Choi Flashcards

1
Q

Antacid that causes CO2 gas, metabolic alkalosis, and Na-fluid retention

A

sodium bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

antacid that causes CO2 gas, metabolic alkalosis, and milk-alkali syndrome

A

calcium carbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

antacid that causes osmotic diarrhea

A

magnesium hydroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

antacid that causes constipation

A

aluminum hydroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pts with *** insufficiency should not take antacids long term

A

renal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Antacids should not be given within 2 hours of doses of tetracyclines, fluoroquinolones, itraconazole, and iron because

A
  • reduced absorption

- affected dissolution or solubility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

inhibits both meal stimulated and nocturnal secretion of acid

A

PPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

inhibits nocturnal acid secretion only

A

H2 blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Explain why you should take PPIs 1 hour before meals (2)

A

1 - PPI is an uncharged prodrug which is capable of crossing the plasma membrane of parietal cells. It is activated by H+, which adds a charge to the PPI. If you take it after a meal, it is activated in the stomach lumen, and will A) not be effective and B) be unable to cross PM.
2 - Parietal cell needs to be in active (stimulated) form in order for PPI to inhibit PP. PPIs have short half life, so it is important to activate parietal cell while PPI is IN the cell and capable of action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

PPIs have a very short half life but a long duration of action. Why?

A

Irreversible inhibitor, .:. in order to regain H+ secretion, you need to produce and insert a new PP into the PM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

PPIs take a few days to produce full effect. Why?

A

Because not all proton pumps are available to be inhibited. Takes multiple cycles to hit hte critical # of PPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

H. pylori triple therapy

A
  • PPI (omexazaprole, lansoprazole, etc)
  • Clarythromycin
  • Metronidazole OR amoxicilline OR tetracycline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

H. pylori quadruple therapy

A
  • PPI OR H2 antagonist
  • metronidazole
  • tetracycline
  • bismuth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

H2 antagonist that can cause gynecomastia, impotence, galactorrhea

A

Cimetidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Black box warning on PPIs

A

Life-threatening hypomagnesia with secondary hypocalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

For Acid - Peptic DZ: salt of sucrose complexed to sulfated aluminum hydroxide

A

Sucralfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

For Acid - Peptic DZ: MOA of sucralfate

A

polymerizes in stomach and forms a wall; stimulates mucosal protaglandin and bicarb secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

For Acid - Peptic DZ: Used for prevention of stress related bleeding in critically ill pts

A

sucralfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Adverse effects of sucralfate

A

constipation (aluminum)

Do not use for prolonged periods with renal insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

For Acid - Peptic DZ: methyl analog of PGE1

A

Misoprostol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

For Acid - Peptic DZ: Pros and Cons of misoprostol

A

Pro: better bioavailability than PGE1
Con: need to take qid (4Xday)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

For Acid - Peptic DZ: Con of PGE1

A

v. unstable. only lasts for minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

C/I for misoprostol; Why?

A

pregnant or fertile female; stimulate uterine contractions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

For Acid - Peptic DZ: Creates a protective layer, may stimulate PG, mucus, bicarb secretion; has direct antimicrobial effects and binds enterotoxins

A

Bismuth compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Adverse effects of bismuth compounds (4)

A

1 - Weird blackness everywhere (stool, tongue)
2 - Avoid with renal insufficiency
3 - Prolonged use can lead to bismuth tox .:. encephalopathy
4 - High dose can lead to salicylate tox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

3 classes of prokinetic drugs

A

1 - cholinomimetics (bethanechol, neostigmine)
2 - D2 antagonists (metoclopramide, domperidone)
3 - Macrolides (erythromycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Prokinetics: stimulates M3 receptors; used in the past to tx gastroparesis

A

bethanecol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Prokinetics: AChE inhibitor; Given IV to hospitalized pts with acute large bowel distention

A

neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Prokinetic class with SE of excessive salivation, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, bradycardia

A

cholinomimetics (bethanecol, neostigmine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Prokinetic class with SE of restlessness, drowsiness, insomnia, anciety, agitation, extrapyramidal effects, tardive dyskinesia, elevated prolactin

A

D2 receptor antagonist (metoclopramide, domperidone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Prokinetic that can cause galactorrhea, gynecomastia, impotence, and menstrual disorders

A

D2 receptor antagonist (metoclopramide, domperidone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

D2 receptor antagonist that does not readily cross the bbb and .:. has fewer neuropsyciatric and extrapyramidal SE

A

domperidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Prokinetic that directly stimulates motilin receptors on GI smooth muscle and promotes the onset of an MMC

A

erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

prokinetic that is given IV for gastroparesis OR prior to endoscopy after an acute upper GI bleed

A

erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Action/Class: Psyllium

A

Laxative

Bulk-forming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Action/Class: methylcellulose

A

Laxative

Bulk-forming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Action/Class: polycarbophil

A

Laxative

Bulk-forming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Action/Class: docusate

A

Laxative

stool surfactant agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Action/Class: glycerine suppository

A

Laxative

stool surfactant agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Action/Class: magnesium hydroxide

A

Osmotic Laxative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Action/Class: sorbitol

A

Osmotic Laxative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Action/Class: lactulose

A

Osmotic Laxative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Action/Class: magnesium citrate

A

Osmotic Laxative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Action/Class: sodium phosphate

A

Osmotic Laxative

45
Q

Action/Class: balanced polyethylene glycol

A

Osmotic Laxative

46
Q

Action/Class: Aloe

A

Laxative

Stimulant

47
Q

Action/Class: Senna

A

Laxative

Stimulant

48
Q

Action/Class: Cascara

A

Laxative

Stimulant

49
Q

Action/Class: bisacodyl

A

Laxative

Stimulant

50
Q

Action/Class: Lubiprostone

A

Laxative

Chloride channel activator

51
Q

Action/Class: Methylnaltrexone

A

Laxative
opioid receptor antagonist
** highlighted in PPT

52
Q

Action/Class: alvimopan

A

Laxative
opioid receptor antagonist
** highlighted in PPT

53
Q

Action/Class: Tegaserod

A

Laxative

5 HT4 agonist

54
Q

Action/Class: Cisapride

A

Laxative
5 HT4 agonist
** highlighted in PPT

55
Q

Action/Class: Prucalopride

A

Laxative

5 HT4 agonist

56
Q

Action/Class: Linaclotide

A

Laxative

Guanylate cyclase C agonist (i.e. CFTR activator)

57
Q

Laxative with potential side effect of long QT

A

cisapride

58
Q

To treat opiod induced constipation

A

methylnaltrexone

59
Q

Action/Class: Loperamide

A

Anti-diarrheal

Opioid agonist

60
Q

Action/Class: Diphenoxylate

A

Antidiarrheal

Opioid agonist

61
Q

Non-Rx Opioid Agnoist for tx of diarrhea

A

loperamide

62
Q

What do you mix with Diphenoxylate to minimize dependence?

A

atropine

63
Q

To treat diarrhea caused by excess fecal bile acids

A

Bile salt-binding resins (cholestyramine, colestipol, colesevelam)

64
Q

To treat effects of endcrine tumor (carcinoid, VIPoma)

A

Octreotide

65
Q

synthetic somatostatin

A

octreotide

66
Q

To tx IBS with constipation

A

Lubiprostone (Cl channel activator)

67
Q

To tx IBS with diarrhea

A

Alosertron (5HT3 antagonist)

68
Q

How often are anticholinergics used for IBS? MOA? Give two examples

A

infrequently

antispasmodic

dicyclomine
Hyoscyamine

69
Q

Action/Class: ONdansetron; granisetron; dolasetron; palonosetron

A

Antiemetic

5HT3 blocker

70
Q

Action/Class: dexamethasone

A

Antiemetic

corticosteroid

71
Q

Action/Class: aprepitant; fosaprepitant

A

Antiemetic

neurokinin receptor antagonist

72
Q

Action/Class: metoclopramide

A

Antiemetic (also prokinetic)

D2 blocker

73
Q

Action/Class: droperidol

A

Antiemetic

D2 blocker

74
Q

Action/Class: promethazine

A

Antiemetic

D2 blocker

75
Q

Action/Class: diphenhydramine

A

Antiemetic (esp for motion sickness)

H1 blocker

76
Q

Action/Class: meclizine

A

Antiemetic

H1 blocker

77
Q

Action/Class: Dronabinol

A

Antiemetic

cannabinoid

78
Q

Action/Class: nabilone

A

Antiemetic

cannabinoid

79
Q

Class profile

Indication: chemotherapy induced nausea and vomiting, postop and post radiation nausea and vomiting
AE: headache, dizziness, constipation, prolongation of QT

A

5 HT3 blockers

ONdansetron; granisetron; dolasetron; palonosetron

80
Q

Class Profile

antiemetic with unknown MOA
Enhances 5HT3 receptor antagonists
prevention of acute and delayed nausea and vomiting in pts receiving moderate to high emetogenic chemotherapy regimens

A

corticosteroids

81
Q

Class profile
antiemetic; May inhibit the metabolism of other drugs metabolized by the CYP3A4 (docetaxel, paclitaxel, etoposide, irinotecan, imatinib, vinblastine, vincristine)
Decreases the INR in patients taking warfarin

A

Neurokinin receptor antagonist (Aprepitant)

82
Q

Action/Class: aprepitant

A

anti-emetic

Neurikinin receptor antagonist

83
Q

Class Profile: Potent antiemetic and sedative properties
Inhibition of dopamine and muscarinic receptors (antiemetic)
Antihistamine (sedation)

A

Phenothiazines

(Prochlorperazine, thethylperazine, Promethazine**)

**highlighted in PPT

84
Q

Action/Class:Promethazine

A

antiemetic
phenothiazine

**highlighted in PPT

85
Q

Class Profile: Central dopaminergic blockade
Post-operative nausea and vomiting, in conjunction with opiates and benzodiazepines for sedation for surgical and endoscopic procedures, for neuroleptanalgesia, for induction and maintenance of general anesthesia
AE - extrapyramidal effects, hypotension, may prolong QT interval

A

Butyrophenone

Droperidol

86
Q

Action/Class: Droperidol

A

Antiemetic

Butyrophenone

87
Q

Action/Class:Metoclopramide, trimethobenzamide

A

antiemetic

substituted benzamide

88
Q

Action/Class: Prochlorperazine, thethylperazine

A

antiemetic

phenothiazine

89
Q

Class Profile:Central dopaminergic blockade
nausea and vomiting from highly emetogenic chemotherapeutic regimen
AE - extrapyramidal effects (restlessness, dystonias, parkinsonian symptoms)

A

substituted benzamide

Metoclopramide, trimethobenzamide

90
Q

Class Profile: Weak antiemetic activity
Particularly useful for the prevention or treatment of motion sickness
AE – sedation, dizziness, confusion, dry mouth, cycloplegia, urinary retention

A

H1 antihistamines and anticholinergic drugs

Diphenhydramine, dimenhydrinate, Meclizine, Hyoscine (aka scopolamine)

91
Q

Antiemetic: antihistamine with minimal anticholinergic, less sedation, prevention of motion sickness and treatment of vertigo due to labyrinth dysfunction

A

Meclizine

92
Q

Antiemetic: antimuscarinic to prevent motion sickness

A

Hyoscine (aka scopolamine)

93
Q

antihistamine and anticholinergic, used in conjunction with other antiemetics for treatment of emesis due to chemotherapy

A

diphenhydramine, dimenhydrinate

94
Q

Antiemetic: Before the initiation of chemotherapy to reduce anticipatory vomiting or vomiting caused by anxiety

A

Benzodiazepines

Lorazepam, diazepam

95
Q

Action/Class: Dronabinol

A

Anti-emetic and appetite stimulant

Cannabinoid

96
Q

Action/Class: Nabilone

A

Anti-emetic

Cannabinoid

97
Q

Therapy for severe IBD

A

TNF antagonists (Infliximab, Adalimumab, Certolizumab)

IV corticosteroids

98
Q

Therapy for moderate IBD

A

TNF antagonists (Infliximab, Adalimumab, Certolizumab)

oral corticosteroids

Methotrexate

Azathioprine/6 MP

99
Q

Therapy for mold IBD

A

Budesonide

Topical corticosteroids

Antibiotics

5-Aminosalicylates

100
Q

Action/Class: Sulfasalazine, balsalazide, olsalazine

A
IBD Therapy (mild)
Aminosalicylates
101
Q

Class Profile:

  • First-line agent for treatment of mild to moderate active ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease
  • Slow acetylators have more frequent and more severe adverse effects
  • Oligospermia
  • Impairs folate absorption and processing (dietary supplementation is recommended)
A

Sulfasalazine

102
Q

Name 3 anti-TNF antibodies for IBD

A

Infliximab
Adalimumab
Certolizumab

103
Q

Which anti-TNF Ab is fully humanized?

A

Adalimumab

Certolizumab (s chimeric, so… whatever. Note the U before the MAB, and that means humanized apparently)

104
Q

Which anti-TNF Ab is chimeric?

A

Infliximab

the I before the MAB signifies chimeric.

105
Q

Blocks alcohol dehydrogenase for

  • excess alcohol consumption
  • tx of ethylene glycol ingestion
  • tx of methanol ingestion
A

fomepizole

106
Q

Blocks aldehyde dehydrogenase to act as a deterrent for alcohol consumption. Poor rates of compliance.

A

Disulfiram

107
Q

For alcohol dependence
Nonselective competitive antagonist of opioid receptors
Reduced risk of relapse

A

Naltrexone

108
Q

For alcohol dependence
NMDA antagonist & GABAA agonist
Reduced risk of relapse

A

Acamprosate