical head
4: Flattened head, congruous acetab
5: Collapsed head, noncongruous acetab
Poor interobserver reliability. Can’t determine until skeletal maturity

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406
Q

What is the Salter-Thompson classification?

A

Based on radiographic crescent sign
Class A: crescent sign involves <50% femoral head
Class B: crescent sign involves >50%

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407
Q

What is the Catterall classification?

A

Extent of head involvement at fragmentation stage. Classified as groups
1: anterior epiphysis only
2: anterior and central epiphysis
3: most of epiphysis, sparing posteromedial corner
4: total head

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408
Q

What are the Caterall head at risk signs? (5)

A
  1. Gage sign: v-shaped lucency at lateral epiphyseal/metaphyseal junction
  2. Lateral epiphysis calcification
  3. Lateral femoral head subluxation
  4. Horizontal physis
  5. Metaphyseal cyst
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409
Q

What is the lateral pillar (Herring) classification?

A

Height of lateral third of epiphysis. Has best interobserver agreement
A: full height. Good outcome
B: 50 - 100% height. Poor outcome if >8yo
B/C: 50%
C: <50% height. Poor outcome in all

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410
Q

Which classification systems are to be used for the fragmentation stage of Perthes? (3)

A
  1. Salter-Thompson: crescent sign
  2. Caterall: head involvement
  3. Lateral pillar (Herring): height
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411
Q

The treatment for Perthes disease is for which stage?

A

Fragmentation. Reossification and remodeling stages don’t need treatment

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412
Q

What are the indications for nonoperative management of Perthes? General principles?

A

Indications: <6yo or lateral pillar A
Activity restriction
Protected WB until reossification
Bracing/orthotics are not helpful

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413
Q

What are the outcomes for kids <8yo with Perthes?

A

Kids <6yo do well without treatment if lateral pillar A, B or B/C
Most end up w Stulberg 1 or 2 at maturity. 80% good outcome
Did poorly if pillar C

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414
Q

Generally, what are the indications for operative management in Perthes? (3)

A
  1. > 8yo
  2. Herring B
  3. Herring B/C
    Kids <8yo all do well w nonop except if Herring C
    All kids w Herring C do poorly regardless of treatment
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415
Q

What are the operative options for Perthes? What are the indications? (2)

A
  1. Femoral varus osteotomy +/- pelvic osteotomy
    Indications: head extrusion in kids >8yo or B, B/C
    Make varus to reposition in acetab.
    Pelvic osteotomies: salter, triple, Dega or Pemberton
  2. Femoral valgus osteotomy +/- salvage pelvic osteotomy
    Indications: head extrusion + painful hinging during abduction
    Salvage osteotomies: shelf or Chiari
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416
Q

What femoral head deformities are associated with Perthes? (2)

A
  1. Coxa magna: wider head and bigger acetab. Due to overexaggerated healing
  2. Coxa plana: flat head
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417
Q

What is the epiphyseal slip-in index? How do you measure it?

A

Measure w arthrography. Used to determine if VDRO would be beneficial
Place hip in 40deg abduction to mimic hip position after varus osteotomy
Index is ratio between
- Horizontal distance from lateral acetab rim to tip of epiphysis
- Horizontal distance from tear drop to lateral acetab rim
ESI <20% = head won’t be well contained after VDRO. Poor outcomes w VDRO
ESI >20% = head will be contained. Good outcomes w VDRO
Well contained head after VDRO is important for remodelling into spherical head

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418
Q

RC: Which of these patients is least likely to benefit from a VDRO?
A. 8yo w Herring B
B. 7yo w lateralized hip
C. Epiphyseal slip index >20%
D. Performing the osteotomy during initial or fragmentation phase

A

Answer: B
This is the best answer but it depends on the situation. If it is a lateralized hip that causes hinge abduction, then the pt would benefit from a valgus osteotomy. If it is a lateralized hip that can be contained w a VDRO (check w arthrogram and hip in 40deg abduction), then VDRO would still be useful
The other choices would benefit more though
2018, 2016

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419
Q

What are the complications associated w Perthes? (6)

A
  1. Femoral head deformity: coxa magna and plana
  2. Lateral hip subluxation from extrusion. May cause hinge abduction
  3. Premature physeal arrest
  4. OA
  5. Acetab dysplasia
  6. FAI and labral injury
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420
Q

What is SCFE and in what direction is the slip?

A

Femoral neck metaphysis displaced anterior and superiorly compared to epiphysis

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421
Q

What is the leg position in SCFE? What motions are limited?

A

Leg is in extension, varus (adduction), ER
Limited FABIR (flexion, abduction, IR)

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422
Q

List risk factors for SCFE (11)

A
  1. Obesity: single greatest risk
  2. Male
  3. Ethnicity: Blacks, Pacific Islanders
  4. Peak growth velocity (12 in girls, 14 in boys)
  5. Younger age: risk factor for bilateral slip
    Anatomic variants that increase shear force
  6. Femoral anteversion
  7. Decreased neck-shaft angle
  8. Physeal obliquity. More vertical = bad
    Other conditions
  9. Previous radiation
  10. Endo disorders
  11. Down syndrome
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423
Q

What endocrine disorders are associated with SCFE? (6)

A
  1. Hypothyroidism
  2. Growth hormone
  3. Renal osteodystrophy
  4. Panhypopituitarism
  5. Hypo or hyperparathyroidism
  6. Hypogonadism
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424
Q

Who should have an endocrine workup for SCFE? (2)

A
  1. <10yo
  2. Weight <50 percentile
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425
Q

What zone of the physis does SCFE affect?

A

Hypertrophic zone

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426
Q

What are the classification systems for SCFE? (4)

A
  1. Traditional: based on duration. Pre-slip, acute, chronic, acute on chronic
  2. Loder: ability to WB
  3. % Displacement
  4. Southwick angle
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427
Q

What is the Loder classification?

A

For SCFE. Based on ability to WB and correlates w AVN risk
- Stable: able to WB, even if need crutches. 10% AVN risk
- Unstable. Unable to WB. 50% AVN risk

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428
Q

What is the % displacement classification for SCFE?

A

Displacement of epiphysis relative to metaphysis
Mild: <33%
Moderate: 33-50%
Severe: >50%

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429
Q

What is the Southwick Angle Classification for SCFE?

A

Difference in epiphyseal-shaft angle between both sides, on frog-leg latera XR
Normal: 12deg
Mild: <30deg
Moderate: 30-50deg
Severe: >50deg

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430
Q

What is the clinical presentation of SCFE?

A
  1. Pain: groin, knee
  2. Limited ROM in FABIR: flexion, abduction, IR
  3. Prefer sitting w affected leg crossed over the other
  4. Drehman sign: obligatory hip ER w passive flexion
  5. Foot is ER on foot progression
  6. Trendelenburg gait
  7. LLD
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431
Q

What is the best XR view to detect subtle SCFE slips?

A

Frogleg lateral

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432
Q

What are key XR findings in SCFE? (3)

A
  1. Klein’s line
  2. Physeal widening
  3. Blurred metaphysis: aka blanch sign of Steel. Due to overlapping metaphysis and epiphysis
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433
Q

What is Klein’s line?

A

For SCFE. Line along superior femoral neck should intersect the epiphysis. In SCFE, the epiphysis is flush or below line

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434
Q

What is the primary goal of SCFE treatment?

A

Prevent progression
Longterm followup shows that remodeling occurs after insitu fixation
For very severe slips, some may correct the slip, but still controversial

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435
Q

What are the treatment options for SCFE? Treatment for residual deformity later?

A
  • In situ perc pinning
  • Modified Dunn
  • Contralateral prophylactic pinning
    Residual deformity: proximal femur osteotomy
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436
Q

Describe the reduction maneuver for SCFE in situ pinning

A

None. Trick question. There is no closed reduction.
There is serendipitous reduction when positioning on table

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437
Q

For in situ pinning of SCFE, 1 screw is sufficient. Why are the advantages and disadvantages of using 2 screws?

A

Advantage: slightly more stable
Disadvantages
1. Violates physis more
2. Difficult to assess joint violation
3. Increased AVN risk, as more likely to violate lateral epiphyseal vessels
4. Labral tear, seen when 2nd screw used and penetrates anterosuperior quadrant

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438
Q

Describe the technique for SCFE in situ pinning

A
  • Serendipitous reduction while positioning on radiolucent table
  • Start at anterior neck. Aim posterosuperior into epiphysis
  • 6.5 or 7.3 cannulated screw
  • Approach-withdraw on fluoro to assess joint penetration
  • Postop: WB if stable, NWB if unstable
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439
Q

Describe ideal screw positioning w SCFE in situ pinning

A

Center of epiphysis
Perpendicular to physis
Cross physis w 5 screws
6.5 or 7.3 cannulated screws. Fully threaded easer to remove later

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440
Q

What are the goals and indications for the modified Dunn for SCFE management?

A

Goal: surgical hip dislocation for capital realignment. Severe slips may not remodel adequately. May lead to limited ROM and FAI
Indication: severe slips

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441
Q

Describe the technique for the modified Dunn procedure for SCFE

A
  • Gibson approach
  • Surgical hip dislocation w z-capsulotomy
  • Develop retinacular flaps. Epiphysis will remain attached to posterior flap (blood supply)
  • Starting anteriorly, free the epiphysis from the metaphysis
  • Debride callus from along posterior metaphysis to allow reduction and prevent retinaculum from kinking
  • Reduce epiphysis + fix
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442
Q

What is the main complications w the modified Dunn procedure for SCFE?

A

AVN

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443
Q

Indications for contralateral prophylactic pinning in SCFE? (6)

A

High risk patients or risk of loss to followup
1. Obese male
2. Endocrine disorder
3. Down syndrome
4. Initial slip at younger age (<10yo). Literature: younger kids more likely to have bilateral SCFE
5. Open triradiate: indicates younger
6. Unreliable followup (lives in remote area, etc)

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444
Q

Describe the management of residual deformity for SCFE. Indications? Procedure?

A

Need corrective osteotomy. Can be intertrochanteric or subtrochanteric. Avoid neck osteotomy as risk of AVN
Indications: painful or function-limiting deformity
Fix w blade plate
Correction needed (FABIR)
- Flexion
- Valgus (abduction)
- IR

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445
Q

What are the risk factors for AVN for SCFE? (3)

A
  1. High grade slips
  2. Attempts at reduction
  3. Hardware in posterosuperior neck
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446
Q

What complications are associated with SCFE? (5)

A
  1. Femoral head osteonecrosis
  2. Contralateral SCFE
  3. Residual hip deformity
  4. Slip progression
  5. Labral tear from additional 2nd screw during in situ fixation
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447
Q

What other conditions are associated w congenital knee dislocation? (4)

A
  1. Myelomeningocele
  2. Arthrogryposis
  3. Larsen’s
  4. Packaging disorders
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448
Q

What is the clinical presentation of congenital knee dislocation? What key physical examinations must be done?

A

Hyperextended knee at birth
Assess passive flexion as it determines treatment
R/O DDH

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449
Q

What is the incidence of ipsilateral hip dislocation in congenital knee dislocation?

A

70 to 100%

450
Q

If a baby has both DDH and congenital knee dislocation, which should be treated first?

A

Treat congenital knee dislocation first. Can’t place in Pavlik if knee doesn’t bend

451
Q

What is the Tarek classification?

A

For congenital knee dislocation
Grade 1: >90deg passive flexion. On XR, appears as recurvatum
Grade 2: 30-90deg passive flexion. On XR: subluxated or dislocated
Grade 3: <30deg passive flexion. On XR: dislocated

452
Q

What are the treatment options for congenital knee dislocation? What are the indications?

A
  1. Reduction and casting for Tarek grade 1
  2. Soft tissue release: Tarek grade 2 or 3, recurrence after casting
453
Q

Describe the goals and technique for soft tissue release in congenital knee dislocation

A

Goal: 90deg flexion
Quads: recession or V-Y lengthening
Anterior capsule release
Hamstring posterior transposition
Postop: cast in 60 flexion x4wks

454
Q

In congenital patella dislocation, what direction is the dislocation?

A

Lateral initially. Later, w worsening genu valgum, will dislocate posteriorly

455
Q

At what age does the patella ossify?

A

3-5yo

456
Q

What osseous abnormalities are associated w congenital patella dislocation? (3)

A
  1. Small/absent patella
  2. Hypoplastic trochlea
  3. External tibial torsion
457
Q

What soft tissue abnormalities are associated w congenital patella dislocation?

A
  1. Tight lateral structures (IT band, lateral retinaculum)
  2. Tight quads: causes superior subluxation
458
Q

What conditions are associated w congenital patella dislocation? (5)

A
  1. Larsen
  2. Arthrogryposis
  3. Diastrophic dysplasia
  4. Nail-patella syndrome
  5. Down syndrome
459
Q

What is the clinical presentation of congenital patella dislocation? (5)

A
  1. Delayed walking
  2. Genu valgum
  3. Posterior patella dislocation: with enough genu valgum. Then quads act as knee flexors
  4. Knee flexion contracture
  5. Small patella
460
Q

What is the treatment of congenital patella dislocation?

A

Need OR. Cannot treat nonop
Andrish technique: maybe look into this? I didn’t

461
Q

What is a bipartite patella? What is the most common location for the accessory fragment?

A

Congenital failure of fusion. Most common is superolateral fragment
Usually asymptomatic

462
Q

A bipartite patella is asymptomatic. In what situation may it cause persistent pain?

A

Trauma. Either direct, indirect or from jumping activities. Disrupts fibrocartilaginous zone between the accessory fragment and main patella. Zone can’t heal by bony union, so causes persistent pain

463
Q

How do you differentiate a bipartite patella from a patella #?

A

Bipartite patella is:
- Located superolaterally usually
- Smooth, rounded borders
- Bilateral in 50%

464
Q

What is the best XR view to visualize a bipartite patella?

A

AP view

465
Q

How do you an a weight-bearing and non weight-bearing skyline view for a bipartite patella? What are you looking for?

A

NWB view: do prone
WB view: do while squatting
Look for fragment displacement on WB view

466
Q

Why may you MRI a bipartite patella?

A

Assess if it is the source of pain
Will see edema around the fragment if it’s the cause

467
Q

What is the nonoperative treatment for bipartite patella?

A

Immobilize in brace at 30deg flexion. NSAIDs. PT for isometric quads strengthening

468
Q

What are the operative treatment options for bipartite patella? (5)

A
  1. Open excision accessory fragment. For failed nonop >6mo or significant displacement after trauma
  2. Arthroscopic excision: case reports on this. May disrupt less quads tendon
  3. Lateral retinacular release: for superolateral fragment to remove traction force from vastus lat
  4. Vastus lateralis release: for superolateral fragment. To avoid long retinacular release, which may cause maltracking
  5. ORIF: for large fragments. Controversial. Limited reports
469
Q

What complications are associated w bipartite patella? (5)

A
  1. Patellofemoral maltracking: due to excising large fragment or retinacular release
  2. Degenerative changes of patellofemoral joint if maltracking
  3. Persistent knee pain
  4. Quads weakness
  5. Osteonecrosis
470
Q

Pediatric proximal tibia metaphyseal #s are common in what age group? What is the mechanism of injury?

A

Ages 3-6yo
Low energy valgus force. Usually going down slide in lap of adult. Knee extended and gets caught

471
Q

What is the treatment for pediatric proximal tibia metaphyseal #s? (2)

A
  1. Long leg cast w varus mold. May need closed reduction if displaced
  2. Open reduction. Rare. Indicated if unable to reduce due to interposed tissue. May supplement w K-wires, then long leg cast
472
Q

What complications are associated w pediatric proximal tibial metaphyseal #s? (2)

A
  1. Cozen phenomenon
  2. LLD: affected tibia is longer, usually <1cm
473
Q

What is the incidence of Cozen phenomenon? When does it develop? When is the deformity the worst? What is the prognosis?

A

50-90% incidence
Deformity develops 5-15mo after injury
Deformity is worst at 18mo
Most self resolve

474
Q

What are the risk factors for Cozen phenomenon? (4)

A
  1. Incomplete reduction
  2. Concomitant injury to proximal tibial physis
  3. Infolded periosteum
  4. Injury to pes insertion. Causes loss of medial physeal tether (?) and results in asymmetric growth
475
Q

What are the treatment options for Cozen phenomenon? (2)

A
  1. Observation. Most will resolve by 3yrs
  2. Operative: guided growth or proximal tibial osteotomy. Indicated if >15deg deformity and near maturity
476
Q

What is Blount’s disease? What age group is typical for infantile vs adolescent Blount’s

A

Osteochondrosis at proximal medial tibial physis that may progress to physeal bar. Due to overloading. Results in decreased growth at posteromedial corner of proximal physis. Causes varus deformity
Infantile: 2-5yo
Adolescent: >10yo

477
Q

True or false: infantile Blount’s is more severe than adolescent

A

TRUE

478
Q

What is the tibia deformity associated w Blount’s?

A

Affects posteromedial proximal physis. Results in:
- Varus
- Procurvatum
- Internal rotation
- Posteromedial sloping at proximal epiphysis

479
Q

What are risk factors for infantile Blount’s disease? (3)

A
  1. Early walking
  2. Obesity
  3. Ethnicity: Hispanic, black
480
Q

What is the DDx of genu varum? (6)

A
  1. Persistent physiologic varus
  2. Proximal tibial physeal injury: infection, trauma, radiation
  3. Metabolic bone disease (rickets, renal osteodystrophy, hypophosphatasia)
  4. OI
  5. Skeletal dysplasia (MED, SED)
  6. Focal fibrocartilaginous defect
481
Q

What are the clinical findings in infantile Blount’s? (7)

A
  1. Varus
  2. Procurvatum
  3. Internal rotation
  4. Compensatory distal femur valgus if advanced
  5. Palpable medial prominence - from beaking
  6. LLD if unilateral Blount’s
  7. Gait: lateral thrust
482
Q

What is the Langenskiold Classification?

A

Stages of infantile Blount’s disease, based on XR
Stages 1-4: worsening medial metaphyseal beaking and sloping
Stages 5-6: physeal bar formation

483
Q

True or False: infantile Blount’s disease can spontaneously resolve

A

True.
Common in Langenskiold stage 2
Possible in stage 4

484
Q

What are XR findings in infantile Blount’s? (6)

A
  1. Asymmetric bowing: if symmetric, suspect skeletal dysplasia
  2. Narrowed medial epiphysis
  3. Medial joint depression
  4. Medial metaphyseal beaking
  5. Medial and posterior sloping
  6. Metaphyseal-diaphyseal (Drennan) angle
485
Q

What is the metaphyseal-diaphyseal (Drennan) angle?

A

Differentiate between physiologic varus vs infantile Blount’s
Angle between:
- Line perpendicular to longitudinal axis
- Line connecting metaphyseal beak
<10deg: physiologic. 95% resolve
10-16deg: indeterminate. Follow closely
>16deg: Blount. 95% progression

486
Q

What is the nonoperative treatment for infantile Blount’s? What are the indications?

A

KAFO until bony changes resolve (usually in 2yrs)
Indications, must be all of the following:
- <3yo
- Unilateral
- Langenskiold 1/2

487
Q

What are the indications for operative management in infantile Blount’s? (3)

A
  1. Age >4yo: no longer physiologic varus, no matter the Langenskiold stage
  2. Langenskiold stage 3+, no matter the age
  3. Metaphyseal-epiphyseal (Drennan) angle >16
488
Q

What are the operative options for infantile Blount’s disease? (2)

A
  1. High tibial osteotomy
  2. Physeal bar resection
489
Q

What are the operative options for adolescent Blount’s? (4)

A
  1. High tibial osteotomy
  2. Physeal bar resection
  3. Epiphysiodesis
  4. Medial plateau elevation
490
Q

Why do most kids require high tibial osteotomy in infantile Blount’s?

A

Need to unload the medial physis or it won’t grow. As such, guided growth or physeal bar resection won’t be very effective. As per Heuter-Volkman law, physis under compression won’t grow
Can do guided growth, physeal bar resection and hemiplateau elevation in addition to osteotomy

491
Q

Describe technique for high tibial osteotomy for infantile Blount’s

A
  • Osteotomy inferior to tubercle. Dome osteotomy, w apex of dome inferior like a smiley face
  • Overcorrect to 10deg valgus to offload medial side
  • Laterally translate to lateralize mechanical axis
  • ER to correct internal rotation
  • Pin fixation w Steinman pins
  • Do physeal bar resection if stage 5/6
  • Long leg cast
492
Q

What complications are associated w tibial osteotomy for infantile Blount’s? (4)

A
  1. Compartment syndrome
  2. Peroneal n injury
  3. Delayed union or malunion
  4. Recurrence. Increased risk if osteotomy done <4yo
493
Q

What are the indications for hemiplateau elevation in Blount’s?

A

For older kids only after proximal tibial physis has fused. Requires intra-articular osteotomy.
Place graft under to elevate.

494
Q

What are the risk factors for adolescent Blount’s?

A

Obesity

495
Q

What is the distal femur deformity in infantile and adolescent Blount’s?

A

Infantile - compensatory distal femur valgus
Adolescent - varus

496
Q

True or False: adolescent Blount’s can resolve spontaneously?

A

False. Will progress. Thus, bracing not considered.
Only infantile can resolve spontaneously in stages 2 and 4

497
Q

True or False: the treatment for adolescent Blount’s is always surgery

A

True. Bracing is not effective.

498
Q

What is the rate of bilaterality in infantile and adolescent Blount’s?

A

Infantile: 50%
Adolescent: rare

499
Q

RC: A 10yo has stage 5 Blount’s disease. Which of the following is least likely to correct axial alignment?
A. Tibial hemiplateau elevation
B. Proximal tibial osteotomy
C. Proximal tibial epiphysiolysis
D. Tibial plateau varus producing osteotomy

A

Answer: A. Hemiplateau elevation

500
Q

RC: A 10yo w stage 5 Blount’s disease and has depression of the medial tibial plateau. Which of the following options would be least helpful?
A. Distal femoral osteotomy for compensatory valgus deformity
B. Proximal tibial epiphysiodesis
C. Varus correcting proximal tibial osteotomy w medial plateau elevation

A

Answer: A (distal femoral)

501
Q

RC: There is no debate that surgical treatment is required for adolescent Blount’s disease. What is true about guided growth?
A. Treatment has poor results in children over 12yo
B. Poor outcomes if BMI >35
C. It is associated w a high rate of hardware failure
D. A limited amount of growth remaining limits the utility of this treatment

A

Answer: D
Guided growth requires growth remaining and no physeal bar
2016

502
Q

True or False: in idiopathic pediatric genu valgum, the deformity is often at the distal femur?

A

TRUE

503
Q

What should you observe in 7yo kids in regards in genu valgum? (3)

A
  1. Valgus should not increase
  2. Should be <12deg valgus
  3. Intermalleolar distance should be <8cm
504
Q

What are the indications for observation in pediatric genu valgum?

A

Valgus <15deg and age <6yo

505
Q

What are the indications for operative treatment of pediatric genu valgum? (2)

A
  1. In <10yo, valgus >15deg
  2. In >10yo, mechanical axis falls in lateral quadrant of tib plateau
506
Q

What are the operative options for pediatric genu valgum? (2)

A
  1. Hemiepiphysiodesis. Femur and/or tibia depending on situation
  2. Distal femur varus osteotomy
    Decision depends on whether there is sufficient growth left
507
Q

When performing a hemiepiphysiodesis, how do you avoid injuring the physis?

A

Place the staple/8 plate/whatever extra-periosteally

508
Q

How do you prevent peroneal n injury when performing a distal femur varus osteotomy for genu valgum? (3)

A
  1. Pre-emptive peroneal n release
  2. Gradual correction
  3. Closing-wedge technique
509
Q

What is rickets?

A

Qualitative defect in bone mineralization due to inadequate PO4 and Ca. Occurs before maturity
Osteomalacia is the same disease but after maturity

510
Q

What zone of the physis is affected in rickets?

A

Zone of provisional calcification, in the hypertrophic zone

511
Q

What is the clinical presentation of rickets? (7)

A
  1. Hypotonia
  2. Waddling gait
  3. Genu varum
  4. Tibial bowing
  5. Rachitic rosary
  6. Abnormal dentition
  7. Pathologic #
512
Q

What are XR findings in rickets? (8)

A
  1. Physeal widening
  2. Metaphyseal cupping
  3. Poor bone density
  4. Genu varum
  5. Rachitic rosary: at osteochondral junction in ribs
  6. Codfish vertebra: biconcave vertebral body
  7. Cat back: kyphosis
  8. Looser’s zones: insufficiency # seen on compression side of bone. Common at proximal femur, ribs, ulna, rami
513
Q

What is the function of vitamin D?

A

Kidneys: Ca resorption, PO4 excretion
Bone: differentiate osteoclasts. osteoblasts mineralize bone
GI: Ca and PO4 absorption
Net effect: Increased Ca and PO4

514
Q

What are the types of rickets?

A
  1. Vitamin D resistant: familial hypophosphatemic
  2. VitD deficient: nutritional
  3. VitD dependent
515
Q

What is vitamin D resistant rickets? At what age does it present? What is the treatment?

A

AKA familial hypophosphatemic
Most common heritable rickets
Presents at ~1yo
X-linked dominant: PHEX gene
Net effect is decreased PO4 absorption and decreased VitD activation
Treatment: calcitriol and PO4 replacement

516
Q

What is the active form of vitamin D? What enzyme activates vitD?

A

Calcitriol (1,25-OH2-VitD3)
Enzyme: 25-OH-1α- hydroxylase

517
Q

What lab abnormality is seen in vitamin D resistant rickets?

A

Decreased PO4

518
Q

What is the function of phosphate?

A

Key bone mineral (as hydroxyapatite)
Homeostasis: resorbed and excreted by kidneys
Low PO4 causes vitD activation in kidneys
High PO4 results in:
- Increased PTH
- Bone resorption to increase Ca
- VitD inactivation

519
Q

What are the sources of calcitriol?

A
  • Dietary
  • Conversion from liver and kidney
    Note: sunlight will convert vitamin D to D3, which still needs to be converted to calcitriol in the liver or kidney
520
Q

At what age does VitD deficient rickets present? What are the risk factors? What is the treatment?

A

Nutritional deficiency. Rare now that vitD is added to milk
Presents at 6mo-3yo
Risk factors
- Premature
- >6mo breastfed without supplementation
- Malabsorption (like celiac)
- Chronic parenteral nutrition
- Vegetarian
Treatment: vitamin D (not necessarily calcitriol)

521
Q

What lab abnormality is seen in VitD deficient rickets?

A

Low Vitamin D, low Ca, Low PO4
Rationale: low vitD in take. The net effect of vitD is to increase Ca and PO4 absorption from the gut, but this does not happen

522
Q

What is vitamin D dependent rickets?

A

Autosomal recessive. 2 types. Both present w hypotonia, growth failure and hypocalcemic seizures
Type 1: joint deformity and fractures in infancy
- Lack 25-OH-1α- hydroxylase to convert to calcitriol
- Treatment: calcitriol
Type 2: bone pain and dental caries/hypoplasia
- Mutated calcitriol receptor
- Treatment: vitamin D

523
Q

What lab abnormality is seen in type 1 vitamin D dependent rickets?

A

Low calcitriol, low Ca, Low PO4
Rationale: lack enzyme to convert vitD to calcitriol
The net effect of vitD is to increase Ca and PO4 absorption from the gut, but this does not happen

524
Q

What lab abnormality is seen in type 2 vitamin D dependent rickets?

A

High calcitriol, low Ca, low PO4
Defective calcitriol receptor so the body makes more to have an effect. But no effect so gut doesn’t absorb Ca and PO4

525
Q

RC: What is true regarding the inheritance of x-linked hypophosphatemic rickets?
A. If the father has the disease, 50% of his children will get it
B. If the mother has the disease, 100% of sons will get it
C. If the father has the disease, 100% of daughters will get it
D. If the mother has the disease, 75% of the daughters will get it

A

Answer: C
You need to know that vitamin D resistant (hypophosphatemic) rickets is x-linked dominant. PHEX gene
2016

526
Q

What is hypophosphatasia?

A

Metabolic bone disease due to mutation in TNSALP. Autosomal recessive.
Decreased alkaline phosphatase activity results in poor bone mineralization. Ca and PO4 accumulate

527
Q

What lab abnormality is seen in hypophosphatasia?

A

Low ALP, high Ca, high PO4
Poor ALP activity. So Ca and PO4 don’t form hydroxyapatite in bone

528
Q

What is the clinical presentation of hypophosphatasia?

A

Genu varum
Abnormal dentition

529
Q

What zone of the physis is affected by hypophosphatasia?

A

Hypertrophic zone. Zone of provisional calcification doesn’t form

530
Q

What are XR findings in hypophosphatasia? (3)

A
  1. Genu varum
  2. Physeal widening
  3. Deossification of bone next to physis
531
Q

What is renal osteodystrophy? Describe the pathophysiology

A

Metabolic bone disease due to chronic renal disease. Causes poor bone mineralization. Main pathophysiology:
- Hyperphosphatemia: damaged kidney doesn’t excrete PO4, accumulates
- Hypocalcemia: High PO4 inactivates calcitriol so Ca not absorbed in GI or kidney
- Secondary hyperparathyroidism: due to low Ca and high PO4. Initially a good adaptation. Increases bone resorption to increase Ca. Increases PO4 excretion from kidneys.
Eventually, kidney function becomes so poor that not enough PO4 excreted. Net effect of PTH becomes just bone resorption

532
Q

What lab abnormality is seen in renal osteodystrophy?

A

Low Ca
High PO4 and PTH

533
Q

What is a Brown tumor?

A

AKA osteitis fibrosa cystica. Lytic bone lesion due to hyperparathyroidism
Seen in renal osteodystrophy due to secondary hyperparathyroidism.
Not actually neoplastic

534
Q

What are the 3 types of tibial bowing? What is the differential Dx of each?

A
  1. Anterolateral
    - NF
    - Congenital tibial pseudarthrosis
    - Tibial deficiency
  2. Anteromedial: fibular deficiency
  3. Posteromedial: physiologic
535
Q

What are the types of neurofibromatosis?

A

NF-1: most common
NF-2: assoc w bilateral vestibular schwannomas

536
Q

What is the inheritance of NF-1?

A

Autosomal dominant
50% inherited
50% spontaneous mutation
Mutation on chromosome 17

537
Q

What are typical extremity manifestations of neurofibromatosis? (5)

A
  1. Anterolateral bowing
  2. Tibial pseudarthrosis
  3. Hemihypertrophy
  4. Forearm: bowing and obliteration of medullary cavity
  5. Ulnar or radial pseudarthrosis
538
Q

What are common spine manifestations of neurofibromatosis? (3)

A
  1. Scoliosis: key word is dystrophic
  2. Kyphosis
  3. Atlantoaxial instability
539
Q

What is the most common skeletal manifestation of NF?

A

Scoliosis

540
Q

What tumors are associated w neurofibromatosis? (3)

A
  1. Neurofibroma, plexiform type. Pathognomonic. May transform into neurofibrosarcoma
  2. Wilms tumor
  3. Verrucous hyperplasia: oral mucosa. May transform into carcinoma
541
Q

What is the NIH diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis? (7)

A

Requires 2 of the following:
1. Café-au-lait spots: 6+
- Prepuberty: >5mm
- Post puberty: >15mm
2. Lisch nodules: 2+. These are iris hamartomas
3. Optic glioma
4. Axillary or inguinal freckling
5. Neurofibromas: 2 of any type or 1 plexiform type
6. Osseous involvement
7. First degree relative w NF1

542
Q

What is the incidence of tibial bowing in neurofibromatosis? What is the rate of NF in those w tibial bowing?

A

5-10% NF have bowing (anterolateral)
50% w bowing have NF

543
Q

In kids w anterolateral tibial bowing, what factor determines if treatment will be operative vs nonoperative?

A

Presence of pseudarthrosis or #
No pseudarthrosis = bracing is ok

544
Q

What is the nonoperative treatment for anterolateral bowing. What are the indications? What is the goal?

A

Bracing. Indicated when there is bowing without pseudarthrosis or #
Options: clamshell orthosis or patellar tendon bearing orthosis
Goal: prevent pseudarthrosis

545
Q

True or False: osteotomy of anterolateral bowing is indicated to correct deformity?

A

False. Osteotomy is contraindicated. High risk of not healing and coming pseudarthrosis

546
Q

What are the surgical options for managing anterolateral bowing? What are the indications?

A

Surgical management indicated for pseudarthrosis. Options:
1. Surgical fixation w IM device
2. Amputation

547
Q

Describe the principles of surgical fixation in tibial pseudarthrosis

A

IM fixation is key
- Resect pseudarthrosis and bone graft
- IM rod for tibia, either fixed length or telescoping
- Fibula often has pseudarthrosis too. IM fixation w flexinail
- Synostosis of tibia and fibula to increase healing. Place screws to connect them, such as across the syndesmosis
- Take periosteum graft and wrap around pseudarthrosis site to increase healing

548
Q

What are common bone graft options for tibial pseudarthrosis? (2)

A
  1. Iliac crest
  2. Vascularized fibular graft from contralateral leg (Farmer’s procedure)
549
Q

What is are common complications after surgical fixation of tibial pseudarthrosis? (3)

A
  1. Recurrent #: in 50% even after initial union
  2. Valgus deformity
  3. LLD at maturity: average 5cm
550
Q

What are the amputation options for tibial pseudarthrosis?

A
  1. Syme amputation. Indicated in a very short leg. Fix pseudarthrosis for prosthesis fitting
  2. Amputation at pseudarthrosis. Indicated when persistent motion after multiple failed attempts at fixation
551
Q

What are common XR findings in a spine w neurofibromatosis? (3)

A
  1. Vertebral scalloping: erosion due to dural ectasia or intraspinal neurofibroma
  2. Rib pencilling. Poor prognosis for scoliosis. Rapid curve progression if >3 ribs affected
  3. Enlarged foramina: due to neurofibroma
552
Q

Why is a spine MRI always needed preop in neurofibromatosis? What are typical findings?

A

R/O tumors. Neurofibromas are vascular and present a bleeding risk
Findings:
- Dural ectasia: dural sac dilation that erodes bone. Vertebral scalloping
- Dumbbell lesion: neurofibroma that expands through foramina

553
Q

What are the types of scoliosis in NF?

A
  1. Dystrophic
  2. Nondystrophic
554
Q

What is dystrophic scoliosis? What are the types?

A

In NF spine
- Presents earlier
- Rapid progression
- Short segment, involving 4-6 vers
- Sharp curve
- Thoracic kyphosis
2 types of dystrophic scoli based on degree of kyphosis
Type 1: kyphosis <50deg
Type 2: kyphosis >50deg

555
Q

What are risk factors for the progression of dystrophic scoliosis in NF-1?

A

Dystrophic features increase the risk of progression
- Rib pencilling
- Vertebral wedging
- Para or intraspinal masses
- Vertebral scalloping
- Enlarged foramina w defective pedicles
However, the only independent risk factor is rib pencilling
Degree of kyphosis possibly is a risk factor
Curve severity is not a risk factor

556
Q

What is the treatment for nondystrophic scoliosis in NF?

A

Treat as if idiopathic scoli based on age (infantile vs adolescent, etc)

557
Q

True or False: bracing is effective for dystrophic scoliosis in NF?

A

False. Not effective

558
Q

What are the treatment options for dystrophic scoliosis in NF? What are the indications?

A
  1. Observation if <20deg curve. F/U Q6mo
  2. Fusion if >20deg
559
Q

What are the principles of spinal fusion for dystrophic scoliosis in NF?

A

Perform early, before 7yo
Anterior and posterior fusion for:
- Greater correction
- Decreases pseudarthrosis rate from 40% w posterior alone to 10% w A + P

560
Q

RC: All of the following about neurofibromatosis scoliosis are true except:
A. In a dystrophic curve, the Cobb ankle is not predictive of progression
B. Dystrophic curves are most common
C. If scoliosis is present younger than age 8, 70% will become dystrophic
D. Associated w dural ectasia

A

Answer: B
Dystrophic curves are not more common, but they are more severe
Dystrophic changes (rib penciling, etc) are risk factors. Curve severity is not.
It is indeed associated w dural ectasia, which causes some of the dystrophic features (vertebral scalloping, pedicle thinning)
Nondystrophic scoli may become dystrophic. Biggest risk factor is scoliosis before age 7yo
2018, 2017

561
Q

Why must nondystrophic scoliosis associated w NF-1 be monitored closely?

A

May become dystrophic (modulation). Overall, 65% risk of modulation in all nondystrophic scoliosis in NF-1. Age is the biggest predictor. If present w scoliosis <7yo, 80% risk of modulation into dystrophic scoli

562
Q

RC: In Neurofibromatosis 1, which of the following is not true?
A. 50% of cases are from sporadic mutation
B. Mutation is on chromosome 17
C. Individuals w affected fathers are more significantly affected than individuals w affected mothers
D. 6% of NF-1 have pseudarthrosis

A

Answer: C
Mutation is on chromosome 17. 50% of cases are inherited (autosomal dominant) and 50% are sporadic mutations. Patients w NF-1 have a 5-10% risk of pseudarthrosis
2016

563
Q

What is tibial deficiency? What is its inheritance? What are associated conditions?

A

Preaxial deficiency. Autosomal dominant
Associated with
- “Clubfoot”: rigid equinovarus and supination
- Ectrodactyly (cleft hand)
- Preaxial polydactyly

564
Q

What is the Jones classification?

A

For tibial deficiency
1A: no tibia. No extensor mechanism, hypoplastic distal femoral epiphysis
1B: tibial anlage present, delayed ossification. Intact extensor mechanism. Normal femoral epiphysis
2: proximal tibia only
3: diaphysis and distal tibia only
4: ankle diastasis at distal tib/fib joint. Short tibia

565
Q

What is the clinical presentation of tibial deficiency? What should you examine that will guide treatment?

A
  1. Short leg
  2. Anterolateral bowing
  3. Prominent fibular head
  4. Knee flexion contracture
  5. Assess extensor mechanism: guides treatment
  6. Assess knee stability: guides treatment
  7. “Clubfoot”
566
Q

What are key XR findings for tibial deficiency? (4)

A
  1. Deficient tibia
  2. Hypoplastic distal femur epiphysis in type 1A
    3: proximally migrated fibula. This is key. Helps you detect subtle tibia deficiency
    4: ankle diastasis
567
Q

What are the treatment options for tibial deficiency? (4)

A
  1. Knee disarticulation
  2. Tib/fib synostosis and BKA
  3. Syme/Boyd amputation
  4. Supramalleolar osteotomy and lengthening
568
Q

What are the indications for knee disarticulation for tibial deficiency?

A
  • Complete tibia absence
  • No extensor mechanism
569
Q

What are the indications for tib/fib synostosis and BKA for tibial deficiency?

A

Proximal tibia only with intact knee extension

570
Q

What are the indications for Syme/Boyd amputation for tibial deficiency?

A

Jones type 4: most of tibia intact but ankle diastasis with unstable foot

571
Q

What are the indications for supramalleolar osteotomy and lengthening for tibial deficiency?

A

Jones type 4: most of tibia intact but ankle diastasis w unstable foot
Instead of doing Boyd/Syme amputation. Can do supramalleolar osteotomy to position foot plantigrade

572
Q

True or False: acceptable treatment for tibia deficiency includes fibula centralization under the femur

A

False. Called the Brown procedure. No longer performed due to high failure rate

573
Q

What is the only lower limb deficiency w an inheritance pattern?

A

Tibial deficiency. Autosomal dominant

574
Q

RC: A 12month old boy presents to your clinic w LLD. XR shows absent tibia. He is unable to actively extend his knee. What is the next step in management?
A. Through knee amputation
B. MRI to look for tibial anlage
C. Syme amputation
D. Fibular transfer to create a single bone lower limb

A

Answer: A (through knee amputation)
The indications of amputation are: complete absent tibia or no extensor mechanism
It’s true that the pt may have a tibial anlage that has delayed ossification. However, without an extensor mechanism, the treatment would still be amputation so no point in MRI
Syme amputation would be for an intact tibia and intact extensor mechanism, but unstable foot
Fibularization is the Brown procedure. It is historical and no longer acceptable
2016

575
Q

What conditions are associated w fibular deficiency? (10)

A
  1. Anteromedial bowing
  2. Tarsal coalition
  3. Ball and socket ankle
  4. Absent lateral rays
  5. Foot deformity: equinovalgus or planovalgus if tarsal coalition
  6. PFFD
  7. Coxa vara
  8. Lateral femoral condyle hypoplasia
  9. Genu valgum
  10. Cruciate ligament deficiency
  11. LLD
576
Q

What is the Achterman and Kalamchi Classification?

A

Types of fibular deficiency
1A: nearly normal. Proximal fibula is distal to tibial physis. Distal fibula is proximal to talus
1B: partial absence. Unable to support ankle joint
2: complete absence

577
Q

What are key XR findings in fibular deficiency?

A
  1. Fibula: short or absent
  2. Small tibial spines
  3. Shallow intercondylar notch
  4. Femur shortening
  5. Coxa vara
  6. Tarsal coalition
  7. Ball and socket ankle
578
Q

What are the goals of treatment for fibular deficiency? (2)

A
  1. Foot and ankle stability
  2. Equal limb lengths
579
Q

List the treatment options for fibular deficiency (4)

A
  1. Shoe lifts and orthotics
  2. Contralateral epiphysiodesis
  3. Limb lengthening
  4. Syme amputation or more proximal amputation
    Other operations may be needed such as
    - Supramalleolar osteotomy to correct ankle valgus
    - Foot procedures for valgus foot
    - Proximal tibial osteotomy for genu valgus
580
Q

What are the indications for shoe lifts or orthotics in the management of fibular deficiency?

A

LLD at maturity >2cm
Otherwise stable ankle and plantigrade foot. Only for type 1A

581
Q

What are the indications for contralateral limb epiphysiodesis alone in the management of fibular deficiency?

A

Mild LLD <5cm or <10% at maturity
Requires the affected side to have a stable ankle and plantigrade foot

582
Q

What are the indications for limb lengthening alone in the management of fibular deficiency?

A

Mild LLD <5cm or <10% at maturity
Requires a stable ankle and plantigrade foot

583
Q

What are the indications for treatment of fibular deficiency with a combination of contralateral limb epiphysiodesis and ipsilateral limb lengthening?

A

Moderate LLD at maturity: 10-30% length
Affected side must have stable ankle and plantigrade foot

584
Q

What are indications for Syme amputation in the management of fibular deficiency?

A
  • Nonfunctional or unstable foot/ankle
  • LLD >30%
    Perform at 1yo for early prosthesis and better psychosocial acceptance
585
Q

What is a Syme amputation? What is a common complication?

A

Ankle disarticulation. Remove talus and everything distal. Keep heel pad
Common complication: heel pad migration

586
Q

What are the outcomes of Syme amputation for fibular deficiency?

A

Better satisfaction than limb lengthening (88 vs 55%)
Similar function to peers athletically and psychologically

587
Q

What is a Boyd amputation?

A

Talus excised. Fuse calcaneus to tibia. Amputate rest of foot
Advantage: unlike in Syme amputation, avoids heel pad migration and heel pad grows w patient
Disadvantage: bulbous compared to Syme

588
Q

Syme vs Boyd amputation: which is generally preferred?

A

Syme. Boyd is bulbous and difficult to fit into prosthesis. But be aware that Syme is assoc w heel pad migration

589
Q

RC: All of the following are true regarding Syme amputations in kids except
A. Heel pad migration is a common problem
B. If you leave the calcaneus attached, the heel pad will grow as the child grows
C. Kids function at the same level as their peers
D. Poor outcomes if multiple failed surgeries before syme

A

Answer: B
If you do a syme amputation, the calcaneus is resected
Heel pad migration is a problem. Kids function athletically and psychologically similar to their peers

590
Q

What is posteromedial tibial bowing?

A

Physiologic, due to intrauterine positioning

591
Q

What is the differential Dx for posteromedial tibial bowing?

A
  1. Calcaneovalgus foot
  2. Vertical talus
592
Q

Where is the apex of deformity in posteromedial tibial bowing vs calcaneovalgus foot?

A

Tibia vs ankle

593
Q

What is the treatment for posteromedial tibial bowing?

A

Observation. Most resolve by 7yo

594
Q

Why should posteromedial tibial bowing be followed if they resolve without treatment?

A

Average 3cm at maturity
50% end up requiring epiphysiodesis of the longer limb

595
Q

RC: You are called to the nursery to see a newborn w a foot deformity. You are given clinical pictures and XRs that show posteromedial bowing. What should you advise the parents?
A. Will need serial casting
B. Should have an amputation
C. Osteotomy for re-alignment
D. Will need to be followed for leg length discrepancy

A

Answer: D
Average 3cm LLD at maturity
2017

596
Q

What is proximal femur focal deficiency (PFFD)? How many this present (what is the spectrum of disease?)

A

Congenital defect in proximal femur ossification center
Spectrum of disease:
1. Absent hip
2. Femoral neck pseudarthrosis
3. Short femur
4. Absent proximal femur

597
Q

What conditions are associated w PFFD? (6)

A
  1. Fibular deficiency in 50%
  2. Acetab dysplasia
  3. Coxa vara
  4. ACL deficiency
  5. Genu valgum
  6. Knee flexion contracture
598
Q

What is the Aitken classification?

A

For PFFD
Class A: femoral head present, normal acetab. Short femur
Class B: femoral head present but dysplastic acetab. No bony connection between head and shaft
Class C: no head, dysplastic acetab. No articulation between femur and acetab
Class D: no head, absent acetab

599
Q

Before addressing longitudinal deficiency in PFFD, what should be addressed first? (3)

A
  1. Coxa vara
  2. Femoral neck pseudarthrosis
  3. Acetab dysplasia
600
Q

What are the treatment options for PFFD? (5)

A
  1. Limb lengthening and contralateral epiphysiodesis
  2. Rotationplasty
  3. Knee arthrodesis and foot ablation
  4. Amputation
  5. Femoral-pelvic fusion
    .
601
Q

What are the indications for limb lengthening and contralateral epiphysiodesis in PFFD?

A
  • LLD at maturity <20cm, >50% of contralateral limb
  • Stable hip and foot
  • Coxa vara, femoral neck pseudarthrosis, acetab dysplasia addressed
602
Q

What is the maximum length that can be obtained w each limb lengthening procedure? Ideally, what is the maximum amount of lengthening procedures that should be performed?

A

5cm
Correct LLD in 3 or less procedures

603
Q

What is the indication for knee arthrodesis and foot ablation in the management of PFFD?

A

Foot is proximal to contralateral knee
Syme amputation

604
Q

What are the indications for rotationplasty in the management of PFFD?

A

Foot at level of contralateral knee
Ankle has motion

605
Q

What is the indication for femoral-pelvic fusion in the management of PFFD?

A

Absent femoral head

606
Q

What is the indication for amputation in the management of PFFD? Where should the amputation take place?

A

Femoral length <50% of contralateral limb
Amputate through joint to
- Preserve length
- Avoid overgrowth, which makes prosthesis fitting difficult

607
Q

What is hemihypertrophy?

A

> 5% abnormal asymmetry between L and R sides. Includes head, trunk and internal organs. Larger in length of circumference.
Note: this is different from pseudo hemihypertrophy

608
Q

What is the etiology of hemihypertrophy? (5)

A
  1. Idiopathic
  2. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome: Wilm’s tumor
  3. Proteus syndrome: asymmetric growth
  4. Klippel-Trenauney syndrome: vascular malformation
609
Q

What is Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant overgrowth syndrome
Pancreatic islet cell hypertrophy causes repeated infantile hypoglycemia
Major criteria: overgrowth, abdo wall defects, macroglossia
Minor criteria: hemihypertrophy, ear anomalies, nephromegaly

610
Q

What orthopaedic conditions are associated w hemihypertrophy? (2)

A
  1. LLD
  2. Scoliosis: compensatory
  3. Peripheral n entrapment
611
Q

What medical conditions are associated w hemihypertrophy? (2)

A
  1. Malignant abdo tumors, especially Wilm’s tumor
  2. Genitourinary abnormalities
612
Q

What type of tumor is most common in hemihypertrophy? What is the followup for this?

A

Wilm’s tumor (kidney tumor)
Serial abdo US q3mo until 7yo. Then physical exam q6mo until skeletal maturity

613
Q

In a child presenting w intoeing, what are 3 anatomic reasons why. Which is associated w packaging disorders? What is the natural hx of these deformities if untreated?

A
  1. Femoral anteversion: resolve by 10yo
  2. Internal tibial torsion: resolve by 4yo
  3. Metatarsus adductus: resolve by 4yo
    Femoral anteversion and metatarsus adductus assoc w packaging disorders. Internal tibial torsion is “probably” as well
614
Q

What is femoral anteversion at birth and how does it change over time?

A

At birth, 35deg
Decreases over time to adult anteversion by 8yo: 15deg

615
Q

What is the clinical presentation of femoral anteversion? How do you assess w physical exam?

A
  • Intoeing gait
  • Sits in W position
  • Trips while ambulating
    Physical exam
  • Trochanteric prominence angle
  • Rotational profile
616
Q

What is the trochanteric prominence angle test?

A

Physical exam. Use when assessing excessive femoral anteversion
Degree of IR when GT is most prominent

617
Q

List all the components of assessing rotational profile

A
  1. Foot progression
  2. Hip IR and ER
  3. Thigh-foot angle
  4. Lateral foot border
  5. Heel bisector
618
Q

How do you assess the rotational profile of the hip? What are normal values?

A

Test ROM in prone
- Increased IR if >70deg. Normal is 20-60deg
- Decreased ER if <20deg. Normal is 30-60deg

619
Q

How do you assess the rotational profile of the tibia? What are normal values?

A

Thigh-foot angle in prone position
Abnormal >10deg IR
Normal in infants: 5deg IR
Normal in 8yo: 10deg ER

620
Q

How do you assess the rotational profile of the foot?

A
  • Lateral border of foot should be straight
  • Heel bisector. Normally through 2nd/3rd webspace
621
Q

What are the treatment options for excessive femoral anteversion in a child? What are the indications?

A
  1. Observation: most resolve by 10yo
  2. Derotational femoral osteotomy. Indicated if <10deg ER in older child. Rarely needed
622
Q

True or False: Bracing, PT and sitting restrictions are useful for managing excessive anteversion in kids?

A

False. Doesn’t change natural history. Most resolve spontaneously by 10yo

623
Q

What is the normal foot progression angle?

A

Normal <20deg ER

624
Q

What are the treatment options for internal tibial torsion?

A
  1. Observation: most resolve by 4yo
  2. Derotational tibial osteotomy: indicated if doesn’t resolve and causes functional problem.
    Can do supramalleolar or proximal osteotomy. Supramalleolar is preferred as less complications
625
Q

What are the components of miserable malalignment? (2)

A
  1. External tibial torsion
  2. Femoral anteversion
626
Q

What are the treatment options for external tibial torsion?

A
  1. Activity modification. Does not resolve on its own, unlike internal tibial torsion
  2. Tibial osteotomy: supramalleolar preferred over proximal tibial due to decreased complications
627
Q

What is the deformity in clubfoot? What muscles are responsible for each component of the deformity?

A

CAVE
- Cavus: intrinsics, FHL, FDL
- Forefoot adductor: tib post
- Hindfoot varus: tib post
- Hindfoot equinus: Achilles

628
Q

Which bone acts as a fulcrum in clubfoot? (6)

A

Talus. When correcting clubfoot, need to rotate forefoot and calcaneus around the talus

629
Q

What conditions are associated with clubfoot? (7)

A
  1. Myelodysplasia
  2. Arthrogryposis
  3. Tibia deficiency
  4. Diastrophic dysplasia
  5. Larsen syndrome
  6. Amniotic band syndrome
  7. Other packaging disorders
630
Q

Clubfoot can be diagnosed in utero via US. Why does it matter in which trimester it was diagnosed?

A

1st trimester: likely associated w other anomalies
2nd trimester: typically true clubfoot if first diagnosed here
3rd trimester: possible false positive if first diagnosed here. Due to intrauterine crowding

631
Q

When assessing clubfoot, what are typical findings on physical exam? What conditions do you need to R/O as part of your exam?

A
  • Intrinsic hypoplasia of affected leg: smaller foot and calf
  • Shorter tibia
  • Medial and posterior foot creases
  • R/O packaging disorders: DDH, torticollis, etc
  • R/O spinal dysraphism
632
Q

What is the relationship between the talus and calcaneus on XR in a clubfoot compared to a normal foot?

A

Hindfoot parallelism. Talus and calc are parallel on AP and dorsiflexion lateral view
- AP view: talus and calc are normally divergent
- Dorsiflexion lateral: talus and calc normally convergent

633
Q

What are the principles of the Ponseti Method?

A

For clubfoot management
- Weekly serial casting with likely TAL
- FAO (boots and bars) x23h for 3mo
- FAO while sleeping until 4yo

634
Q

Describe the Ponseti casting technique

A

Weekly serial casting. Cast w knee at 90deg flexion
- Cavus: SUPINATE forefoot by elevating 1st ray. Aligns plantar-flexed 1st ray w other rays
- Adductus: rotate forefoot around talus
- Varus: rotate calcaneus around talus
- Equinus: aim for 15deg dorsiflexion. Address after forefoot can be abducted to 70deg and hindfoot corrected. 90% need TAL
Cast in max dorsiflexion and forefoot abduction x3wks

635
Q

What correction must be achieved first before correcting the equinus deformity in clubfoot? What happens if you attempt to correct equinus before other deformities corrected?

A

Correct forefoot adductus to 70deg abduction
Correct hindfoot varus to valgus
If hindfoot still in varus, correcting equinus leads to rockerbottom deformity

636
Q

How often should boots and bars be worn for after serial casting for clubfoot?

A

23h/d for 3mo, then during sleep until 4yo

637
Q

What are the indications for tib ant transfer in clubfoot? What is the technique?

A

Indications: dynamic supination during gait. This is due to overactive tib ant
However, make sure this is not a relapse. If it is a relapse, re-cast first.
Transfer to ossified lateral cuneiform (ossifies at 3yo)
Can do whole or split tendon. OITE preferred whole tendon. Comparable results

638
Q

What is the best indicator of recurrence in clubfoot? What are risk factors? (2)

A

Best indicator: loss of dorsiflexion (normal: >10deg)
Risk factors for recurrence in kids <2yo
- FAO noncompliance
- Lower parental education

639
Q

What is 1st line management for recurrent clubfoot?

A

Re-cast. Then consider repeat TAL or tib ant transfer

640
Q

What are the surgical options and indications in managing recurrent clubfoot? (5)

A
  1. Posteromedial soft tissue release and TAL. Indicated in recurrence in young kids. Aim to do before 9mo to avoid delaying walking
  2. Medial column lengthening or lateral column shortening. Indicated in rigid recurrence in older kids (3-10yo)
  3. Talectomy: recurrent rigid clubfoot in arthrogryposis
  4. Multiplanar supramalleolar osteotomy: salvage in older kids
  5. Triple arthrodesis: almost never indicated. Don’t do in insensate feet
641
Q

What are complications associated with clubfoot management?

A
  1. Recurrence
  2. Rockerbottom foot: correcting equinus before hindfoot varus corrected
  3. Undercorrection
  4. Talus AVN
  5. Dorsal bunion (?)
642
Q

RC: You are seeing a 2.5yo who was previously treated successfully for unilateral idiopathic clubfoot w Ponseti casting and percutaneous TAL. During gait, he supinates his forefoot during swing phase and seems to be walking on the lateral border of his foot. His heel was in varus. What would be your initial recommended treatment at this time?
A. Tib ant tendon transfer
B. Tib post tendon transfer
C. Posteromedial release
D. Repeat Ponseti casting

A

Answer: D
This is not just dynamic supination during swing. He has recurrence: walking on lateral border, heel in varus.
2018

643
Q

RC: 2yo presents for previously treated idiopathic clubfoot w Ponseti casting. He now presents w intoeing gait and has dynamic supination w gait. What is the best treatment?
A. Tib ant transfer
B. Tib post transfer
C. Re-casting
D. Medial calcaneal osteotomy

A

Answer: C
Patient has recurrence (intoeing gait). He doesn’t just have dynamic supination
Tib ant transfer would be for only dynamic supination. Would be performed at 3yo when when lateral cuneiform ossified.
2011

644
Q

What are the risk factors for metatarsus adductus? (4)

A
  1. Late pregnancy
  2. First pregnancy
  3. Twin pregnancy
  4. Oligohydramnios
645
Q

What conditions are associated w metatarsus adductus?

A

Packaging disorders

646
Q

What should you look for on physical exam for metatarsus adductus? (5)

A
  1. Gait: intoeing
  2. Flexible or rigid deformity?
  3. If flexible, actively or passively correctable?
  4. Medial foot crease
  5. Rotational profile: including lateral foot border and heel bisector
647
Q

What physical exam maneuver actively corrects metatarsus adductus

A

Tickling the foot

648
Q

What is the Bleck classification?

A

For metatarsus adductus. Severity based on heel bisector line
Normal: bisector through 2nd/3rd webspace
Mild: through 3rd toe
Moderate: 3rd/4th webspace
Severe: 4th/5th webspace

649
Q

What is a serpentine (skew) foot?

A

Metatarsus adductus
Midfoot lateral shift: talonavicular lateral subluxation
Hindfoot valgus

650
Q

What is the Berg classification?

A

For metatarsus adductus
- Simple metatarsus adductus (MTA)
- Complex: MTA and midfoot lateral shift
- Skew foot: MTA and valgus hindfoot
- Complex skew foot (serpentine): MTA, lateral shift and hindfoot valgus

651
Q

What are the nonoperative treatment options for metatarsus adductus? What are the indications?

A

Usually resolves by 4yo
- Observation: if flexible and actively corrected
- Serial stretching at home: if flexible and passively corrected
- Serial casting: if rigid deformity w medial crease. Goal is straight lateral foot border

652
Q

What are the operative treatment options for metatarsus adductus? What are the indications?

A
  1. TMT capsulotomies. For failed nonop in kids <4yo
  2. Lateral column shortening, medial column lengthening and MT osteotomy. Kids >5yo and interfering w shoes
    - Lateral column shortening: cuboid osteotomy
    - Medial column lengthening: cuneiform
    - MT osteotomies and pinning
653
Q

What is the operative treatment for serpentine foot?

A

Similar to metatarsus adductus correction
- Lateral column shortening through cuboid
- Medial column lengthening through cuneiform
- MT osteotomies and pinning
- Calcaneus osteotomy to correct valgus

654
Q

What are the deformities in a cavovarus foot?

A
  1. Cavus: elevated longitudinal arch from 1st ray plantar flexion and forefoot pronation
  2. Forefoot adduction
  3. Hindfoot varus
655
Q

In unilateral cavovarus foot, what must be ruled out?

A

Neural axis abnormality, such as tethered cord or tumor

656
Q

What is the most common cause of bilateral cavovarus feet?

A

Charcot Marie Tooth

657
Q

What common causes of cavovarus foot? (10)

A

Neuro
1. Neuroaxial abnormality: tethered cord, tumor
2. CMT
3. Friedreich ataxia
4. CP
5. Stroke
Traumatic
6. Talus # malunion
7. Compartment syndrome
8. Crush injury
Other
9. Idiopathic: subtle and bilateral
10. Residual clubfoot

658
Q

What is the clinical presentation of cavovarus foot like? (5)
(Physical exam on next card)

A
  1. Recurrent lateral ankle sprain, from peroneal tendon pathology
  2. Lateral foot pain from excessive WB
  3. 5th MT stress # from excessive lateral WB
  4. Plantar calluses on heads and lateral border
  5. Plantar fasciitis from elevated arch
659
Q

What should be included in your physical exam of a child w cavovarus foot? Key findings? (7)

A
  1. Coleman block test
  2. Peek-a-boo heel
  3. Silfverskiold test
  4. Gait: unstable. Increased time on both limbs
  5. Hand: interosseous wasting
  6. Scoliosis: suspect CMT
  7. Spinal dysraphism
660
Q

Describe the normal alignment of the talus and calcaneus on an AP XR

A
  • Axis of talus parallel to 1st MT axis
  • Axis of calcaneus falls on 4th MT axis
  • Talus and calcaneus are divergent. Angle between (talocalcaneal angle) is 20-40
661
Q

Is the talocalcaneal angle increased or decreased in clubfoot?

A

Decreased. <20deg. Talus and calcaneus display hindfoot parallelism in clubfoot

662
Q

Is the talocalcaneal angle increased or decreased in cavovarus feet?

A

Decreased. <20deg in hindfoot varus

663
Q

Is the talocalcaneal angle increased or decreased in planovalgus feet?

A

Increased. >40deg in hindfoot valgus

664
Q

What are the types of flatfoot? (3)

A
  1. Flexible flatfoot: ligamentous laxity
  2. Flexible flatfoot w short achilles
  3. Rigid flatfoot: CP, neuroaxial abnormality, tarsal coalition (most common), accessory navicular
665
Q

True or False: toe standing reconstitutes the arch when pes planus is due to tarsal coalition

A

False. Tarsal coalition causes rigid pes planus

666
Q

What is the clinical presentation and physical exam like in pediatric pes planus?

A
  1. Assess if flexible vs rigid: toe rise reconstitutes arch if flexible
  2. Silfverskiold
  3. Palpable navicular due to uncoverage or accessory navicular
  4. Hindfoot and ankle ROM
667
Q

RC: 8yo has a flexible flatfoot. What is the true?
A. Most can be managed w orthotics
B. Surgical plan would consist of soft tissue procedures
C. 30% have short achilles

A

Answer: A
Surgery would include bony procedures as well (lateral column lengthening vs calc osteotomy and 1st cuneiform osteotomy). Soft tissue alone is insufficient
30% have short gastroc-soleus

668
Q

RC: A child presents w pes planus, which improves w heel rise. The hindfoot corrects to neutral. W the knee extended, the ankle is 20deg plantarflexed. W the knee flexed, the ankle can dorsiflex to 10deg. What do these clinical findings indicate?
A. Tight gastroc
B. Tight achilles
C. Rigid pes planus
D. Tarsal coalition

A

Answer: A (tight gastroc)
This is the silfverskiold test
Child appears to have flexible pes planus. In rigid pes planus and tarsal coalition, the arch would not reconstitute w heel rise and the hindfoot would not correct
2016

669
Q

What is the clinical presentation of accessory navicular? (4)

A
  1. Flexible flatfoot
  2. Pain on medial midfoot
  3. Medial plantar enlargement
  4. Pain w resisted inversion
670
Q

What is the treatment for painful accessory navicular? (2)

A
  1. Donut pad around navicular
  2. Excision
671
Q

For pediatric pes planus, what XR findings are you assessing? (6)

A

AP
1. Talar-1st MT angle for forefoot abduction
2. Talonavicular angle for navicular uncoverage
3. Talocalcaneal angle for valgus hindfoot
Lateral
4. Talar-1st MT (Meary’s) angle: decreased
5. Calcaneal pitch: decreased (<20deg)
Oblique
6. R/O tarsal coalition

672
Q

Describe the calcaneal lengthening osteotomy for the management of pediatric pes planus

A

Calcaneal lengthening osteotomy (CLO) aka Evans procedure
1. Z-lengthen peroneus brevis
2. Release abductor digiti minimi
3. Stabilize calcaneocuboid joint w pin to keep from subluxating
4. Osteotomy between anterior and middle facets. 1cm proximal to CC joint
5. Place structural bone graft
6. Medial soft tissue plication
7. If forefoot supinated: medial cuneiform closing wedge osteotomy to plantarflex and correct supination
8. TAL

673
Q

Describe the triple C osteotomy for the management of pediatric pes planus

A
  1. Posterior calcaneus: sliding and medial closing wedge
  2. Medial cuneiform: closing wedge
  3. Cuboid: opening wedge
674
Q

What are the outcomes in the management of pediatric pes planus between the calcaneal lengthening osteotomy vs triple C?

A
  1. CLO better at correcting TN coverage
  2. Equal functional scores
  3. CLO has higher complications:
    - CC joint subluxation: avoid by pinning
    - 5th MT stress # from lateral foot overload
    - CC joint OA
675
Q

RC: What is part of the Evans procedure for a pediatric idiopathic flexible flatfoot?
A. Temporarily stabilize the CC and TN joints
B. 50% increase of fusion rate w autogenous bone graft
C. Can correct forefoot supination w opening wedge osteotomy of medial cuneiform
D. Osteotomy of the anterior process should be 4mm proximal to the cc joint

A

Answer: C is the most correct
You stabilize the CC joint, not the TN joint
No issues w nonunions in kids
Classically, the Evans procedure used a closing wedge osteotomy but opening wedge works too
Osteotomy should be 10-15mm proximal to cc joint
C is the most correct out of all
2015

676
Q

RC: What is true when comparing the triple C osteotomy and an Evans CLO for pediatric flatfoot?
A. The Evans procedure is better at correcting talonavicular head coverage
B. Triple C is associated w higher complications than Evans procedure
C. A complication of Triple C is calcaneocuboid joint subluxation

A

Answer: A
Evans has better correction but higher complications than Triple C. Most of the complications due to CC joint subluxation. Literally from JAAOS 2014 flatfoot deformity in children and adolescents
2018

677
Q

What foot deformity is associated w tarsal coalition?

A

Rigid pes planus. Loss of arch. Hindfoot valgus. Does not correct w toe rise. Peroneal spasm

678
Q

What conditions are associated w tarsal coalition? (3)

A
  1. Fibular deficiency and ball and socket ankle
  2. Apert syndrome
  3. Muenke syndrome
679
Q

In patients w tarsal coalition, what is the incidence of multiple coalitions? What is the incidence of bilateral coalitions?

A

20% have multiple. 50% have bilateral

680
Q

What are the most common locations for tarsal coalitions? At what age do they ossify?

A

Most common: calcaneonavicular. Ossifies at 8-12yo
2nd most common: talocalcaneal. Ossifies at 12-15yo

681
Q

What are radiographic findings in tarsal coalition? (3)

A

All found on lateral view
1. Talar beaking: nonspecific sign in tarsal coalition
2. Anteater sign: CN coalition
3. C-sign: talocalcaneal coalition

682
Q

What is it important to obtain a CT or MRI prior to OR for tarsal coalition?

A

For multiple coalitions

683
Q

What are the management options for tarsal coalition?

A
  1. Observation: asymptomatic
  2. Walking boot or casting: initial tx. 30% improve
  3. Coalition resection
  4. Subtalar arthrodesis
684
Q

Describe the technique for calcaneonavicular coalition resection

A
  • Sinus tarsi incision
  • Interposition w fat or EDB
  • Combine w calc slide if significant hindfoot valgus
685
Q

Describe the technique for talocalcaneal coalition resection

A

-Medial incision between FDL and neurovasc bundle
- Interposition w fat
- Combine w calc slide if significant hindfoot valgus

686
Q

RC: You are seeing a 12yo w ankle pain. Given the XR (they showed a ball in socket ankle), what is the underlying pathology?
A. Ehlers-Danlos
B. Post-traumatic
C. Lateral ligament instability
D. Tarsal coalition

A

Answer: D
Tarsal coalitions may present w a ball in socket ankle joint, especially in limb deficiencies (like fibular deficiencies). The coalitions prevent inversion/eversion. Ball and socket joint allows inversion/eversion though the ankle joint

687
Q

What is vertical talus?

A

Rigid flatfoot. Navicular dislocated dorsolateral to talus
Forefoot abduction and dorsiflexion
Convex plantar surface from prominent talar head (rockerbottom)
Hindfoot equinovalgus

688
Q

What gait pattern do patients w vertical talus have?

A

Calcaneal gait (peg leg)

689
Q

What are the soft tissue contractures in vertical talus?

A

Hindfoot equinovalgus: achilles and peroneals
Forefoot abduction and dorsiflexion: EHL, EDL, tib ant

690
Q

What is the DDx of vertical talus?

A

Oblique talus

691
Q

What is oblique talus?

A

Talonavicular subluxation. Reduces on plantarflexion XR
Treatment: observation

692
Q

Describe the clinical findings in vertical talus (5)

A
  1. Rockerbottom foot deformity
  2. Poor ankle dorsi and plantarflexion
  3. Prominent talar head medially
  4. Contracture: achilles, peroneals, extensors
  5. Calcaneal (peg leg) gait
693
Q

At what age does the navicular ossify?

A

3yo

694
Q

What are you looking for on lateral XRs when assessing vertical talus?

A
  1. Meary’s angle (1st MT-talus angle). Normally axis of 1st MT and talus should be in line. 1st MT acts as a surrogate for navicular as not yet ossified. Talus axis will be inferior to 1st MT axis in vertical talus
  2. Maximum plantar flexion lateral: persistent talonavicular dislocation. Talus axis will still be inferior to 1st MT axis. Oblique talus would be reduced in this view
  3. Maximum dorsiflexion lateral: determine if dorsiflexion if through ankle or dislocation. Determines if equinus contracture needs OR
695
Q

What percentage of vertical talus cases are associated w other conditions? List common associated conditions

A

50% have neuromuscular or genetic issues
1. Neural axis abnormalities: myelomeningocele, diastematomyelia
2. Arthrogryposis
3. CP
4. Spinal muscular atrophy

696
Q

True or False: vertical talus can be managed nonoperatively

A

True
Historically, vertical talus was treated w preoperative casting to loosen tissues before OR
The Dobbs method does only reverse Ponseti casting. No surgery. After casting, placed in boots and bars

697
Q

Describe the principles of operative vertical talus management

A
  • Serial manipulation and casting. Reverse Ponseti.
  • Percutaneously pin navicular to talus. Open if can’t do closed
  • TAL for equinus
  • Transfer tib ant to talar neck if reduced open
  • Lengthening dorsal structures if tight: EDL, EHL, peroneus brevis
  • Boots and bars in plantigrade and neutral rotation
698
Q

For vertical talus, what position are the feet held in boots and bars? How often should they be worn?

A

Plantigrade and neutral rotation
Wear 23h/d x3mo, then while sleeping until 3yo

699
Q

What are the outcomes after serial casting only vs extensive soft tissue release for the management of congenital vertical talus?

A

5yr followup as shown that minimally invasive management (Dobbs method uses reverse ponseti casting) results in better ankle ROM and pain scores. It can be used to treat both syndromic and congenital CVT

700
Q

RC: What is true about congenital vertical talus?
A. Doesn’t require TAL
B. Pinning of the TN joint is rarely indicated
C. Idiopathic and syndromic can both be treated w casting alone
D. The calcaneus is in dorsiflexion

A

Answer: C
Dobbs method uses reverse ponseti manipulation and serial casting. It can treat both idiopathic and syndromic cases (Aslani 2012)
When doing operative management of CVT, TAL is often done. TN joint is often pinned
The calcaneus is in plantarflexion
2016

701
Q

RC: The position of the calcaneus in vertical talus is
A. Equinus, everted, laterally displaced
B. Equinus, everted, medially displaced
C. Equinus, inverted, laterally displaced
D. Equinus, inverted, medially displaced

A

Answer: A
Calcaneus is equinus, everted and laterally displaced

702
Q

What is a calcaneovalgus foot?

A

Packaging deformity w hindfoot valgus and dorsiflexion
(Calcaneus is fancy term for dorsiflexion)

703
Q

What are risk factors for calcaneovalgus foot? (2)

A
  1. Female
  2. First born
704
Q

What is the DDx for calcaneovalgus foot? (3)

A
  1. Posteromedial tibial bowing
  2. Congenital vertical talus
  3. Paralytic foot deformity: L5 spina bifida causing spastic foot dorsiflexion and eversion
705
Q

Where is the deformity apex in calcaneovalgus foot? Posteromedial tibial bowing? Congenital vertical talus?

A

Calcaneovalgus foot: ankle
Posteromedial bowing: tibia
Vertical talus: midfoot

706
Q

What are the treatment options and indications for the management of calcaneovalgus foot?

A
  1. Passive stretching. Indicated if can plantarflex past neutral
  2. Casting. Indicated if can’t plantarflex past neutral
707
Q

What complications are associated w calcaneovalgus foot? (2)

A
  1. LLD if also associated w posteromedial tibial bowing
  2. Flexible pes planus
708
Q

What is the definition of cerebral palsy?

A

Nonprogressive upper motor neuron disease from insult to premature brain, w onset before 2yo

709
Q

What are risk factors for CP?

A

Premature
- Intrauterine infection: SToRCH
- Thyroid disease
- Congenital brain malformation
- Drugs/EtOH
Perinatal
- Prematurity
- Anoxia: nuchal cord, placental abruption, uterine rupture
- Kernicterus: due to Rh incompatibility
Postnatal
- Meningitis/encephalitis
- Head injury/Trauma
- Cardiac surgery

710
Q

What are the 3 classification systems for CP?

A
  1. Gross motor function classification (GMFCS)
  2. Movement dysfunction
  3. Anatomic
711
Q

What is the gross motor function classification?

A
  1. Normal, independent ambulator
  2. Independent ambulatory, but need rails for stairs/uneven surfaces
  3. Assisted walking, WC for long distances
  4. WC but can transfer
  5. WC bound, no head control
712
Q

RC: 9yo w CP is a community ambulator w forearm crutches at home and at school, but uses a wheelchair for long distances. What is his GMFCS?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

Answer: C (GMFCS 3)
2017

713
Q

What is the movement dysfunction classification for CP? (6)

A
  1. Spasticity
  2. Dystonic
  3. Athetoid
  4. Ataxia
  5. Mixed
  6. Hypotonic
714
Q

Define spasticity

A

Velocity dependent increased tone
Hyperreflexia w slow movement
Due to simultaneous agonist + antagonist contraction

715
Q

Define dystonia

A

Non-velocity dependent increased tone
Involuntary muscle contraction (posturing)
Intermittent vs sustained
Focal or global

716
Q

Define athetoid

A

Constant slow, writhing involuntary movement

717
Q

What is the anatomic classification of CP? (3)

A
  1. Quadriplegic: total body involved
  2. Diplegic: most common. Upper and lower extremities involved but lower extremity is more affected
  3. Hemiplegic: arm/leg on one side
718
Q

How do you examine the lower extremity in CP? (8)

A
  1. Thomas test: hip flexion contracture
  2. Hip abduction w hip flexed (Add longus and brevis) and without hip flexed (gracilis)
  3. Hip adduction
  4. Galeazzi: assess if hip dislocation
  5. Ely-Duncan test: assess rectus contracture
  6. Popliteal angle: hamstring contracture
  7. Silfverskiold: gastroc vs achilles contracture
  8. Rotational profile
719
Q

Which XRs needed to be performed at every followup for CP? (2)

A
  1. Hips for dislocation
  2. Scoliosis
720
Q

How do you perform the Thomas test?

A

For hip flexion contracture
- Patient supine. Do at end of table so knee flexion contracture doesn’t interfere
- Fully flex contralateral hip and knee to flatten lumbar lordosis. Affixes pelvis to table
- Angle between femur and table

721
Q

How do you assess hip abduction tightness?

A
  • Hip flexed: assesses adductor longus and brevis
  • Without hip flexed: assesses gracilis
722
Q

What is the Ely-Duncan test?

A

Assesses rectus femoris tightness
Patient lays prone
If pelvis pops off table, then tight rectus

723
Q

How do you perform a popliteal angle test?

A

For hamstring tightness
Supine. Flex hip to 90deg
Extend knee. Angle between leg and vertical
Normal is <50deg

724
Q

What are preoperative considerations for CP?

A
  • Neuro: seizures are common. Valproic acid increases bleeding time. Use TXA, cell saver. Other AEDs cause osteopenia
  • Osteopenia: from disuse. Use locking plates
  • Resp: Pulmonary fxn test if possible
  • GI: Reflux is common. May need swallowing study to prevent aspiration
  • Nutrition: G-tube if unable to feed and optimize nutrition. Poor nutrition assoc w more complications
725
Q

What is botox and what is its role in the management of CP?

A

Inhibits Ach release. For spasticity and dynamic contractures. Lasts 3-6mo
Helps maintain joint motion during rapid growth and when too young for OR
OR under 8yo has high recurrence

726
Q

What are the limitations for botox use for CP? (4)

A
  1. Toxic dose. Limited number of muscles treated at a time
  2. New axons sprout by 6mo
  3. Develop resistance via antibodies
  4. Causes fibrosis over time so counterproductive
727
Q

RC: 6yo w diplegic spastic CP and toe walking. 3mo ago the patient had botox injection and serial casting, which improved symptoms. However, the patient now presents w the same problem. He has ankle 10deg dorsiflexion w knee flexed and 0 dorsiflexion w knee extended. What treatment would you recommend?
A. Repeat botox
B. Bilateral TAL
C. Bilateral gastroc recession
D. AFO

A

Answer: A. Continue botox as it’s still effective and CP kids with surgical management before 8yo have high recurrence rates
Do NOT do TAL for bilateral spastic diplegia. Creates crouch gait

728
Q

What is R1 and R2 when discussing botox use for spasticity?

A

R1: limit of ROM due to spasticity
R2: limit of ROM due to contracture
Large R1:R2 means botox will have large effect since it only affects spasticity

729
Q

What is baclofen and how is it used in the management of CP?

A

GABA agonist. Given for severe spasticity. Can be given PO but significant cognitive impairments. Giving intra-thecal avoids these side effects. Sudden withdrawal causes seizures

730
Q

At what age do kids develop their adult gait pattern?

A

7yo

731
Q

What are the 3 common gait patterns seen in CP? Do they affect the stance or swing phase of gait?

A

Stance
1. Jump gait: true vs apparent equinus
2. Crouch
Swing
3. Stiff knee

732
Q

What is jump gait?

A

Toe walking. No heel strike at initial contact.
2 types: true vs apparent equinus

733
Q

What is true equinus jump gait?

A

Due to gastroc-soleus spasticity or contracture
Hips and knees may be
- Hyperextended: will resolve after equinus treated
- Hyperflexion knee/hip: due to spasticity or contracture

734
Q

What is apparent equinus jump gait?

A

Foot appears in plantarflexion relative to the floor, but actually isn’t
Due to hyperflexion of knee/hip. Do not correct at the ankle!

735
Q

What is crouch gait?

A

Flat foot at initial contact due to weak ankle plantar flexors. Develops other deformities as a consequence:
- Knee hyperflexion contracture - initially as compensation then becomes fixed
- Patella alta: quads tendon shortens, patella tendon lengthens due to knee hyperflexion

736
Q

What is stiff knee gait?

A

Occurs during swing phase. Limited knee flexion . Difficult to clear foot

737
Q

In a CP patient w jump gait due to true ankle equinus, what are the treatment options and indications for the equinus deformity? (3)

A
  1. AFO w lift: for flexible deformity
  2. Botox: for spasticity until OR at 8yo
  3. Gastroc recession. Goal: 10deg dorsiflexion
738
Q

Why is gastroc recession preferred over TAL in CP?

A

TAL may cause too much weakness and result in crouch gait

739
Q

What are the consequences of doing a gastroc recession or TAL in a CP patient w jump gait due to apparent equinus?

A

Causes crouch gait. In apparent equinus jump gait, problem is at the knee or hip

740
Q

What are the treatment options and indications for knee flexion deformity in CP? (3)

A
  1. Medial hamstring lengthening: for <10deg flexion
  2. Guided growth: for 10-30deg flexion w growth remaining
  3. Distal femur extension osteotomy: for 10-30deg flexion and near maturity
741
Q

In CP, which hamstring tendons are lengthened?

A

Medial hamstrings: gracilis, semiT, semi M
Don’t lengthen lateral hamstrings (biceps femoris) in addition. Causes too much hip extension weakness

742
Q

Describe the technique for medial hamstring lengthening in patients w CP

A

Posteromedial thigh incision, proximal to popliteal fossa
Order of lengthening: gracilis, semiT, semi M
Gracilis and Semi T: Z lengthening
SemiM: fractional lengthening. Cut across fascia like recession
Assess popliteal angle after every tendon
Goal: 45deg popliteal angle. More than 45deg risks sciatic n palsy

743
Q

True or False: after medial hamstring release, patients w CP lose swing phase knee flexion

A

TRUE
If rectus femoris is also spastic, can transfer rectus to gracilis or semiT. Restores flexion
(You may wonder: then what was the point of the hamstring release? The hamstrings were contractured. If rectus is firing too much but not contractured, a transfer would still allow passive extension.. i think)

744
Q

Describe the indications and technique for guided growth in CP patients w knee flexion deformity

A

Indications: 10-30deg knee flexion contracture w 2yrs growth remaining
- Do medial hamstring release
- 8 plate on anterior distal femur physis for more growth posteriorly

745
Q

Describe the indications and technique for distal femur extension osteotomy in CP patients w knee flexion deformity

A

Indications: 10-30deg knee flexion contracture, near maturity
- Do medial hamstring release first
- Lateral approach through vastus. Distal extent of incision is physis
- Trapezoidal osteotomy. Larger anteriorly and smaller posteriorly. This functionally lengthens hamstrings and shortens bone to avoid neurovasc compromise
- Patella tendon plication

746
Q

What is the purpose of doing patellar tendon plication after correcting knee flexion deformity in CP kids?

A

Some may have patella alta due shortened quads tendon and lengthened patella tendon. This is a result of longterm knee flexion contracture.
Usually have to do after distal femur extension osteotomy

747
Q

RC: In a CP child w jump gait and 35deg flexion contracture of the knee, treatment includes
A. Medial hamstrings lengthening only
B. Medial hamstrings lengthening and femur extension osteotomy
C. Medial and lateral hamstring lengthening only

A

Answer: B
Don’t do both medial and lateral hamstring lengthening in CP. Causes weak hip extensors
Medial hamstrings alone indicated for contractures <10deg
Extension osteotomy if >10deg flexion contracture and near skeletal maturity

748
Q

In CP kids w stiff gait, what muscle is pathologic? What is the treatment?

A

Spastic rectus femoris
Treatment: transfer rectus so it becomes a knee flexor instead of an extensor
Transfer site options: gracilis, semiT, sartorius, IT band
No difference in outcome between the transfer sites
Gracilis and SemiT preferred if concomitant hamstring lengthening

749
Q

In a CP child with suspected hip contracture, what physical exam test do you perform to prove it’s a truly from the hip? What is the treatment in an ambulatory child?

A

Thomas test
Ambulatory child: psoas tenotomy at pelvic brim. Leave ilacus intact

750
Q

What is the consequence of releasing the entire iliopsoas in a ambulatory CP child who has hip flexion contracture?

A

Weakens hip flexor too much. Unable to do stairs
Releasing both iliacus and psoas reserved for nonambulatory kids only

751
Q

In a child w hip adduction contracture, what is the goal of adductor release? Describe how to do the release

A

Goal: 45deg abduction
Landmark: adductor longus
Incision: parallel to groin crease and 1cm distal
Order of release:
- Adductor longus. Avoid anterior branch of obturator n
- Gracilis
- Assess if abduction >45deg
- If not enough abduction, release adductor brevis

752
Q

What nerve is at risk w adductor release?

A

Anterior branch of the obturator n.
Runs just deep to adductor longus

753
Q

What are the zones of the gastroc-soleus complex?

A
  1. Gastroc soleus muscle bellies
  2. Gastroc soleus tendons. Gastroc recession here
  3. Achilles tendon. TAL here
754
Q

TAL is generally contraindicated in CP. In what situation is it acceptable? What are the consequences of TAL in CP kids generally?

A

Only acceptable for spastic hemiplegia. Otherwise should address zone 1 or 2 only in CP. Otherwise risk causing crouch gait

755
Q

What are the most common foot deformities in CP (3)?

A
  1. Hallux valgus
  2. Equinoplanovalgus
  3. Equinovarus (note: not cavovarus. Cavus is rare in CP)
756
Q

What is the pathophysiology of hallux valgus in CP?

A

Overactive adductus hallucis
If concomitant equinoplanovalgus, also forces toe into valgus to clear the floor

757
Q

What is the surgical management of hallux valgus in CP kids?

A

1st MTP fusion
Least recurrence compared to other techniques

758
Q

What is the surgical management for equinoplanovalgus in kids w CP?

A

Same as in kids without CP
1. Lateral (Evans) column lengthening: at calcaneal neck (anterior to middle facet) w bone graft
2. Gastroc recession or TAL
3. Plantarflexion closing wedge osteotomy at medial cuneiform

759
Q

What is the pathophysiology of equinovarus in CP?

A

Inverters overpower evertors
Inverters: post tib + tib ant
Evertors: peroneals

760
Q

How do you determine if tib post or tib ant are spastic in CP patients w equinovarus foot?

A

Tib ant: causes forefoot supination
- During swing phase, foot supinates (dynamic supination)
- Confusion test: pt sits at edge of table and flexes hip. Tib ant will activate as foot dorsiflexes. If foot supinates, then tib ant is spastic
Tib post: causes hindfoot varus. Becomes tight when hindfoot brought into valgus

761
Q

List the treatment options and indications for the management of equinovarus foot in CP patients (4)

A
  1. Gastroc recession
  2. SPOTT: split posterior tibial tendon transfer. For passively correctable deformity due to tib post
  3. SPLATT: split anterior tib tendon transfer. For passively correctable deformity due to tib ant
  4. Calcaneal (slide) osteotomy. For fixed hindfoot varus. Must combine w soft tissue procedure
762
Q

Describe the indications and principles of the SPOTT procedure for the management of equinovarus in CP patients

A

Indication: passively correctable equinovarus deformity due to spastic tib post
Transfer to peroneus brevis
- Medial incision over tib post
- Lateral incision over peroneals
- Split tib post. Reroute posterior to tib/fib to suture to peroneus brevis

763
Q

Describe the indications and principles for the SPLATT procedure for the management of equinovarus in CP patients

A

Indication: passively correctable equinovarus deformity due to spastic tib ant
- Medial incision over tib ant
- Split tendon and release from 1st MT. Reroute laterally under extensor retinaculum
- Transosseous tunnel through cuboid. Tie sutures over button while foot dorsiflexed

764
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of hip dysplasia in CP

A

Progressive hip deformity that is initially normal at birth (unlike DDH). Progressive adductor and iliopsoas tone causes hip to wear away the posterosuperior acetab wall. Hip subluxes posterosuperiorly

765
Q

Describe the typical proximal femur morphology in CP hips

A
  1. Anteverted (40deg). Normal at birth but doesn’t decreases normally
  2. Coxa valga
  3. Caput valga
  4. Medial head becomes flattened: driven into acetab
  5. Lateral head becomes flattened: rubs against spastic abductors
766
Q

Describe the typical acetabular deficiency in CP hips

A

Posterosuperior wall deficiency

767
Q

How does the ability to stand affect prognosis in CP hips

A

Improves. NWB status (WB bound) worsens hip status

768
Q

Describe the physical exam for assessing CP hips

A
  1. Spine for scoliosis
  2. Pelvis for pelvic obliquity
  3. Thomas test for hip flexion contracture
  4. Hip abduction: w hip flexed (adductors) and without hip flexed (gracilis)
  5. Popliteal angle: hamstring contracture
769
Q

How does limited hip abduction affect the risk of dislocation in CP hips?

A

At risk of dislocation when hip abduction <45deg

770
Q

What are typical radiographic findings for CP hip?

A
  1. Reimer’s migration index (MI)
  2. Acetabular index: increases as MI increases
  3. Neck shaft angle: coxa valga
  4. Head deformity: medial head flattening, lateral head flattening
771
Q

What is Reimer’s migration index?

A

Width of uncovered head / total width
Hip at risk >25%
Subluxation >30%
Dislocation >100%
Most accurate method of identifying and monitoring hip stability

772
Q

What is the role of hip abduction brace in the management of CP hip?

A

No role. Doesn’t prevent dislocation
May cause windblown hips or hyperabduction deformity

773
Q

What parameters suggest a CP hip is at risk? (3)

A
  1. Abduction <45deg
  2. Migration index >25%
  3. AI >25deg
    Hips at risk require exam and XR twice a year
774
Q

Describe the treatment algorithm for CP hip

A

Kids <8yo. Depends on migration index
- MI <60%: soft tissue release only
- MI >60%: VDRO +/- pelvic osteotomy
Kids >8yo: soft tissue release + VDRO +/- pelvic osteotomy

775
Q

At what age should soft tissue releases be done for CP hip?

A

ASAP once hip is determined to be at risk (based on limited abduction, MI, and AI)
This will prevent progressive subluxation and acetab dysplasia

776
Q

At what age should bony procedures be done for CP hip?

A

Ideally between 4-8yo
Before 4yo, remodelling may cause loss of correction
After 8yo, can still do if no degeneration. But often too advanced degeneration that salvage is needed

777
Q

In a CP patient w a hip at risk of dislocation, what tendons are addressed as part of the soft tissue release?

A

Adductors. Goal for abduction >45deg. Adductor longus, gracilis, adductor brevis
Hip flexor: iliopsoas. Depends if pt is ambulatory or nonambulatory

778
Q

Describe the technique for hip flexor release in a child w CP. How does it differ in ambulator vs nonambulatory patients?

A

Ambulatory: release only psoas tendon from pelvic brim. Leave ilacus intact for some flexion
Nonambulatory: release both iliopsoas from LT

779
Q

When performing a VDRO for CP patients, what is the goal neck-shaft angle for ambulators vs nonambulators?

A

Ambulator: 120deg
Nonambulatory: 100deg

780
Q

What are common options for pelvic osteotomy in CP hips?

A

Dega and PAO are good for global coverage
Dega if triradiate is open
PAO if triradiate is closed

781
Q

What are salvage options for CP hip? (4)

A
  1. Resection of hip
  2. Redirectional femur osteotomy
  3. Interposition replacement
  4. Arthrodesis
782
Q

What is the purpose of the redirectional femur osteotomy as a salvage procedure for CP hip?

A

Indicated for severe hip adduction that prevents perineal care
Valgus producing osteotomy results in a more abducted position

783
Q

What is the most reliable radiographic measure when following a CP hip?
A. Migration index
B. CEA
C. Acetabular index
D. Tonnis angle

A

Answer: A
2016

784
Q

List the upper extremity deformities seen in CP

A
  1. Shoulder IR
  2. Elbow flexion and pronation
  3. Wrist flexion
  4. Thumb in palm
  5. Finger flexion
785
Q

What are the treatment options for shoulder IR contracture in CP? When is it indicated?

A
  1. Subscap and pectoralis lengthening
  2. Shoulder derotational osteotomy: rarely needed. Usually lengthening is sufficient
    Indication: 30deg contracture as it interferes w hand function
    Goal: >30deg ER
786
Q

Describe the technique of shoulder derotational osteotomy for shoulder IR contracture in kids w CP

A

Deltopectoral approach
Transverse osteotomy proximal to deltoid insertion
Position in 30deg ER
Plate fixation
Goal: 30deg ER
(Note: same technique used in kids w brachioplexopathy)

787
Q

What is the treatment for elbow flexion deformity in kids w CP?

A

Release and lengthening
1. Resect lacertus fibrosis
2. Release brachioradialis from origin
3. Lengthen biceps and brachialis
4. Musculocutaneous neurectomy of biceps and brachialis: only if spastic w full passive ROM

788
Q

RC: A 12yo w spastic CP presents w 45deg elbow flexion contracture. Excellent function and ambulates independently. What is not a viable procedure?
A. Fractional biceps lengthening
B. Musculocutaneous neurectomy
C. Biceps tendon z-lengthening
D. Flexor-pronator slide

A

Answer: D?
Flexor-pronator slide may refer to a Steindler flexorplasty. This is to restore elbow flexion like in Erb palsy
2017
However, some believe they are referring to a distal flexor-pronator slide. Also, if the child has a fixed flexion contracture, then a neurectomy would not be a viable procedure

789
Q

What are the treatment options for forearm pronation deformity in kids w CP?

A
  1. Release pronator teres
  2. Transfer FCU to ECRB
790
Q

What is the danger of transferring pronator teres for the management of forearm pronation deformity in CP kids?

A

Some transfer pronator teres to an anterolateral position so it supinates
Can develop a supination deformity, which is worse than a pronation deformity

791
Q

How does GMFC score affect the incidence of scoliosis in CP?

A

Incidence increases w GMFC score

792
Q

Describe the pattern of scoliosis seen in CP

A

Long, C-shaped
Kyphosis
Left sided curve
Associated w pelvic obliquity
Begins at younger age and more likely to progress

793
Q

What is the relationship between lumbar scoliosis, pelvic obliquity and hip dislocation in kids w CP?

A

Lumbar scoliosis may cause pelvic obliquity
Pelvic obliquity causes windswept hip deformity. One hip is adducted, other is abducted. Adducted side at risk of dislocation
Correcting scoliosis may fix pelvic obliquity
Hip surgery does not affect pelvic obliquity

794
Q

What are nonoperative management options for scoliosis in kids w CP?

A
  • Custom seat orthosis
  • TLSO
    Neither change natural history. Both for better seating balance
795
Q

What are the indications for scoliosis correction in kids w CP?

A

Curves >50deg that are progressive and interfere w seating
Age >10yo

796
Q

True or False: scoliosis correction in CP improves quality of life for the patients

A

Maybe? Leaning towards false
Typically cited that it’s better for caregiver quality of life.

797
Q

How many levels are included in scoliosis correction for CP spine?

A

Typically from T1-pelvis
Multilevel needed due to osteoporotic bone
Not including thorax leads to thoracic kyphosis
Typically can do all posterior constructs now

798
Q

What is Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

X-linked recessive mutation in dystrophin gene, causing absent protein.
Progressive muscle loss, replaced by fibrofatty tissue. Affects proximal muscles first

799
Q

What is the function of the dystrophin protein?

A

Stabilizes muscle cell membrane so cell leaks intracellular stuff like CK
Inflammatory response causes fibrosis
Affects skeletal and cardiac muscles

800
Q

What conditions are associated w Duchenne muscular dystrophy? (7)

A
  1. Scoliosis in 90%
  2. Equinovarus foot
  3. Joint contractures
  4. Fractures
  5. Cardiomyopathy
  6. Static encephalopathy
  7. Anesthesia induced rhabdomyolysis
801
Q

What should be done to minimize preoperative risks to patients w Duchenne muscular dystrophy? (3)

A
  1. Anesthesia induced rhabdomyolysis: don’t use inhaled anesthetics
  2. Intraoperative cardiac events: assess cardiomyopathy w echo
  3. Resp status: need PFTs
802
Q

What is Becker’s muscular dystrophy? How is it similar or different from Duchenne’s?

A

X-linked recessive mutation in dystrophin gene
Similar to Duchenne: calf pseudohypertrophy, high CK levels
Different: dystrophin is decreased but not absent. Later onset, slower progression, longer life expectancy

803
Q

Describe the typical natural history of Duchenne’s

A
  • Normal at birth and degeneration starts
  • Diagnosis at 5yo
  • Needs walking aids at 10
  • WC bound at 15
  • Cardioresp death at 20
804
Q

What are the first muscles affected in Duchenne?

A

Gluteals

805
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A
  1. Male
  2. Weakness of proximal muscles first
  3. Delayed milestones, can’t keep up w peers
  4. Clumsy, wide-based gait and abductor lurch. Due to tight hip flexors and abductors from prolonged sitting
  5. Toe walking: keeps knees extended. Keeps them upright without firing weak quads
  6. Calf pseudohypertrophy
  7. Gower’s sign
  8. Scoliosis in 90%. Begins after WC bound
  9. Lumbar lordosis: compensate for weak gluts
  10. Intact reflexes
806
Q

What studies can you order for patients suspected of having Duchenne’s? (3)

A
  1. CK levels: should be elevated
  2. DNA testing: dystrophin gene deleted on X chromosome
  3. Muscle biopsy: absent dystrophin
807
Q

What are the management options for Duchenne?

A
  1. Corticosteroids
  2. Scoliosis correction
  3. AFOs at night
  4. PT
808
Q

What are the benefits of corticosteroid therapy for Duchenne’s? What are the side effects?

A

Supresses inflammation and thus fibrosis. Benefits:
1. Prolongs ambulation by improving strength
2. Prevents scoliosis
3. Delays pulmonary deterioration
Side effects:
1. Osteonecrosis
2. Weight gain
3. Cushingoid appearance
4. Short stature

809
Q

True or False: In patient w Duchenne’s, equinus contracture should always be treated surgically or w AFO during ambulation

A

False. Want to maintain toe walking as it’s their compensation for weak quads. Don’t use AFO during ambulation, only at night time. Don’t correct equinus unless it’s so bad that they can’t balance anymore

810
Q

True or False: bracing is important for the management of scoliosis in Duchenne’s

A

False. Do not brace. Not effective and interferes w their already weak resp function

811
Q

What are the indications for scoliosis correction in Duchenne’s?

A

Curve >20
Life expectancy >2yrs
PFTs >30%

812
Q

True or False: scoliosis correction in Duchenne improves pulmonary function and mortality

A

False. Good for comfort. Higher parental satisfaction. But does not improve pulmonary function or mortality

813
Q

RC: What slows the degradation of muscle strength in Duchenne?
A. NSAIDs
B. Baclofen
C. Prednisone
D. Gamma globulin

A

Answer: C (prednisone)
Common corticosteroids used for Duchenne are prednisone and deflazacort

814
Q

What is spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)?

A

Autosomal recessive mutation in survival motor neuron (SMN-1) gene. Causes loss of motor neurons in anterior horn. Present w proximal muscle weakness

815
Q

What conditions are associated w SMA? (2)

A
  1. Hip subluxation/dislocation
  2. Scoliosis
816
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of SMA

A
  1. Symmetric progressive weakness that is worse in proximal muscles and worse in lower extremity
  2. No reflexes
  3. Fasciculations
  4. Scoliosis
  5. Hip subluxation/dislocation
817
Q

What studies can be ordered for patients suspected of having SMA?

A
  1. DNA testing
  2. Muscle biopsy
818
Q

What is the treatment for hip dislocation in SMA?

A

Observation
Usually painless and high recurrence w open reduction

819
Q

What is myelodysplasia? What are the different types?

A

Congenital abnormality related to failed neural tube closure
Closed: spina bifida occulta
Open:
- Meningocele: protruding dural sac without cord
- Myelomeningocele: protruding sac w cord
- Rachischsis: exposed cord without covering

820
Q

What are risk factors for myelodysplasia?

A
  1. Folate deficiency
  2. Maternal hyperthermia (fever)
  3. Maternal diabetes
  4. Valproic acid
  5. Chromosomal abnormalities
821
Q

What orthopaedic conditions are associated w myelodysplasia?

A
  1. Pathologic # from disuse osteopenia
  2. Spine: scoliosis (neuromuscular) and kyphosis
  3. Hip dysplasia/dislocation
  4. Congenital knee dislocation
  5. External tibial torsion
  6. Foot: clubfoot, vertical talus
  7. Sprengel
822
Q

What nonorthopaedic conditions are associated w myelodysplasia?

A
  1. Type 2 Arnold-Chiari malformation: cerebellum and brain stem in foramen magnum
  2. Hydrocephalus
  3. Tethered cord
  4. Neurologic bladder
  5. Latex anaphylaxis
823
Q

What is the ambulatory status in patients with myelodysplasia at each of the following levels: L2, L3, L4, L5 or S1?

A

L2: nonambulatory
L3: Marginal household
L4: Household ambulators
L5: Community ambulators
S1: normal ambulators

824
Q

In patients w myelodysplasia, what sort of surveillance should be done at each followup?

A
  1. Hip dysplasia/dislocation
  2. Scoliosis
825
Q

What is the association between level affected in myelodysplasia and the incidence of scoliosis?

A

Higher incidence of scoliosis w higher spinal level affected. 100% scoliosis w T spine defects

826
Q

What are the treatment options for scoliosis in myelodysplasia?

A
  • Observation. Bracing is not effective
  • ASF and PSF
827
Q

True or False: anterior spinal fusion is necessary when surgically treating scoliosis in kids w myelodysplasia

A

True. Dysplastic posterior column. Anterior fusion decreases the failure rate

828
Q

What are the indications for surgical management of scoliosis in kids w myelodysplasia? How distal should the fusion be?

A

Curves >50deg that interfere w sitting. Needs to include the pelvis

829
Q

How does surgical management of scoliosis in kids w myelodysplasia affect functional outcomes?

A

Halts progression of scoliosis
75% lose ambulation postop
No clear benefit for sitting or quality of life

830
Q

In kids w myelodysplasia, which spinal level has the highest risk of hip dislocation?

A

L3. Unopposed hip flexion and adduction

831
Q

What is the treatment for hip dislocation in kids w myelodysplasia?

A

Can do soft tissue releases for better sitting position. Otherwise, just observe

832
Q

What is Friedreich’s ataxia?

A

Autosomal recessive mutation of Frataxin gene. Causes spinocerebellar degeneration

833
Q

What is the “classis triad” seen in Friedreich’s ataxia?

A
  1. Ataxia: wide based gait
  2. Areflexia
  3. Positive Babinski
834
Q

What conditions are associated w Friedreich’s ataxia?

A
  1. Cavovarus foot
  2. Scoliosis (neuromuscular)
  3. Cardiomyopathy
835
Q

What is Marfan syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder due to mutated fibrillin-1 (FBN1) gene

836
Q

What orthopaedic conditions are associated w Marfan’s syndrome? (6)

A
  1. Scoliosis
  2. Protrusio acetabuli
  3. Pes planovalgus
  4. Dural ectasia
  5. Myelodysplasia
  6. Pectus excavatum or carinatum
837
Q

What nonorthopaedic conditions are associated w Marfan’s syndrome? (3)

A
  1. Cardiac: aortic root dilation, aortic dissection, mitral valve prolapse
  2. Superior lens dislocation
  3. Spontaneous pneumothorax
838
Q

What condition is the main cause of death in Marfan’s syndrome? How is it managed to decrease mortality?

A

Aortic root dilatation
Manage w beta blockers and BP management

839
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of Marfan’s syndrome

A
  1. Dolichostenomelia: arm span greater than height
  2. Arachnodactyly: long digits
  3. Ligamentous laxity: recurrent dislocation, ankle sprains
  4. Thumb sign: thumb extends beyond D5 when clasped in palm
  5. Wrist sign: thumb and small fingers overlap when wrapped around opposite wrist
  6. Scoliosis
  7. Pes planus
840
Q

In patients w Marfan’s, what preoperative workup is needed?

A
  1. Cardiology consult and echo
  2. Before spine OR: MRI for dural ectasia
841
Q

What are the indications for surgical management of scoliosis in Marfan’s? What preoperative workup is needed?

A

Indication: curves >50deg
Need MRI to assess for dural ectasia
All Marfan’s patients need cardio consult and echo

842
Q

True or False: the rate of complications after scoliosis surgery is higher in Marfan’s than in adolescent idiopathic scoliosis

A

True
Higher rate of fixation failure (bone eroded from dural ectasia), infection, pseudarthrosis, dural tear and revision rate
Same rate of blood loss, postop neuro deficit, length of hospital stay

843
Q

What are the treatment options for protrusio acetabuli in patient’s w Marfan’s?

A

Skeletally immature: close triradiate cartilage. Controversial
Skeletally mature:
- Young without arthritis: valgus osteotomy
- Old w arthritis: THA

844
Q

What is arthrogryposis?

A

Group of diseases that cause multiple congenital joint contractures due to poor movement in utero. Symmetric and nonprogressive
Decreased anterior horn cells. Muscle replaced by fibrosis

845
Q

What are the causes of arthrogryposis? (3)

A

Contractures due to poor movement in utero
1. Neurogenic (90%): brain, spine
2. Myopathic: muscular dystrophy
3: Fetal akinesia

846
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of arthrogryposis (10)

A
  1. Shoulder IR and adducted
  2. Wrist flexion and ulnar deviation
  3. Thumb in palm
  4. Teratologic hip
  5. Congenital knee dislocation
  6. Congenital patella dislocation
  7. Clubfeet
  8. Vertical talus
  9. Cavovarus
  10. Scoliosis: C-shaped
847
Q

What are the perioperative risks associated w arthrogryposis? (4)

A
  1. Difficult intubation from stiff jaw
  2. Intraoperative hyperthermia
  3. Drug distribution affected by low muscle mass
  4. Aspiration
848
Q

What are treatment options for elbow extension contracture in the management of arthrogryposis?

A
  1. Stretching and splinting
  2. Triceps V-Y lengthening
  3. Posterior capsulectomy
  4. Steindler flexorplasty
  5. Tendon transfer to biceps. Donors: triceps, pec major, lat dorsi
849
Q

In arthrogryposis, why should tendon transfer for elbow extension be done one arm at a time?

A

May result in flexion contracture. Can’t reach perineum
In this case, better for one arm to be in extension and the other in flexion.

850
Q

RC: In a child w arthrogryposis and elbow extension contracture, all of the following are possible surgical options to restore elbow flexion, except
A. Triceps transfer
B. Steindler flexorplasty
C. Pec major transfer
D. Anterior deltoid transfer

A

Answer: D
2019

851
Q

RC: 12yo presents w an olecranon # while playing. He has had a previous contralateral olecranon # last year. He has normal height but bad dentition. He has had previous fractures to both distal radius and left tibia. What should you do?
A. Start bisphosphonates
B. Skeletal survey for child abuse
C. Refer for renal workup

A

Answer: A
Child likely has OI. Bad teeth suggest dentinogenesis imperfecta. Has had fragility #s. Treatment w bracing and bisphosphonates can reduce fractures, pain, and deformity. It can improve ambulation.
(In real life, it may not be wrong to do renal workup too for renal osteodystrophy, etc)
2017

852
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Abnormal collagen cross linking from mutation in collagen 1
Abnormal collagen 1 produced and decreased production
Osteoblasts don’t form sufficient osteoid and poor remodeling

853
Q

What are the orthopaedic manifestations of OI? (8)

A
  1. Fractures
  2. Ligamentous laxity
  3. Short status
  4. Spine abnormalities
  5. Olecranon apophyseal #
  6. Congenital radial head dislocation
  7. Acetab protrusio
  8. Coxa vara
  9. Long bone bowing and saber shin
854
Q

True or False: fractures in OI heal at the same rate as normal bone

A

True. Heals normally, but doesn’t remodel

855
Q

What spine abnormalities are associated w OI? (3)

A
  1. Scoliosis
  2. Codfish vertebrae: from compression #
  3. Basilar invagination
856
Q

What are nonorthopaedic manifestations of OI? (8)

A
  1. Blue sclera
  2. Triangle facies
  3. Hearing loss
  4. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
  5. Wormian skull bones
  6. Hypermetabolism: malignant hyperthermia, heat intolerance, tachycardiac
  7. Thin skin: subQ hemorrhage
  8. Cardiac: mitral valve prolapse, aortic regurgitation
857
Q

What is the Sillence classification?

A

Types of osteogenesis imperfecta
1. Autosomal dominant. Mildest form
2. Autosomal recessive. Lethal
3. Autosomal recessive. Most severe survivable form
4. Autosomal dominant. Moderate severity.
5. Autosomal dominant. Congenital radial head dislocation. Rad/ulna and tib/fib interosseous ossification

858
Q

What are management options in preventing fractures in OI?

A
  1. Early bracing
  2. Bisphosphonates
    Ineffective treatment: calcitonin, steroids, vitC, vitD, fluoride, magnesium, flavonoids
859
Q

What are the benefits of early bracing in OI?

A
  1. Decrease deformity: bowing, saber shin
  2. Decrease fractures
860
Q

What are the benefits of bisphosphonates in OI? What is the maximum duration of treatment?

A
  1. Reduces fracture rate
  2. Improves bone pain
  3. Improves ambulation
  4. Increases cortical diameter
  5. Increases cancellous bone volume
    Treatment for max of 2yrs
861
Q

What is the effect of bisphosphonates on scoliosis in OI?

A

None

862
Q

What should you do w bisphosphonates in the perioperative period for OI?

A

Should hold. Otherwise interferes w bone healing

863
Q

What is the management of scoliosis in OI?

A

Bracing: not an option as ribs are too fragile
Posterior fusion: controversial. Maybe for curves >50deg. Bisphosphonates may improve bone to allow instrumentation

864
Q

What are the fracture management options in kids w OI?

A

Kids <2yo: observation
Kids >2yo: fixation w telescoping rods

865
Q

What are the benefits of telescoping rods in the fixation of fractures in OI?

A
  1. Restore alignment
  2. Prevent bowing
  3. Prevent #s
  4. Avoids revisions as bone grows
866
Q

True or False: the fracture rate decreases after skeletal maturity in OI

A

TRUE

867
Q

What are surgical considerations for hip #s in adults w OI?

A
  1. Image entire femur
  2. Assess bowing/deformity
  3. Shorter limb
  4. Coxa vara
  5. Acetab protrusio
  6. IM nail preferred: custom or pediatric implant. Flexinail isn’t rigid enough
868
Q

What is osteopetrosis?

A

Defective osteoclast resorption. Fail to acidify Howship’s lacuna Results in:
- Dense bone
- Brittle bone: unable to remodel
- Obliterated canals

869
Q

What is the clinical presentation of osteopetrosis like? (6)

A
  1. Cranial n palsy due to skull foramina overgrowth
  2. Osteomyelitis due to poor marrow vascularity
  3. Spondylosis
  4. Coxa vara due to femoral neck stress #s and nonunion
  5. Fractures: risk malunion and delayed healing
  6. Pancytopenia: bone encroaches on marrow. Bleeding risk, frequent infections
870
Q

What cranial nerves are commonly affected in osteopetrosis? (4)

A
  1. Optic n: most common. Present w vision loss
  2. Auditory
  3. Trigeminal
  4. Facial
871
Q

What are XR findings in osteopetrosis? (7)

A
  1. Thick cortical bone
  2. Increased bone density
  3. Lose medullary canal diameter: “bone on bone appearance”
  4. Erlenmeyer flask: proximal humerus, distal femur
  5. Rugger jersey spine
  6. Block femoral metaphysis
  7. Coxa vara
872
Q

What is the indication for nonoperative fracture management in osteopetrosis? What are the outcomes?

A

Indication: most fractures, as long as in good alignment
Requires prolonged casting
Outcomes:
- Delayed healing
- Limited remodeling
- Risk refracture and malunion

873
Q

What is the indication for operative fracture management in osteopetrosis? Describe the technique and outcomes

A

Indication: proximal femur #s
Technique:
- Plates/screws
- Avoid IM nails as no canal
- Slow and steady drilling. Constant cooling and change drill bit
Outcomes:
- Risk HW failure
- Less nonunion, malunion and coxa vara risk compared to nonop

874
Q

Describe the technique for THA in patients w osteopetrosis

A

Femur: cannulated reamer, short stemmed implant, uncemented
Acetab: sharp reamers and multiple screws

875
Q

What is Larsen’s syndrome?

A

Disorder characterized by
- Ligamentous laxity
- Flattened facies
- Prominent forehead

876
Q

What must be assessed preop in patients w Larsen’s syndrome?

A

Cervical kyphosis. At risk of cord injury w intubation

877
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Larsen’s syndrome? (6)

A
  1. Flattened facies
  2. Radial head dislocations
  3. Hip dislocations
  4. Knee dislocations
  5. Foot deformities: clubfeet, equinovarus, equinovalgus
  6. Spine: scoliosis, kyphosis
878
Q

What is the management of cervical kyphosis in patients w Larsen’s syndrome? (2)

A
  1. Posterior only fusion: kyphosis w no neuro deficits. Do before 18mo
  2. Anterior + posterior fusion: kyphosis w neuro deficits
879
Q

What is the management for hip dislocations in Larsen’s syndrome?

A

Open reduction. Indicated when unilateral dislocation
Closed reduction is rarely successful. Controversial

880
Q

What is the Beighton score?

A

Score of 5+ out of 9 indicates hypermobility
- Forward flexion w palms on floor and knees fully extended
- Small finger extends >90deg
- Thumb abducts to forearm
- Elbow hyperextends
- Knee hyperextends

881
Q

What is Ehlers-Danlos syndrome? What are orthopaedic manifestations?

A

Connective tissue disorder from mutated COL5A1 or 2
1. Joint mobility or dislocation
2. Ligamentous laxity
3. Early OA
4. DDH
5. Foot deformities: clubfoot, pes planus
6. Scoliosis
7. Fractures

882
Q

What are nonorthopaedic manifestations of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?

A
  1. Skin - elastic, easily bruised
  2. Poor wound healing
  3. Fragile soft tissues: arterial, intestinal, uterine
  4. Cardiac: aortic root dilatation, mitral valve prolapse
883
Q

How is Ehlers-Danlos syndrome diagnosed? What single study is mandatory in all patients?

A

Skin biopsy for diagnosis
All require echo to R/O aortic root dilatation

884
Q

Disproportionate dwarfism can be divided into short trunk and short limb. Which disorders fall under each category?

A

Short trunk: SED and Kniest
Short limb: achondroplasia, pseudoachondroplasia, MED

885
Q

Define rhizomelic, mesomelic, acromelic

A

Rhizomelic: proximal segment (humerus and femur) are hypoplastic
Mesomelic: middle segment (rad/ulna, tib/fib)
Acromelic: hands/feet

886
Q

When first assessing dwarfism, what sort of workup should be performed for diagnosis?

A
  1. Sitting and standing height
  2. Skeletal survey
  3. Genetics referral
  4. Labs: calcium, phosphate, alkphosh, serum thyroxin, urine for storage products
887
Q

What is achondroplasia? What is the clinical presentation?

A

Autosomal dominant, short limb disproportionate dwarfism
FGFR3 mutation
1. Hypotonia in infancy and delayed milestones
2. Face: frontal bossing and midface hypoplasia
3. Foramen magnum stenosis
4. Lumbar stenosis
5. Thoracolumbar kyphosis
6. Rhizomelic dwarfism
7. Trident hands
8. Genu varum and fibular overgrowth
9. Radial head subluxation and humerus posterior bowing

888
Q

What part of the bone is affected in achondroplasia?

A

Hypertrophic zone of physis

889
Q

What are typical pelvic XR findings in achondroplasia?

A

Champagne glass pelvis: wider than deep
Horizontal acetab roof
Squared iliac

890
Q

What are typical femur XR findings in achondroplasia?

A

Flared metaphysis
Inverted V distal femur physis
Normal distal epiphysis

891
Q

What are typical spine XR findings in achondroplasia?

A

Short pedicles
Decreased interpedicular distance
Vertebral wedging in kyphosis
Posterior vertebral scalloping

892
Q

Why do achondroplastic infants have high mortality rates?

A

Foramen magnum stenosis

893
Q

What is the clinical presentation of foramen magnum stenosis? What is the workup?

A
  1. Central sleep apnea
  2. Snoring
  3. Difficulty swallowing
  4. Hypotonia
  5. Myelopathy: hyperreflexia, clonus, weakness
    Workup: sleep study and MRI
894
Q

What is the treatment of foramen magnum stenosis in achondroplasia? At what age is it usually treated?

A

Usually requires tx by 2yo
Foramen magnum decompression. Duraplasty if persistent compression after bone removed
Intraop US to confirm decompression

895
Q

What is the pathophysiology of thoracolumbar kyphosis in achondroplasia? What is the prognosis?

A

Infants w achondroplasia have trunk hypotonia and slump forward. Causes anterior vertebral wedging
90% improve by 18mo
Persistent kyphosis causes lumbar hyperlordosis, worsened spinal stenosis, hip flexion contracture

896
Q

What are management options for thoracolumbar kyphosis in achondroplasia?

A
  1. Observation: most resolve due to trunk strength and walking
  2. Bracing: TLSO until independent walking
  3. Surgical correction: neuro compromise or >50deg
897
Q

How does rhizomelia in achondroplasia negatively affect function?

A

Can’t reach head or perineum
Treatment: lengthening

898
Q

RC: 3yo child presents w ataxic gait and rhizomelic dwarfism, frontal bossing and midface hypoplasia. He has a history of sleep apnea. He has a gibbus deformity and is hyperreflexic on exam. What is the next appropriate step?
A. MRI of C1-2
B. MRI of foramen magnum
C. EMG
D. Sleep study

A

Answer: B
Patient likely has achondroplasia. He presents w myelopathy and sleep apnea, likely from foramen magnum stenosis.
All achondroplasia patients should have a sleep study and MRI of their foramen magnum. In this case, the patient already has symptoms suggestive of stenosis so they just jumped to MRI instead of formal sleep study. Reason is likely because stenosis causes high mortality in infants and delaying treatment for a sleep study may not be wise.

899
Q

What is pseudoachondroplasia?

A

Short limbed disproportionate dwarfism due to mutated COMP gene
Rhizomelia
Delayed epiphysis ossification. Irregular and fragmented epiphysis

900
Q

What is the clinical presentation of pseudoachondroplasia? (4)

A
  1. Gait: waddling
  2. Early OA
  3. Genu valgum/varum
  4. Odontoid hypoplasia causing atlantoaxial instability
901
Q

What are typical hip XR findings in pseudoachondroplasia?

A

Delayed ossification. Head appears small and fragmented like Perthes or SED
Sclerosis
Incongruity
Subluxation

902
Q

What are management options for early hip OA in pseudoachondroplasia?

A

Early hip OA due to incongruity and subluxation
1. Varus femoral osteotomy to improve incongruity
2. Pelvic osteotomy. Salvage options only
3. THA

903
Q

RC: All of the following are associated w atlantoaxial instability except
A. Achondroplasia
B. Pseudoachondroplasia
C. Mucopolysaccharidoses
D. Down’s syndrome

A

Answer: A (achondroplasia)
Achondroplasia is associated w foramen magnum stenosis, lumbar stenosis and kyphosis
Pseudoachondroplasia has odontoid hypoplasia causing atlantoaxial instability
Mucopolysaccharidoses (Morquio and Hurler
Down associated w both atlantoaxial and atlantooccipital instability
2015

904
Q

What is multiple epiphyseal dysplasia?

A

Short limb disproportionate dwarfism
Autosomal dominant mutation in COMP and COL9
Irregular and delayed ossification at multiple epiphyses

905
Q

What areas of the body are most commonly affected by MED? (2)

A
  1. Proximal humerus
  2. Proximal femur
906
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of MED

A
  1. Short limbs
  2. Gait: waddling
  3. Stubby fingers/toes
  4. Hip: early OA
  5. Valgus knees
907
Q

Describe how the epiphyses appear on XR in MED

A

Multiple epiphyses affected (duh)
Delayed ossification
Fragmented
Flattened

908
Q

Describe how to differentiate MED from bilateral Perthes?

A

When bilateral Perthes suspected, order skeletal survey to R/O MED
MED is different from Perthes in that:
- Symmetric and bilateral presentation. Perthes is not synchronous
- Early acetabular changes
- No metaphyseal cysts

909
Q

Describe typical knee XR findings in MED (3)

A
  1. Valgus
  2. Flat femoral condyles
  3. Double layer patella
910
Q

Describe typical hand and foot XR findings in MED

A

Short metacarpals and metatarsals. Result in stubby fingers and toes

911
Q

What is the DDx of MED?

A

Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia (SED): mutation in COL2 and involves spine. Shor trunk dwarfism
MED has mutated COL9 and COMP. No spine involvement. Short limb dwarfism

912
Q

What are treatment options for MED? (4)

A
  1. NSAIDs and PT for early OA
  2. Proximal femur osteotomy for subluxation. Varus osteotomy for containment. Valgus for hinge abduction
  3. Pelvic osteotomy for containment. Usually salvage options
  4. Knee: osteotomy vs hemiepiphysiodesis for genu valgum
913
Q

What is spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia (SED)?

A

Short trunk disproportionate dwarfism due to mutated COL2A1. Causes defective epiphysis ossification. Affects spine and limbs

914
Q

What is the clinical presentation of SED? (7)

A
  1. Eyes: myopia (wear big glasses) and retinal detachment
  2. Midface hypoplasia
  3. Atlantoaxial instability (myelopathy)
  4. Kyphoscoliosis
  5. Thoracic dysplasia causing respiratory insufficiency
  6. Gait: waddling
  7. Coxa vara
  8. Genu varum
915
Q

What are typical C-spine XR findings in SED? What views should be ordered?

A

AP, lateral, open mouth views
Flexion-extension
1. Atlantoaxial instability
2. Odontoid hypoplasia
3. Os odontoideum: dens separated from C2 body

916
Q

What are typical hip XR findings in SED?

A
  1. Horizontal acetab roof
  2. Coxa vara
  3. Delayed head ossification
917
Q

Describe the general management of SED

A
  1. Ophthalmology for myopia and retinal detachment
  2. Pulmonology for resp insufficiency
  3. Posterior atlantoaxial fusion for atlantoaxial instability
  4. Posterior thoracolumbar fusion for scoliosis >50deg
  5. Proximal femur valgus producing osteotomy
918
Q

What are the indications for operative management of atlantoaxial instability in kids w SED?

A
  1. ADI >8mm on flex-ex. Normal ADI in nonsyndromic kids is <5mm
  2. Myelopathy
919
Q

What are the indications for valgus producing proximal femur osteotomy in kids w SED?

A
  1. Coxa vara <100deg
  2. Symptomatic hip OA
920
Q

RC: 7yo w SED. You are planning to do surgery for the patient’s knee deformity. What do you order pre-op?
A. C-spine flex-ex
B. Scoliosis series
C. MRI brain
D. Polysomnography

A

Answer: A (flex-ex)
SED at risk for atlantoaxial instability due to odontoid hypoplasia or os odontoideum
2015

921
Q

What is Kniest dysplasia?

A

Short-trunk disproportionate dwarfism due to mutated COL2A1

922
Q

What are orthopaedic manifestations of Kniest dysplasia?

A
  1. Hypoplastic pelvis and spine
  2. Dumbbell-shaped metaphyses
  3. Coxa vara
  4. Genu valgum
  5. Kyphoscoliosis
  6. Early OA
923
Q

What are nonorthopaedic manifestations of Kniest dysplasia?

A
  1. Flat facies
  2. Cleft palate
  3. Resp insufficiency
  4. Eyes: myopia and retinal detachment
  5. Ears: otitis media and hearing loss
924
Q

What is diastrophic dysplasia?

A

Short-limb disproportionate dwarfism due to DTD gene
Rhizomelia
Causes defective epiphysis ossification

925
Q

What is the clinical presentation of diastrophic dysplasia

A
  1. Face: cleft palate and cauliflower ears
  2. Arms: poorly developed. Hitchhiker thumb
  3. Teratologic DDH
  4. Genu valgum
  5. Foot deformities: skew foot, clubfoot
  6. Atlantoaxial instability
  7. Cervical kyphosis
  8. Scoliosis
926
Q

What is the general treatment of diastrophic dysplasia?

A
  1. Cauliflower ears: compressive bandages
  2. DDH: femur and pelvic osteotomy
  3. Genu valgum: corrective osteotomies
  4. Foot deformity correction
  5. Atlantoaxial instability: posterior fusion if high ADI or neuro sx
  6. Cervical kyphosis: most resolve spontaneously. Fusion if doesn’t resolve
  7. Scoliosis: fusion if severe
927
Q

What is mucopolysaccharidoses (MPS)?

A

Group of metabolic disorders due to deficiency lysosomal enzymes. Incomplete breakdown products (mucopolysaccharides) accumulate. Causes proportionate dwarfism

928
Q

List common subtypes of mucopolysaccharidoses (MPS). What is the inheritance pattern?

A

Autosomal recessive
1. Sanfilippo: most common
2. Morquio
3. Hurler
X-linked recessive
4. Hunter

929
Q

What are diagnostic studies for MPS?

A
  1. Toluidine blue spot test: detect excess mucopolysaccharide. If positive, specific blood test for type of MPS
  2. Skin fibroblast culture: test enzyme activity
  3. Chorionic villous sampling
930
Q

True or False: bone marrow transplant in MPS improves life expectancy

A

True. But does not alter orthopaedic manifestations

931
Q

What is San Filippo syndrome?

A

Mucopolysaccharidoses. Autosomal recessive. Most common MPS
Accumulate heparan sulfate (found in urine)
Multiple enzyme deficiencies

932
Q

What is the clinical presentation of San Filippo?

A
  1. Proportionate dwarfism
  2. Mental retardation
933
Q

What is the treatment of San Filippo?

A

Bone marrow transplant

934
Q

What is Morquio syndrome?

A

MPS. Autosomal recessive
Accumulate keratin sulfate in urine
Deficient galactosamine-6-sulfate sulphatase or beta-galactosidase

935
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Morquio syndrome?

A
  1. Proportionate dwarfism
  2. Normal intelligence
  3. Atlantoaxial instability from odontoid hypoplasia
  4. Thoracic kyphosis
  5. Genu valgum
  6. Corneal clouding
936
Q

What is the treatment of Morquio?

A
  1. OR for thoracic kyphosis and atlantoaxial instability if severe
  2. Limb realignment osteotomy
937
Q

What is Hurler syndrome?

A

Most severe MPS. Also known as gargoylism. Autosomal recessive
Accumulate dermatan and heparan sulfate in urine
Due to alpha-L iduronidase deficiency

938
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Hurler syndrome?

A
  1. Proportionate dwarfism
  2. Mental retardation
  3. Gargoyle facies
  4. Corneal clouding
  5. Atlantoaxial instability
  6. Carpal tunnel
939
Q

What is the treatment of Hurler syndrome?

A

Bone marrow transplant

940
Q

Which mucopolysaccharidoses are associated w carpal tunnel?

A

Hunter and Hurler

941
Q

What is Hunter syndrome?

A

MPS. X-linked recessive
Accumulate dermatan and heparan sulfate in urine
Present w proportionate dwarfism and mental retardation

942
Q

RC: Which of the following is not true?
A. Duchenne is associated w calf hypertrophy
B. San Filippo is the most common mucopolysaccharidoses
C. Mucopolysaccharidoses is proportionate dwarfism
D. Marfan’s is associated w arachnodactyly

A

Answer: A
Duchenne is associated w calf pseudohypertrophy
Some studies say Morquio is the most common MPS. It depends if the answer specifies incidence vs prevalence. San Filippo has the highest incidence but because the early death rate is so high, the prevalence is lower than Morquio
2019, 2015

943
Q

RC: Which of the following is not true?
A. San Filippo is the most prevalent type of mucopolysaccharidoses
B. Marfan is associated w arachnodactyly
C. Morquio is associated w atlantoaxial instability
D. Duchenne’s is associated w calf pseudohypertrophy

A

Answer: D
Indeed Duchenne is associated w pseudohypertrophy. Previous questions mentioned just hypertrophy, which is wrong. San Filippo probably has the highest incidence but Morquio may be more prevalent. This is because San Filippo has a high early death rate. If it asks which MPS is the most common overall, it would be San Filippo (JAAOS 2013)
2013

944
Q

What is Down syndrome?

A

Trisomy 21. Causes ligamentous laxity and muscle hypotonia. Chr 21 codes for COL6

945
Q

What are orthopaedic manifestations of Down syndrome? (10)

A
  1. Ligamentous laxity
  2. Atlantooccipital instability
  3. Atlantoaxial instability
  4. Delayed motor milestones
  5. Hip subluxation/dislocation
  6. SCFE
  7. Patella instability
  8. Scoliosis
  9. Spondylolisthesis
  10. Pes planus
946
Q

What are nonorthopaedic manifestations of Down syndrome?

A
  1. Flattened facies, upward slanting eyes, epicanthal folds, single palmar crease
  2. Cardiac: ASD/VSD
  3. Hypothyroid
  4. Premature aging
  5. Duodenal atresia
  6. Alzheimer
947
Q

What is the management of atlantooccipital instability in Down syndrome?

A

Limit contact sports
Posterior fusion if neuro deficits

948
Q

What preoperative workup is required in Down syndrome?

A

C-spine flex ex for atlantoaxial instability

949
Q

What are the indications for nonoperative vs operative management of atlantoaxial instability in Down syndrome?

A

Based on ADI and SAC
- Normal ADI in nonsyndromic kids is <5mm. <10mm is acceptable in Down
- SAC >14 is normal
Nonop if ADI <10mm, SAC >14mm and neuro intact
OR if ADI >10mm, SAC <14mm or neuro deficit

950
Q

In Down syndrome kids w hip instability, where is the area of acetab deficiency?

A

Posterior acetab deficiency

951
Q

What are the management options for Down syndrome kids w hip instability?

A

Based whether there are bony changes or dislocation. Options:
- Abduction brace if neither
- Femoral and pelvic osteotomy

952
Q

What are specific management considerations in Down syndrome kids w SCFE?

A

R/O concomitant hypothyroidism
Must pin contralateral side as well

953
Q

RC: All of the following regarding Down syndrome and c-spine instability are true, except
A. Only affects C1-2
B. >25% have instability
C. C-spine XRs can’t predict progression
D. Screening XR for participation in sports it unnecessary if they are asymptomatic

A

Answer: A
Down syndrome also causes occipitocervical instability
C-spine XR can’t predict progression. Screening XR also not effective or warranted prior to sports participation
Down’s patients should probably avoid impact sports though
2016

954
Q

What is an accessory navicular? What attaches to it?

A

Autosomal dominant, normal variant. Tuberosity fails to fuse to rest of bone
Post tib inserts onto tuberosity
Presents as either:
- Separate accessory bone
- Accessory bone connected to navicular by synchondrosis
- Bony medial extension of navicular

955
Q

What foot conditions result from an accessory navicular? (2)

A
  1. Pes planus
  2. Posterior tib deficiency
956
Q

What is the clinical presentation of accessory navicular?

A

Mostly asymptomatic
Medial arch pain worse w overuse
Repeated microfracture at synchondrosis
Inflamed post tib tendon
Pes planus
Post tib insufficiency

957
Q

What are the management options for an accessory navicular? (3)

A
  1. Orthosis: medial wedge, longitudinal arch, UCBL cup
  2. Cast immobilization
  3. Excision
958
Q

What is Kohler’s disease?

A

Navicular AVN. Ages 4-7yo, 4x more common in boys
Due to watershed in middle third
Dorsum supplied by dorsalis pedis
Plantar supplied by medial plantar artery

959
Q

What is the prognosis for Kohler’s disease?

A

Self limiting. Symptoms resolve after 1-3yrs. XR improves later

960
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Kohler’s disease?

A

Mostly asymptomatic
Midfoot pain
Antalgic gait

961
Q

What are the XR findings in Kohler’s disease?

A

Sclerosis, fragmentation, flattening of navicular

962
Q

What is the treatment of Kohler’s disease?

A

NSAIDs for symptom control
Immobilize w cast if pain
Surgery not indicated

963
Q

What is Sever’s disease?

A

Calcaneal apophysitis from jumping/running
Ages 6-12yo

964
Q

What is the treatment of Sever’s disease?

A

Achilles tendon stretches
NSAIDs
Cast immobilization
Surgery not indicated

965
Q

What is Osgood Schlatter’s disease?

A

Tibial tubercle apophysitis
Ages 12-15yo
Running and jumping sports

966
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Osgood Schlatter? What provocative test can be performed?

A

Anterior knee pain, worse w kneeling
Enlarged tib tubercle
Provocative test: pain w resisted knee extension

967
Q

What are typical XR findings of Osgood Schlatter?

A

Irregular, fragmented tibial tubercle

968
Q

What is the DDx of suspected Osgood Schlatter disease?

A

Sinding-Larsen-Johansson syndrome: inferior patella apophysitis
Proximal tibial osteochondroma
Tib tubercle #

969
Q

What is the treatment for Osgood Schlatter disease?

A

NSAIDs
Quads stretching
Cast immobilization

970
Q

What is epiphyseal bracket?

A

AKA delta phalanx. Congenital disorder of epiphysis affecting phalanx. Distal and proximal phalanx connect w extension of epiphysis along the diaphysis. Forms C-shaped curve. Diaphysis appears D-shaped

971
Q

What conditions are associated w epiphyseal bracket? (4)

A
  1. Hallux varus
  2. Clinodactyly
  3. Polydactyly
  4. Apert syndrome
972
Q

What are the treatment options for epiphyseal bracket?

A

Pre-op splinting - loosen soft tissues
1. Physiolysis and fat interposition: skeletally immature. Resect bracket. Leave normal epiphysis at ends
2. Corrective osteotomy: after epiphyseal bracket closure

973
Q

What is congenital hallux varus

A

AKA atavistic great toe
Deformity at 1st MTP. Toe is short + thick
Forms after walking age
Possible causes:
- Abductor hallucis overpowering adductor
- 1st MT bracket epiphysis

974
Q

What are XR findings in congenital hallux varus?

A
  1. Short + thick 1st MT
  2. Possible epiphyseal bracket
975
Q

True or False: congenital hallux valgus can be managed w observation only

A

False. Should surgically correct in infancy. Worsens w time

976
Q

What are treatment options for congenital hallux varus? (2)

A
  1. Adductor hallucis release: mild deformity
  2. Physiolysis and fat interposition of epiphyseal bracket
  3. Farmer technique: create syndactyly between hallux + 2nd toe
977
Q

What is toe syndactyly? What conditions is it associated with? Does it cause functional disability?

A

Fusion of bone or skin due to incomplete apoptosis in utero
Autosomal dominant
Assoc w Down syndrome + Klippel-Feil
Cosmetic concern only

978
Q

What is the treatment for toe syndactyly?

A

Observation: for simple syndactyly (soft tissue only)
Digit release: for complex syndactyly (bone fusion)

979
Q

What is toe polydactyly? Which toes are most commonly affected? Does it cause functional disability? What is the treatment?

A

Extra toes. Most commonly affects postaxial side
Issues w shoes
Treatment:
- Observation for postaxial or central toes
- Ablation for malaligned toes, esp if preaxial. Usually ablate border digit

980
Q

What is toe oligodactyly? Which side is most commonly affected?

A

Absent toes
Most common: lateral rays

981
Q

What conditions are associated w toe oligodactyly?

A
  1. Fibular hemimelia
  2. Tarsal coalition
  3. VACTERL
  4. Fanconi
  5. Hand and foot: polydactyly, syndactyly, brachydactyly, constriction ring
982
Q

What is brachymetatarsia? Which toe is most commonly affected?

A

Hypoplasia of one or more toes
Most common: 4th MT

983
Q

What conditions are associated w brachymetatarsia?

A
  1. Down syndrome
  2. Turner’s
  3. Larsen
  4. Diastrophic dwarfism
984
Q

What are XR findings in brachymetatarsia?

A

Shortened MT
Disrupted metatarsal parabola

985
Q

What is the treatment for brachymetatarsia?

A
  • Shoe modification: wider shoes
  • Metatarsal lengthening
  • Amputation
986
Q

What is local gigantism (macrodactyly)? What are possible etiologies?

A

Macrodactyly of a finger or toe
Possible etiology
- Neurofibromatosis
- AV malformation
- Tumor
- Acromegaly
- Proteus

987
Q

What are the treatment options of toe macrodactyly?

A
  • Observation
  • Epiphysiodesis vs bony/soft tissue reduction
  • Amputation
988
Q

What is the cause of overlapping toes? What toe is most commonly affected?

A

Toe overlaps w another due to EDL contracture
Most common: 5th toe

989
Q

What are the treatment options for overlapping toes?

A
  1. Passive stretching and buddy taping
  2. Surgical correction:
    - Butler procedure: release EDL
    - Create syndactyly w 4th toe
990
Q

What is congenital curly toe? What is the cause? Which toes are most commonly affected?

A

Flexion + varus deformity of IP joint
Due to FDL + FDB contracture
Most common - lateral 3 toes

991
Q

What is the treatment of congenital curly toes?

A
  • Observation
  • Flexor tenotomy
992
Q

What are the 3 signal centers of the limb bud during embryonic development?

A
  1. Apical ectodermal ridge (AER)
  2. Zone of polarizing activity
  3. Wnt signalling center
993
Q

What is the AER and how does it affect limb development? What abnormalities are associated w a defective AER?

A

Proximal-distal development. Secretes FGF
Defective AER causes limb truncation such as:
- Central deficiency (cleft hand)
- Radial deficiency (radial clubhand)

994
Q

What is the zone of polarizing activity and how does it affect limb development?

A

Secretes shh for anterior-posterior (radioulnar) axis
High shh on ulnar side: 5th finger development
Low shh on radial side: thumb development

995
Q

What abnormalities are associated w a defective zone of polarizing activity?

A

Ulnar abnormalities: too much shh causes ulnar polydactyly, too little causes oligodactyly
Radial abnormality: too much shh causes no thumb

996
Q

What is radial deficiency?

A

AKA radial clubhand. Longitudinal deficiency of radius
Often also deficient thumb

997
Q

What syndromes are associated w radial deficiency?

A
  1. TAR
  2. Fanconi anemia
  3. Holt-Oram syndrome
  4. VACTERYL
998
Q

What is TAR?

A

Thrombocytopenia, Absent Radius
Autosomal recessive
Assoc w Trisomy 18
Thumb is present

999
Q

What is Fanconi anemia?

A

Autosomal recessive. Life threatening
Causes pancytopenia. Need CBC to workup
Need bone marrow transplant to survive

1000
Q

What is Holt Oram syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant
Causes cardiac deficits: atrial/septal defects, arrythmias
Workup w echo

1001
Q

What tests should be ordered to rule out associated conditions in radial deficiency?

A
  1. CBC
  2. Renal US
  3. Echo
  4. Chromosomal challenge test: detects Fanconi between bone marrow failure
1002
Q

What is VACTERYL?

A

Vertebral anomalies
Anal atresia
Cardiac abnormalities
Tracheoesophageal fistula
Renal agenesis
Limb defects

1003
Q

What is the Bayne and Klug classification?

A

Types of radial deficiency
1. Deficient distal epiphysis
2. Deficient distal + proximal epiphysis
3. Partial absence: proximal radius is present
4. Absent. Most common

1004
Q

What is the clinical presentation of radial deficiency?

A
  1. Hand and wrist are perpendicular towards radial side
  2. Hypoplastic or absent thumb common
  3. Elbow ROM may be limited
1005
Q

What are the treatment options for radial deficiency?

A
  1. Passive stretching
  2. Observation
  3. Wrist centralization
  4. Wrist radialization
1006
Q

What are the indications and goals of passive stretching for radial deficiency?

A

Indication: tight radial sided structures
Goal: passive correction of radial wrist deviation. Needed preop

1007
Q

What are the indications for observation of radial deficiency?

A
  1. Minimal deformity
  2. Good functional compensation
  3. No elbow ROM (stuck in extension): rely on radial deviation for feeding
  4. Biceps function deficient (^ same reasoning)
1008
Q

What are goals of operative management for radial deficiency? Ideally, at what age should it be surgically treated?

A

Goals:
- Limb length
- Straighten forearm
- Reconstruct thumb
Forearm and thumb should be staged procedures
May need preoperative stretching of radial tissues before wrist realignment
Wrist alignment at 6-12mo, then thumb procedure 6mo later
Complete all reconstruction by 18mo

1009
Q

What sort of elbow functional is required if considering reconstructive surgery for radial deficiency?

A

Good elbow ROM, intact biceps function

1010
Q

Radial structures need to be stretching preoperatively when considering wrist realignment for radial deviation. What are some ways of doing this?

A

Need to be able to passively correct radial wrist deviation
Splinting
Ex-fix distraction device

1011
Q

What are contraindications to wrist realignment surgery for radial deficiency?

A
  1. Older kids w good functional compensation
  2. Elbow extension contracture or poor biceps function. They relay on radial deviation for feeding
1012
Q

When performing wrist realignment surgery for radial deviation, what soft tissue structures may tether the wrist and prevent reduction? (4)

A
  1. Radial wrist extensors
  2. Brachioradialis
  3. FCR
  4. Radial anlage
    Resect anlage. Release distal insertions of these tendons ^
1013
Q

For wrist realignment surgery for radial deficiency: if you are still unable to reduce the wrist after releasing soft tissue tethers, what are your next options?

A
  1. Shortening: distal ulnar shaving or carpal resection
  2. Ex-fix soft tissue distraction device
1014
Q

Describe the general principles of wrist centralization for radial deficiency?

A

Align ulna w D3
Temporarily fix w pin through D3 to carpus to ulna
Transfer ECU distally. Transfer FCU to dorsal wrist

1015
Q

Describe the general principles of wrist radialization for radial deficiency

A

Overcorrect radial deviation
Align ulna w D2
Transfer FCR, brachioradialis and radial wrist extensors ulnarly

1016
Q

What conditions are associated w thumb deficiency?

A
  1. Radial deficiency
  2. TAR
  3. Fanconi anemia
  4. Holt Oram
  5. VACTERYL
1017
Q

What is the Blauth classification?

A

Grades of thumb deficiency
1. All structures present, just small
2. All bony structures present. Unstable MCP and thenar hypoplasia
3. Deficient metacarpal and abnormal FPL/EPL
3A. stable CMC joint
3B. unstable CMC
4. Floating thumb (pouce flottant). No metacarpal
5. Completely absent

1018
Q

What is the clinical presentation of thumb hypoplasia? (6)

A
  1. Smaller or absent thumb
  2. Excessive MCP joint abduction
  3. Hypoplastic thenar muscles
  4. Pollex abductus: abnormal connection between FPL + EPL
  5. Webspace tightness
  6. Assess if MCP or CMC joint unstable
1019
Q

What tests should be ordered to rule out associated conditions in thumb hypoplasia? (4)

A
  1. CBC
  2. Renal US
  3. Echo
  4. Chromosomal challenge test: detects Fanconi between bone marrow failure
1020
Q

List the treatment options for thumb hypoplasia (4)

A
  1. Observation
  2. Opponensplasty
  3. Opponensplasty and 1st MCP stabilization
  4. Ablation and pollicization
1021
Q

What are the indications for observation in the management of thumb hypoplasia?

A

Blauth type 1 (all structures present but hypoplastic), as long as there is sufficient thumb abduction

1022
Q

What are the indications for opponensplasty in the management of thumb hypoplasia? What tendons are used?

A

Blauth type 1 (all structures present but hypoplastic) w insufficient thumb abduction
1. FDS of F4
2. Abductor digiti minimi
Transferred to APB
Note: if opponensplasty done for medial n palsy, EIP is also an option

1023
Q

What are the indications for opponensplasty and 1st MCP stabilization? Describe the general principles of the procedure

A

Indications: Blauth type 2 (all bones present but unstable MCP) and 3A (hypoplastic MC, stable CMC jt)
Must also do webspace deepening w z-plasty
3 options for MCP stabilization:
1. MCP fusion
2. UCL reconstruction w FDS tendon from opponensplasty
3. UCL reconstruction w free tendon graft

1024
Q

What are the indications for ablation and pollicization in the management of thumb hypoplasia? Describe the general principles

A

Indications: type 3B - 5
Shorten D2 metacarpal
Rotate and pronate: 120deg pronation, 4deg abduction, 15deg extension
Reattach and balance muscles

1025
Q

What is ulnar deficiency? Which joints are unstable as a result?

A

AKA ulnar clubhand
Usually unstable elbow and stable wrist. But can be vice versa
10x less common than radial deficiency

1026
Q

What conditions are associated w ulnar deficiency?

A

Not associated w systemic conditions like radial deficiency
1. PFFD
2. Fibular deficiency
3. Scoliosis
4. Phocomelia
5. Hand abnormalities: most have absent ulnar digits

1027
Q

What is the clinical presentation of ulnar deficiency?

A

Shortened, bowed forearm
Decreased elbow function
Absent ulnar digits

1028
Q

What is the Bayne classification?

A

Types of ulnar deficiency
0: hand deficiencies only
1: smaller ulna and both physis present
2: part of ulna missing (usually distal end)
3: absent ulna
4: radiohumeral synostosis

1029
Q

What are treatment options for the management of ulnar deficiency?

A
  1. Stretching and splinting
  2. Radial head resection for one bone forearm. If syndactyly present then stage and do syndactyly release first. Improves stability but lose forearm ROM
  3. Radiohumeral synostosis osteotomy
1030
Q

What is madelung deformity? What is the inheritance pattern?

A

Disrupted distal radius physis (ulnar/volar aspect) due to tethering by Vicker’s ligament
Autosomal dominant
Results in deficient growth, causing
- Excessive radial inclination and volar tilt
- Ulnar carpal impaction (positive ulnar variance)

1031
Q

What is Vicker’s ligament?

A

Pathologic short volar radiolunate ligament that causes tethering. Results in madelung deformity

1032
Q

What is the clinical presentation of madelung deformity?

A
  • Asymptomatic until adolescent
  • Ulnar impaction
  • Medial n irritation
  • Restricted prosupination
  • Carpus dislocates radial and volar
1033
Q

What are typical XR findings in madelung deformity?

A
  1. Dorsal/volar bowing of radius
  2. Excessive radial inclination and volar tilt
  3. Positive ulnar variance
  4. DRUJ displaced dorsally
  5. V-shaped deformity at DRUJ with lunate herniated at apex
  6. Carpus subluxed radial and volar
1034
Q

What are the treatment options for madelung deformity?

A
  1. Activity modification: avoid repetitive impact. NWB until pain improves
  2. Physiolysis w Vicker ligament release
  3. Radial corrective osteotomy and ulnar shortening osteotomy
  4. DRUJ arthroplasty: controversial. Indicated when DRUJ instability in additional to usual pain and limited ROM
1035
Q

Describe the general principles of physiolysis in the management of madelung deformity

A

Volar approach
Release Vicker’s ligament
Bar resection and fat grafting

1036
Q

Describe the general principles of radial corrective osteotomy in the management of madelung deformity

A

Volar approach
Dome osteotomy: allows coronal and sagittal correction
Distal ulnar shortening osteotomy
2016, 2014, 2013

1037
Q

RC: All of the following are true regarding Madelung’s deformity, except
A. Caused by an abnormality of the volar aspect of the distal radius growth plate
B. There will be ulnar positive variance
C. Caused by an abnormality of the dorsal ulnar aspect of the distal radius growth plate
D. The carpus will dislocate volarly

A

Answer: C
Madelung due to abnormal volar and ulnar aspect of distal radius physis

1038
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of congenital radial head dislocation

A
  1. Asymptomatic
  2. Limited ROM, esp in extension and supination. AKA pronation contracture
  3. Prominent radial head, posterior dislocation
  4. Bilateral
    Differentiate from traumatic dislocation
1039
Q

What are the treatment options for congenital radial head dislocation?

A
  • Observation: 1st line
  • Radial head resection: in adulthood for pain, may improve ROM
1040
Q

RC: a child presents w a congenital radial head dislocation. What is true about treatment w radial head excision?
A. She will develop cubitus valgus
B. Her radius will migrate proximally
C. She is likely to develop a radioulnar synostosis
D. The radial head will regrow

A

Answer: likely D
Much discussion about this. Complications of excision include cubitus valgus, ulnar neuropathy, proximal migration, synostosis and reformation of the radial head. Reformation is the most common complication
2016

1041
Q

What is congenital radioulnar synostosis? What is the inheritance pattern?

A

Proximal bony bridge between radius and ulna. Due to failure of separation in utero
Forearm starts as single cartilaginous anlage that divides from distal to proximal
Autosomal dominant

1042
Q

What is the clinical presentation of congenital radioulnar synostosis?

A
  1. Diagnosed at 6yo when noticed by parents
  2. Limited prosupination, becomes fixed at 30deg pronation
  3. Compensatory motions by shoulders and wrists
1043
Q

What are typical XR findings in congenital radioulnar synostosis? (2)

A
  1. Proximal synostosis
  2. Radial head may be dislocated or malformed
1044
Q

What is the Cleary classification?

A

Types of congenital radioulnar synostosis
1. No osseous synostosis
2. Osseous synostosis
3. Long osseous synostosis. Radial head hypoplastic, posteriorly dislocated
4. Short osseous synostosis w mushroom-shaped radial head, anteriorly dislocated

1045
Q

What are the treatment options for congenital radioulnar synostosis?

A
  1. Observation
  2. Synostosis excision
  3. Forearm derotational osteotomy
1046
Q

What are the indications for observation in the management of congenital radioulnar synostosis?

A

Asymptomatic and unilateral

1047
Q

What are the indications for surgical management in congenital radioulnar synostosis?

A
  • Functionally limiting
  • Severe pronation >60deg
  • Bilateral
1048
Q

Describe the general principles of synostosis excision in the management of congenital radioulnar synostosis. What are the outcomes?

A

Excise synostosis
Interpose w vascularized fat
Outcomes: slight gain in ROM but generally unsatisfactory
No graft interposition causes 100% recurrence

1049
Q

Describe the general principles of forearm derotational osteotomy for congenital radioulnar synostosis

A

Perform at 5yo
1. Osteotomy: 3 options
- Radial and ulnar diaphysis at synostosis
- Radial and ulnar diaphysis distal to synostosis and at different levels
- Distal radius diaphysis alone
2. Correction: immediately at osteotomy, delayed 10d after osteotomy, or gradually w circular exfix
3. Stabilize correction: cast alone, circular exfix or per pins

1050
Q

What are the risks of doing an osteotomy at the synostosis in the management of congenital radioulnar synostosis?

A

Narrow space. Risk of
- Soft tissue tightness
- Loss of correction
- Neurovascular compromise

1051
Q

What are the benefits of doing the radial and ulnar osteotomies at different levels in the management of congenital radioulnar synostosis?

A

Distributes rotational correction so
- Less soft tissue tightness
- Less neurovasc risk

1052
Q

List specific complications associated w surgical management of radioulnar synostosis

A
  1. Synostosis recurrence: less w vascularized fat graft
  2. Malrotation/loss of correction due to casting after osteotomy
  3. Compartment syndrome: assoc w large rotational corrections
  4. Neuro deficit, esp PIN. Higher risk w synostosis osteotomy, immediate correction, large correction
1053
Q

RC: What is true regarding congenital radioulnar synostosis?
A. Supination contracture
B. Does not improve w resection
C. Is typically in the distal or medial forearm
D. 2:1 male to female ratio

A

Answer: B (does not improve w resection)
This is the most true answer. Causes pronation contracture. Resection w interposition is generally unsatisfactory w only slight gain in ROM.
Typically occurs at proximal forearm
3:2 male to female ratio.

1054
Q

What is cleft hand?

A

Lobster claw due to absent central digits
Usually bilateral, absent metacarpals. May have syndactyly

1055
Q

What is symphalangism?

A

Congenital digital stiffness. Due to failure of separation of IP joints
More common in ulnar digits

1056
Q

What is the treatment for symphalangism?

A

Observation. Usually adequate function.
Capsulectomy and IP joint arthroplasty not effective
Osteotomy and arthrodesis rarely needed

1057
Q

What is camptodactyly?

A

Congenital digital flexion, usually at 5th PIP joint
Possible causes
- Abnormal lumbrical insertion/origin
- Abnormal FDS insertion

1058
Q

What is the Benson classification?

A

Types of camptodactyly
1. Isolated to 5th finger and presents in infancy. Most common
2. Isolated to 5th finger and presents in adolescence
3. Severe contractures of multiple digits. Presents at birth and assoc w a syndrome

1059
Q

What is the treatment of camptodactyly?

A

Depending on Benson type:
1. Stretching and splinting
2. FDS transfer to lateral band if PIP extension achieved w active MCP extension (tenodesis)
3. Nonop. After maturity, can do corrective osteotomy and fusion if functional deficit

1060
Q

What is clinodactyly?

A

Congenital curve of finger. Most common in 5th middle phalanx
Assoc a Down’s syndrome
Significant angulation due to bracket epiphysis (delta phalanx)

1061
Q

What is the treatment of clinodactyly?

A

Observation for most cases. Opening osteotomy if digit encroaches on adjacent digit

1062
Q

What is finger syndactyly? Which fingers are most common?

A

Failure of apoptosis to separate fingers
Most common: D3/4 > D4/5

1063
Q

What conditions are associated w finger syndactyly?

A
  1. Acrosyndactyly: digits fuse distally, fenestrations proximally
  2. Poland syndrome
  3. Apert syndrome
  4. Carpenter syndrome: craniofacial malformation, obesity and syndactyly
1064
Q

Describe the finger syndactyly classification

A
  • Simple: only soft tissue
  • Complex: bony fusion
  • Complications: accessory phalanges or abnormal bones
  • Complete: skin extends to finger tips
  • Incomplete: skin fusion doesn’t extend to tips
1065
Q

At what age should finger syndactyly release be performed?

A

Acrosyndactyly: as neonate
Syndactyly: at 1yo
Bilateral syndactyly: do simultaneously if <18mo (less active), staged if >18mo (more active, difficult to immobilize both)

1066
Q

What are the general principles of finger syndactyly release?

A
  • Do all releases before school age
  • If multiple digits, stage 1 side of finger at a time to avoid compromising vasculature
  • Release digits w significant length differences first
  • Release border digits first as big differences in growth rates (D4/5, thumb/D2)
  • Can release D3/4 later
  • Zigzag flaps, dorsal flap reconstructs webspace
  • Only absorbable sutures (less inflammation)
1067
Q

Regarding syndactyly release, what is the most common surgical complication?

A

Web creep. Treatment: reconstruct webspace

1068
Q

RC: What complication is associated w surgical treatment of syndactyly?
A. Web creep
B. Nerve injury
C. Vascular injury
D. Growth arrest

A

Answer: A (web creep)

1069
Q

RC: A young patient presents w syndactyly. What is true?
A. Complex syndactyly means that nerves are commonly involved
B. Synonychia cannot be surgically corrected
C. Complete syndactyly extends to the PIP joint
D. Reconstruction is indicated to improve function

A

Answer: A

1070
Q

What is Poland syndrome?

A

Congenital disorder associated w chest wall hypoplasia and upper extremity disorders

1071
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Poland syndrome?

A
  1. Chest hypoplasia or absence of: pecs, deltoid, serratus, lat dorsi
  2. Sprengel’s
  3. Scoliosis
  4. Dextrocardia
  5. Radioulnar synostosis
  6. Hand abnormalities: syndactyly, symbrachydactyly, symphalangism, etc
1072
Q

What is Apert syndrome? What is the clinical presentation?

A

Mutated FGFR2 gene
1. Bilateral complex syndactyly of hands and feet. (Rosebud hands)
2. Symphalangism
3. Radioulnar synostosis
4. Craniosynostosis: premature cranial fusion causing flattened skull
5. Hypertelorism: increased distance between paired body parts (wide set eyes)

1073
Q

What is finger polydactyly?

A

Finger duplication
Preaxial: thumb
Postaxial: 5th finger
Central

1074
Q

What is the Wassel classification?

A

Types of preaxial (thumb) polydactyly
1. Bifid distal phalanx
2. Duplicated distal phalanx
3. Bifid proximal phalanx
4. Duplicated proximal phalanx. Most common
5. Bifid metacarpal
6. Duplicated metacarpal
7. Triphalangia

1075
Q

What conditions are associated w thumb polydactyly?

A
  • Pollex abductus: connected EPL and FPL tendons
  • Wassell type 6 (duplicated MC) associated w Holt Oram, Fanconi
1076
Q

What are the operative options and indications for the management of thumb polydactyly?

A

Type 1 combination: type 1+2 (bifid or duplicated distal phalanx). Combine into tissues 1 digit
Type 2 combination: type 3 + 4 (bifid or duplicated proximal phalanx). Ablate lesser digit (radial one). Preserve the other
Type 3 combination: types 5-7 (bifid/duplicated MC or triphalangia). One digit has better proximal component. Other has better distal component. Segmental distal transfer (on-top plasty)

1077
Q

What is postaxial polydactyly? What are the types? What is the treatment?

A

Duplication of D5. 10x more common in Blacks. Autosomal dominant
Type A: well formed digit. Treatment: type 2 combination. Preserve radial digit. Ablate ulnar digit
Type B: rudimentary skin tag. Treatment: amputate rudimentary digit

1078
Q

What is central finger polydactyly and how may it affect function? What is the treatment?

A

Duplication of central fingers. Associated w syndactyly, which may cause angular deformity and impair motion
Treatment: osteotomy to prevent angular deformity

1079
Q

What is finger macrodactyly? Which fingers are most commonly affected?

A

Congenital digit enlargement
D3 > thumb > D4 > D5

1080
Q

What conditions are associated w macrodactyly?

A

Maffucci
Ollier

1081
Q

What are treatment options and indications for the management of macrodactyly?

A
  1. Observation: mild cases
  2. Epiphysiodesis: single digit after reaching adult length of same sex parent
  3. Osteotomies and shortening: thumb or multiple digits involved, severe deformity
  4. Amputation: not reconstructible
1082
Q

What is constrictive ring syndrome? Which fingers are most commonly affected?

A

AKA Streeter’s dysplasia
In utero, loose bands of ruptured amnion entangle fetus. Causes hand deformities: syndactyly, acrosyndactyly, amputation
Most common: central digits

1083
Q

What conditions are associated w constrictive ring syndrome?

A
  1. Craniofacial defects, cleft palate
  2. Cardiac defects
  3. Clubfoot
1084
Q

What is the Patterson classification? What is the treatment for each type?

A

Type of constrictive ring syndrome
1. Simple constriction ring. Mild indent from ring. No other deformity. Observation or release band if compromises circulation
2. Deformity distal to ring: hypoplasia or lymphedema. Tx: circumferential z-plasty
3. Acrosyndactyly or syndactyly: fusion distal to ring. Tx: syndactyly release
4. Amputation. Tx: reconstruction

1085
Q

True of False: in kids, trigger thumb is more common than trigger finger

A

True. Thumb is 10x more affected
However, it is still relatively uncommon

1086
Q

What is pediatric trigger thumb?

A

Acquired. Mismatch between thickened FPL and A1 pulley. Disrupts tendon gliding
Tendon sheath is normal

1087
Q

What is the clinical presentation of pediatric trigger thumb?

A
  • Fixed flexion contracture: thumb doesn’t often actually trigger (JAAOS 2012)
  • Nodule at MCP (Notta nodule)
1088
Q

What are treatment options for pediatric trigger thumb?

A
  1. Passive extension exercises
  2. Extension splinting
  3. A1 release
1089
Q

What are the indications for nonoperative management of pediatric trigger thumb? What are the outcomes of nonop?

A

Indication: flexible deformity
50% resolve before 2yo. Few resolve if older than 2yo
Intermittent extension splinting is more successful than passive stretching alone

1090
Q

What are the indications for operative management of pediatric trigger thumb? Describe the general principles of the technique

A

Indication: fixed deformity. >2yo (spontaneous recovery unlikely)
Transverse incision over MCP flexion crease
Divide A1
Directly visualize passive IP extension for smooth gliding

1091
Q

What are anatomic causes of pediatric trigger finger? What are associated conditions?

A
  1. Thickened FDS/FDP
  2. FDP caught at FDS decussation
  3. A1, A2, A3 constriction
    Associated w mucopolysaccharidoses (Hunter and Hurler)
    The tendon sheath is normal
1092
Q

Describe the general principles of pediatric trigger finger surgical management. How does it differ from adult management?

A

Bruner incision over A1
Release A1 and resect 1 slip of FDS (usually ulnar)
Assess gliding. May also need to release
- Remaining FDS slip
- A2
- A3
In adults, A1 release alone is sufficient

1093
Q

What complication is associated w release of pediatric trigger thumb?

A

Injury to radial digital n of thumb

1094
Q

RC: All of the following are true regarding congenital trigger thumb, except
A. The thumb rarely triggers
B. Tendon sheath is relatively normal
C. It is also known as congenital clasp thumb
D. Rarely bilateral

A

Answer: C
This question is a bit of a mess but C is definitely wrong
The thumb doesn’t trigger, usually presents as fixed flexion deformity
The FPL tendon is thickened. The sheath is normal
It does show up bilaterally 25% of cases (JAAOS 2012)
2016

1095
Q

What is congenital clasped thumb? What is the pathophysiology?

A

Congenital flexion/adduction deformity that persists beyond 3mo
Due to deficiency of EPB (most common) or EPL or both

1096
Q

What are risk factors for congenital clasped thumb?

A
  1. Consanguinity
  2. Family hx
1097
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of congenital clasped thumb (4)

A
  1. Persistent flexion/adduction after 3mo
  2. 1st webspace contracture
  3. Adductor pollicis contracture
  4. 1st MCP joint instability
1098
Q

What conditions are associated w congenital clasped thumb? (3)

A
  1. Congenital vertical talus
  2. Congenital clubfeet
  3. Arthrogryposis
1099
Q

What is the Tsuyuguchi classification?

A

Types of congenital clasped thumb
1. Supple clasped thumb. Can passively correct
2. Clasped thumb w contracture. Cannot passively correct
3. Rigid clasped thumb assoc w arthrogryposis

1100
Q

What are the treatment options for congenital clasped thumb? (3)

A
  1. Splinting and stretching
  2. EIP to EPL tendon transfer
  3. Thumb reconstruction
1101
Q

What are the indications for serial splinting and stretching for congenital clasped thumb?

A

1st line treatment for all types. Start at 6mo
Good results for Tsuyuguchi type 1 (supple thumb) if EPL or EPB present

1102
Q

What are the indications for EIP to EPL tendon transfer for congenital clasped thumb?

A

Type 1 and 2

1103
Q

What are the indications for thumb reconstruction for congenital clasped thumb? What are the general principles of the procedure?

A

Indications: type 2 and 3 (neither are passively correctable)
- 1st webspace widening
- 1st webspace deepening: release thenars and MCP capsule
- FPL z-lengthening in forearm
- EIP to EPL tendon transfer

1104
Q

RC: Which of the following is not associated w the development of future OA in the hip?
A. Cam deformity
B. SCFE
C. Pincer

A

Answer: C
Pincer doesn’t cause OA. CHECK study, Agricola 2013

1105
Q

RC: Which of the following is not associated w an eye condition?
A. Neurofibromatosis
B. Achondroplasia
C. Marfan
D. Homocysteineuria

A

Answer: B. Achondroplasia
NF: optic glioma, iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules)
Marfan: superior lens dislocation
Homocysteineuria: inferior lens dislocation

1106
Q

What is not true regarding bisphosphonate use in kids?
A. Good oral bioavailability
B. Creates sclerotic lines below the physis
C. Does not cause growth arrest
D. Medication stays hidden in the bone for a long time after administration

A

Answer: A
Oral bisphosphonates have poor bioavailability (<5% absorbed). Most are given IV
Shows characteristic sclerotic lines
It binds to bones and is released slowly. Half life up to 10yrs
Does not cause growth arrest

1107
Q

After what age is toe-walking considered pathologic?

A

2yo
Before 2yo, toe walking may be part of normal gait development.

1108
Q

What is normal ankle ROM arc?

A

20deg dorsiflexion
40deg plantarflexion

1109
Q

Describe the 3 rockers of ankle motion during gait

A
  1. Heel strike and then ankle plantarflexes to lower foot. Eccentric tib ant contraction
  2. Ankle at relative dorsiflexion as tibia moves forward over foot. Eccentric gastroc-soleus contraction
  3. Push-off. Ankle plantarflexes. Concentric gastroc-soleus contraction
1110
Q

How are the 3 rockers of ankle motion affected during toe walking?

A

Absent 1st rocker
Increased plantarflexion during 3rd rocker

1111
Q

What is the DDx of idiopathic toe walking? (9)

A
  1. CP
  2. Muscular dystrophy
  3. Neuroaxis abnormalities: tethered cord, diastematomyelia, spina bifida
  4. Autism
  5. Schizophrenia
  6. Global developmental delay
  7. Charcot-Marie-Tooth
  8. Ankylosing spondylitis
  9. LLD
1112
Q

True or False: many idiopathic toe walkers have normal dorsiflexion

A

TRUE

1113
Q

What are options for nonoperative management of idiopathic toe walking? Which options is superior?

A
  1. Observation: kids <2yo
  2. Physiotherapy
  3. Braces, night splints, walking cast
  4. Botox and serial casting
    Variable outcomes in studies. We don’t know yet which option is best
1114
Q

What is the operative management of idiopathic toe walking? What are the indications?

A

Gastroc-soleus release: recession vs TAL. Level depends on Silfverskiold test
Indications: fixed equinus contracture or failed nonop

1115
Q

What is the risk of TAL for the management idiopathic toe walking that is less of a concern w gastroc recession?

A

TAL risks overcorrection. May weaken plantarflexors and cause calcaneal gait

1116
Q

RC: All of the following are associated w idiopathic toe walking except:
A. Decreased passive dorsiflexion
B. Increased tone in upper extremities
C. Autism
D. Learning disability

A

Answer: B
Dorsiflexion may be limited, but can also be normal in many
Autism and developmental delay are associated
Increased tone in the upper extremities may be due to a neuromuscular cause (like CP). CP may cause toe walking and so this would not be idiopathic

1117
Q

RC: 4yo presents w toe walking, which is true?
A. Thought to be autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Most are due to neurologic etiology
C. Usually resolve without treatment

A

Answer: A?
Most are truly idiopathic. They do not resolve without treatment. Some studies suggest autosomal dominant inheritance
2017

1118
Q

What is the most common location for a knee OCD lesion?

A

Posterolateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle

1119
Q

RC: List 8 risk factors that would make a patient more prone to receive a blood transfusion in the context of pediatric spine surgery

A
  1. Low preop hgb
  2. Coagulopathy
  3. Antiseizure medications (valproic acid)
  4. Neuromuscular scoliosis: most important
  5. Larger deformity
  6. Long OR time
  7. Multiple osteotomies
  8. More levels involved
1120
Q

RC: What is the inheritance pattern of duchenne muscular dystrophy? What protein is involved?

A

X-linked recessive. Dystrophin gene

1121
Q

RC: What is the deformity of a typical clubfoot?
A. Pronation, forefoot adduction, hindfoot varus, plantarflexed
B. Pronation, forefoot adduction, hindfoot valgus, plantarflexed
C. Pronation, forefoot abduction, hindfoot varus, dorsiflexed
D. Pronation, forefoot adduction, hindfoot valgus, dorsiflexed

A

Answer: A. Pronation. Forefoot adduction. Hindfoot varus. Plantarflexed

1122
Q

RC: What is not correct w respect to pediatric avulsion fractures?
A. The majority of ASIS injuries can be managed nonoperative
B. MRI is necessary to diagnose all of these injuries
C. Tibial tubercle fractures usually need operative management
D. The apophyseal region is the weakest

A

Answer: B. CT/MRI is only required in 2% of these injuries
Most can be diagnosed via XR
ASIS avulsion #s: nonop
Tib tubercle #s do need OR depending on displacement and type
Apophysis is indeed the weakest region