Thomas Flashcards

1
Q

binds to beta-tubulin subunit of tubulin and blocks DISSASEMBLY of microtubule bundles. Treats esophageal cancer

A

Paclitaxel and Doxitaxel

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2
Q

Major Contraindication for Gemcitabine

A

radiation therapy

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3
Q

First choice agent for metastatic pancreatic cancer; Also for esophageal cancer. Active against dividing and non-dividing cells.

A

Gemcitabine

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4
Q

Oral prodrug for 5FU

A

Capecitabine

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5
Q

Blocks thymidilate synthase .:. prevents production of thymidine

A

5FU (.:. Capecitabine also)

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6
Q

Give 5FU with

A

Leucovorin and Methotrexate, Oxaliplatin, or irinotecan

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7
Q

Orally active reversible inhibitor of EGFR - tyrosine kinase.

A

Erlotinib

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8
Q

chimeric mab that binds to EGFR AND has Ab dependent cellular cyotoxicity

A

Cetuximab

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9
Q

Humanized mab that blocks binding of EGFR

A

Panitumumab

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10
Q

It’s a trap!

A

Bevacizumab

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11
Q

humanized mab against VEGF; Use with FolFIri

A

Bevacizumab

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12
Q

Activated by water
alkylator of guanines
MAJOR N/V
Resistance: Mutated mismatch repair

A

Cisplatin

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13
Q

Resistance to Cisplatin

A

1 - over expression of glutathione
2 - Overactive NT excision repair
3 - mutated MMR

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14
Q

oxaliplatin is for treatment of

A

colon cancer

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15
Q

Oxaliplatin is not susceptible to what mechanism of resistance

A

mutated MMR

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16
Q

Indication For Streptozocin

A

treatment of pancreatic carcinoma, stomach, and small intestine

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17
Q

Why is Streptozocin good for pancreatic carcinoma?

A

glucose binds to islets of langerhans

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18
Q

Which is less toxic: streptozocin or carmustine?

A

streptozocin

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19
Q

tricyclic glycopeptide that binds to D-Ala-D-Ala precursor to inhibit transglycosylase. Administered IV only. Poorly absorbed orally

A

Vancomycin

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20
Q

tricyclic glycopeptid. Administered IM and IV. Poorly absorbed orally.

A

Teicoplanin

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21
Q

polypeptide that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis. Used topically in dermatologic and ophthalmic ointments. It interferes with the dephosphorylation of a lipid transport molecule, which carries the building blocks of the peptidoglycan bacterial cell wall. Not absorbed orally

A

bacitracin

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22
Q

Which lasts longer: vancomycin or teicoplanin?

A

teicoplanin

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23
Q

What allows an antibiotic to be oral?

A

ether group - confers H+ resistance

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24
Q

most popular 2nd generation oral cephalosporin

A

cefaclor

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25
Q

Only 3rd gen oral cephalosporin

A

cefpodoxime

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26
Q

Problem with dairy, antacids and tetracyclines

A

chelation = less absorption

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27
Q

Which antibiotic group stay in the system for weeks and why?

A

tetracyclines; Enterohepatic circulation and bile

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28
Q

Major tetracycline tox

A

nepherotox

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29
Q

glycycline, which is a butyl-glycylamido derivative of the tetracycline, minocycline. It is not absorbed orally. Parenteral use only with rapid and wide distribution into tissues. Effective against tetracycline-resistant bacteria.

A

tigecycline

30
Q

Benefits of tigecycline over tetracyclines (2)

A

1 - less affinity for efflux pumps

2 - less nepherotox

31
Q

can be administered orally as the active drug. It affects the hematopoietic system in two ways: a dose-related toxicity that presents as anemia, leukopenia, or thrombocytopenia; and an idiosyncratic response manifested by aplastic anemia, leading in many cases to fatal pancytopenia. Fetuses and young children cannot glucuronidate the drug causing gray baby syndrome.

A

Chloramphenicol

32
Q

Gray baby syndrome

A

Chloramphenicol

33
Q

When do you use Chloramphenicol

A

preggo with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

3rd world meningitis

34
Q

antibiotic class that causes crystaluria

A

sulfonamides

35
Q

MOA of sulfonamides

A

inhibits production of folate, which is made by bacteria and not ppl

36
Q

sulfonamide that can be used solo

A

sulfisoxazole

37
Q

benefit of sulfisoxazole

A

v. soluble .:. no crystaluria

38
Q

Bactrim is made of (2)

A

sulfamethoxazole - trimethaprim

39
Q

Tx of Nontyphoid salmonella

A

ciprofloxin
levofloxin

(For Typhoid: cipro or cetriaxone)

40
Q

Typhoid fever tx

A

Ciprofloxin
ceftriaxone

(For non-typhoid: fluoroquinolones)

41
Q

Shigella tx

A

Ciprofloxin
Levoquin
TMX-sulfa

42
Q

C. jejuni tx

A

Azithromycin

Cipro

43
Q

E. coli tx

A

Ciprofloxin

Levofloxin

44
Q

Yersinia tx

A

Doxycyclin + gentamycin

45
Q

C. Difficile (moderate) tx

A

Metronidazole

2ndary is Nitazoxanide

46
Q

C. dif (severe) tx

A

vancomycin

47
Q

in TMX-Sulfa, where does tox come from?

A

sulfamethoxazole

48
Q

If in doubt, for severe diarrhea, give

A

Cipro or Levafloxin

49
Q

not a macrolide, but binds 50S and inhibits translocation step

A

clindamycin

50
Q

ketolide that is less susceptible to methylase-mediated and efflux-mediated resistance than macrolides like erythromycin or clarithromycin

A

Telithromycin

51
Q

Giardia tx

A

Metronidazole
Tinidazole
paramomycin

52
Q

Entamoeba tx

A

Metronidazole
Tinidazole
paramomycin
iodoquinol

53
Q

Cryptosporidium tx

A

Nitazoxanide

stops PFOR rxn

54
Q

Same MOA as metronidazole, but less GI tox

A

tinidazole

55
Q

interferes with the ferredoxin oxidoreductase (PFOR) enzyme-dependent electron-transfer reaction, which is essential in anaerobic metabolism. No resistance, little toxicity.

A

Nitazoxanide

For cryptosporidium

56
Q

Nematodes tx

A

(Round Worms)
Benzimidazoles
Ivermectin

57
Q

Hookworms tx

A

Benzimidazoles

Ivermectin

58
Q

Trematodes tx

A

(Flukes)
Praziquantel
Metrifonate

59
Q

Cestodes tx

A

(Tape Worms)

Praziquantel

60
Q

In parasites, inhibit microtubule polymerization by binding to parasite beta tubulin; not toxic

A

Benzimidazoles

for nematodes

61
Q

In parasites, causes influx of Ca to produce paralysis of the musculature. Toxcity: dose-related transient abdominal distress.

A

Praziquantel

For cestodes and trematodes

62
Q

In parasites, tonic paralysis of the worm musculature by activating glutamate-gated Cl channels and is well tolerated.

A

Ivermectin

for nematodes

63
Q

In parasites, organophosphate converted to dichlorvos, a cholinesterase inhibitor.

A

Metrofinate

64
Q

Which of these is for HBV:
Adefovir
Oseltamivir
Zidovudine

A

Adefovir

65
Q

Which of these is for HBV:
Fomivirsen
Lamivudine
Nelfinavir

A

Fomivirsen

66
Q

Which of these is for HBV:
Maraviroc
Tenefovir
Zanamivir

A

Tenefovir

67
Q

Which of these is for HBV:
Entecavir
Lopinavir
Vivecon

A

Entecavir

68
Q

Which of these is for HBV:
Amantadine
Bevirimat
Telbivudine

A

Telbivudine

69
Q

Indication for IFN alpha and ribavirin

A

HCV

70
Q

What is VEGF?

A

Vascular endothelial growth factor

71
Q

What is EGFR?

A

epidermal growth factor receptor

72
Q

Name 3 drugs that stop the action of EGFR

A

Erlotinib (oral, via EGFR-TK)
Cetuximab
Panitumumab