third fiddy

Question 1

101. A user entered a help desk ticket stating the latest calendar updates have not appeared on the user’s corporate mobile device for several days, even though updates do appear on the user’s laptop.

Which of the following actions will MOST likely enable calendar alerts?
a. A. Checking that the ringer volume on the device is high enough to be audible
b. B. Ensuring the corporate password is saved correctly in the calendar application
c. C. Installing a third-party calendar application and synchronizing it with the corporate calendar
d. D. Remotely wiping the mobile device and reinstalling all applications

Answer 1

B. Ensuring the corporate password is saved correctly in the calendar application

Explanation:
If the latest calendar updates are not appearing on the user’s corporate mobile device but are appearing on the user’s laptop, it suggests a synchronization issue between the mobile device’s calendar application and the corporate calendar.

Saving the corporate password correctly in the calendar application is crucial for successful synchronization. If the password is incorrect or outdated, the calendar application may fail to authenticate with the corporate calendar server, leading to a lack of updates on the mobile device.

Question 2

102. A technical lead wants to migrate all common business applications, including email and fileshares, to the cloud.

Which of the following cloud concepts should be used?
a. MaaS
b. PaaS
c. SaaS
d. IaaS

Answer 2

C. SaaS (Software as a Service)

Explanation:
SaaS (Software as a Service) is a cloud computing model where software applications are hosted by a third-party provider and made available to customers over the internet. With SaaS, users can access the software applications via a web browser or thin client without needing to install or maintain the software locally.

In the scenario described, the technical lead wants to migrate all common business applications, including email and fileshares, to the cloud. This aligns with the SaaS model, where applications like email services (e.g., Gmail, Outlook 365) and file sharing services (e.g., Dropbox, Google Drive, OneDrive) are hosted in the cloud and provided to users as services.

Question 3

103. A new version of Windows was released and a piece of software vital to the engineering department will not run on the new version.

Which of the following is the BEST option to enable this department to be able to continue using this software?
a. Do not upgrade any workstations within the organization.
b. Upgrade all workstations and provide a virtual environment for the legacy software.
c. Upgrade all workstations except those used by the engineering department.
d. Purchase new workstations for the engineering department.

Answer 3

B. Upgrade all workstations and provide a virtual environment for the legacy software.

Explanation:
When faced with the scenario where a vital software application essential to the engineering department does not run on a new version of Windows, the best option is to upgrade all workstations organization-wide and provide a virtual environment for the legacy software.

This approach ensures that the organization benefits from the latest version of Windows, including security updates, performance improvements, and new features, while also ensuring that the engineering department can continue using the vital software application.

By providing a virtual environment for the legacy software, such as using virtualization technology like VMware or Hyper-V, the engineering department can run the software on virtual machines that emulate the older version of Windows required by the application. This allows them to continue using the software without compatibility issues on the new version of Windows.

Question 4

104. A technician made several upgrades to a computer and then determined the power supplied by the PSU is insufficient.

Which of the following would MOST likely cause the insufficiency? (Choose two.)
a. Replacing the HDD with an SSD
b. Upgrading the firmware
c. Adding an optical drive
d. Adding more RAM
e. Adding a CMOS battery
f. Upgrading the graphics card

Answer 4

C. Adding an optical drive:
F. Upgrading the graphics card:

Adding an optical drive can indeed contribute to increased power consumption, especially during operation (e.g., spinning discs). Optical drives require power to operate the motor for spinning discs, reading data, and sometimes writing data. While the power consumption of an optical drive may not be as significant as that of a high-end graphics card, it can still add to the overall power demands of the system, particularly if the system is already close to its power supply unit’s (PSU) limit.

F. Upgrading the graphics card:
Upgrading the graphics card to a more powerful model can significantly increase power consumption, especially if the new graphics card requires more power connectors or has higher power requirements for optimal performance. High-end graphics cards often require additional power directly from the power supply unit (PSU) through PCIe power connectors, and a PSU with insufficient power output may struggle to meet the demands of the upgraded graphics card.

Question 5

105. A technician is replacing a computer with a connected point-of-sale system using a 9-pin serial adapter. The new computer does not have a 9-pin serial port.

Which of the following ports can an adapter be installed on in order to connect to the point-of-sale system?
a. HDMI
b. Bluetooth
c. USB
d. Lightning

Answer 5

C. USB

In order to connect the point-of-sale (POS) system, which uses a 9-pin serial adapter, to a new computer that does not have a 9-pin serial port, the technician can use a USB to serial adapter.

USB ports are versatile and commonly used for connecting various peripherals to computers. USB to serial adapters allow devices that use serial communication, such as the POS system in this scenario, to connect to computers via USB ports. Additionally, USB stands for Universal Serial Bus, showing that the two connectors are similar in terms of their uses.

Question 6

106. Which of the following network types would be used in a server room to connect virtual servers to high-speed storage?
     a. WAN
     b. PAN
     c. MAN
     d. SAN

Answer 6

D. SAN (Storage Area Network)

Explanation:
A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a dedicated high-speed network that connects servers to storage devices, such as disk arrays or tape libraries. SANs are designed to provide block-level access to storage, allowing servers to access storage resources efficiently and at high speeds.

In a server room environment where virtual servers need to connect to high-speed storage, a SAN would be the appropriate network type. SANs allow for centralized storage management, scalability, and high-performance storage access, making them well-suited for virtualized server environments.

Question 7

107. A desktop support technician is tasked with upgrading a laptop so that it has the fastest data access possible.

Which of the following BEST satisfies this requirement?
a. mSATA SSD
b. M.2 NVMe SSD
c. 2.5 SATA SSD
d. 2.5 SAS HHD

Answer 7

B. M.2 NVMe SSD

Explanation:
M.2 NVMe SSDs (Non-Volatile Memory Express Solid State Drives) provide the fastest data access among the options listed. NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) is a protocol specifically designed for SSDs to exploit the full potential of high-speed PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) connections, offering significantly faster data transfer speeds compared to traditional SATA SSDs.

Question 8

108. The Chief Executive Officer wants to ensure company data is stored in a manner that provides the company with complete control over how the data is managed.

Which of the following is the BEST cloud deployment model for this request?
a. Community
b. Hybrid
c. Public
d. Private

Answer 8

D. Private

Explanation:
In a private cloud deployment model, the infrastructure is dedicated solely to one organization, providing complete control over how data is managed. With a private cloud, the organization can customize the cloud environment to meet its specific security, compliance, and performance requirements.

Question 9

109. A user sends a print job to a network printer, and the print job uses double the amount of paper as expected.

Which of the following should the user configure to get the expected result?
a. Duplex
b. Collate
c. Landscape
d. Transparency

Answer 9

A. Duplex

Explanation:
Duplex printing refers to the ability of a printer to print on both sides of a sheet of paper automatically. If a print job is using double the amount of paper as expected, it suggests that the printer is set to duplex printing when it should not be.

By configuring the print job to disable duplex printing, the printer will only print on one side of the paper, resulting in the expected amount of paper usage.

Question 10

110. A help desk technician thinks a desktop PC has failed due to a defective power supply. Which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT?
     a. Inquire about environmental or infrastructure changes.
     b. Conduct external or internal research based on symptoms.
     c. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution.
     d. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes.

Answer 10

B. Conduct external or internal research based on symptoms.

Explanation:
When troubleshooting a desktop PC suspected of failing due to a defective power supply, the next step for the help desk technician should be to conduct external or internal research based on the symptoms observed. This may involve searching for similar issues reported by other users or consulting internal documentation or knowledge bases for troubleshooting steps related to power supply failures.

Question 11

111. A startup company is outgrowing its current office space and is requiring employees to work remotely. The company must comply with government-enforced requirements to safeguard all aspects of data, so the IT department plans to maintain complete control over users’ operating systems.

Which of the following should the IT department implement?
a. VDI
b. IaaS
c. VPN
d. SaaS

Answer 11

A. VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure)

Explanation:
Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) would be the best solution for the IT department to implement in this scenario to maintain complete control over users’ operating systems while allowing remote work and complying with government-enforced data protection requirements.

Question 12

112. Which of the following would be the BEST reason to use a virtual machine as a sandbox?
     a. To test new software in a safe environment
     b. To increase the efficient use of computing resources
     c. To run multiple machines on the same hardware
     d. To have dedicated hardware for a single system

Answer 12

A. To test new software in a safe environment

Explanation:
Using a virtual machine as a sandbox is primarily done to test new software in a safe environment. A sandbox environment provides an isolated and controlled environment where software can be tested without affecting the host system or other production environments.

Question 13

113. Which of the following would MOST likely be used to connect one or more devices to the internet in a SOHO?
     a. Hub
     b. Ethernet gateway
     c. Wireless access point
     d. Router

Answer 13

D. Router

Explanation:
In a Small Office/Home Office (SOHO) environment, a router would most likely be used to connect one or more devices to the internet. Routers are networking devices that forward data packets between computer networks, such as the local area network (LAN) within the SOHO and the wide area network (WAN) provided by the internet service provider (ISP).

Question 14

114. A technician is preparing to set up a gaming computer with the following components:

✑ Discrete, high-end graphics card
✑ Video capture card
✑ High-end processor
✑ Multiple hard drives
✑ USB 3.0 hub
✑ Sound card

Which of the following options is the MOST important for the technician to consider before building the gaming computer?
a. Redundant power supply
b. Modular power supply
c. 20-pin vs. 24-pin power adapter
d. Power supply wattage rating

Answer 14

D. Power supply wattage rating

Explanation:
When setting up a gaming computer with high-end components, the most important consideration for the technician to make before building the system is the power supply wattage rating. High-end components such as discrete graphics cards, high-end processors, multiple hard drives, and additional peripherals like video capture cards and USB hubs require sufficient power to operate reliably.

A power supply with an adequate wattage rating ensures that the system can deliver enough power to all components under load without being overloaded. Without a sufficient wattage rating, the system may experience stability issues, performance degradation, or even hardware damage.

Question 15

115. Which of the following is the PRIMARY security concern with virtual machine escape?
     a. Cross-site scripting
     b. Compromising the hypervisor
     c. Overutilization of resources
     d. Rogue virtual machines installed on the hypervisor

Answer 15

B. Compromising the hypervisor

Explanation:
Virtual machine escape refers to a security vulnerability where a virtual machine (VM) gains unauthorized access to the host system or the hypervisor layer, breaking out of its isolated environment. This is a significant security concern in virtualized environments because compromising the hypervisor can lead to the compromise of all virtual machines running on that hypervisor.

Question 16

116. An IT manager is requesting that the company buy new cables to be used with F-type connectors that are already in house.

Which of the following cables should the company buy?
a. Coaxial
b. Plenum
c. Cat 5e
d. Fiber

Answer 16

A. Coaxial

Explanation:
F-type connectors are commonly used with coaxial cables. Coaxial cables are well-suited for carrying high-frequency signals, making them suitable for various applications such as cable television, internet connections, and networking.

Question 17

117. An IT manager is requesting that the company buy new cables to be used with F-type connectors that are already in house.

Which of the following cables should the company buy?
a. Coaxial
b. Plenum
c. Cat 5e
d. Fiber

Answer 17

A. Coaxial

Explanation:
F-type connectors are commonly used with coaxial cables. Coaxial cables are well-suited for carrying high-frequency signals, making them suitable for various applications such as cable television, internet connections, and networking.

Question 18

118. A user reports a cell phone is getting hot.

Which of the following are MOST likely to be possible causes? (Choose three.)
a. Using the device as a Wi-Fi hotspot
b. A cracked screen
c. A failing battery
d. Less than 15% free storage space on the phone
e. Privileged control
f. Recurring prompts to install OS updates
g. Granting too many application camera permissions
h. Too many open applications

Answer 18

A. Using the device as a Wi-Fi hotspot
C. A failing battery
H. Too many open applications

Explanation:

A. Using the device as a Wi-Fi hotspot:
Using the device as a Wi-Fi hotspot involves enabling the phone’s tethering feature to share its internet connection with other devices. This process typically requires the phone’s Wi-Fi and mobile data capabilities to be active simultaneously, which can generate heat as both components are being utilized simultaneously. The increased workload on the device’s hardware, particularly the radio components responsible for Wi-Fi and cellular connectivity, can lead to overheating.

Question 19

119. A technician configured a new SOHO router for a small business. The ISP gave the technician an IP address on the router’s WAN port.

Which of the following addresses did the technician MOST likely configure on the router?
a. 10.1.50.30
b. 19.45.7.28
c. 169.254.168.10
d. 172.22.40.6

Answer 19

B. 19.45.7.28

Explanation:
In this scenario, the ISP provided the IP address for the WAN port of the router. To determine the “most likely” configured address, we can examine the IP address ranges typically used for WAN connections. The address provided, 19.45.7.28, falls within the range of public IP addresses, making it the most suitable option for a WAN connection.

Question 20

120. A technician is diagnosing a workstation that shuts down unexpectedly during a burn-in test. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this symptom?
     a. Faulty CMOS battery
     b. OS update issue
     c. Overheating
     d. Faulty RAM

Answer 20

C. Overheating

Explanation:
During a burn-in test, the system is subjected to heavy load and prolonged usage, which can lead to increased heat generation. Overheating is a common cause of unexpected shutdowns in computers, as it triggers thermal protection mechanisms that shut down the system to prevent damage to components.

Question 21

121. The help desk received a ticket regarding issues with a laser printer. The printer has had repairs previously for scanning issues. Currently, the printed text is not adhering properly to the paper.

Which of the following should be replaced to resolve this issue?
a. Fuser
b. Waste container
c. Roller
d. Toner

Answer 21

A. Fuser

Explanation:
The fuser unit in a laser printer is responsible for applying heat and pressure to fuse the toner powder onto the paper, ensuring that it adheres properly. If the printed text is not adhering properly to the paper, it suggests a problem with the fuser unit. This could be due to a malfunctioning fuser roller, heating element, or other components within the fuser assembly.

Question 22

122. Which of the following types of devices MOST often uses a Thunderbolt cable?
     a. Linux PC
     b. Android mobile
     c. Apple laptop
     d. Chromebook

Answer 22

C. Apple laptop

Explanation:
Thunderbolt is a high-speed interface technology developed by Intel in collaboration with Apple. It’s commonly found on Apple laptops and desktops, such as MacBook Pro and iMac models. Thunderbolt cables are used to connect Thunderbolt-compatible devices, such as external hard drives, displays, and docking stations, to the Thunderbolt port on the Apple laptop.

Question 23

123. A department sends in a ticket to report a printer is not working. The responding technician sees paper stuck to the fuser, which is much hotter than normal. The fuser was just installed a few weeks ago, as indicated by the service history.

Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
a. Disable the printer for repairs.
b. Install a printer roller kit.
c. Remove the paper and let the fuser cool down.
d. Replace the paper with thicker paper stock.

Answer 23

A. Disable the printer for repairs.

Explanation:
In this scenario, the technician discovers that the fuser is much hotter than normal and that paper is stuck to it. These symptoms indicate a serious issue that requires immediate attention to prevent further damage to the printer and ensure safety. Disabling the printer for repairs is the appropriate next step as it halts all operations and prevents any potential harm caused by the overheating or stuck paper. It also allows the technician to thoroughly investigate the root cause of the problem and perform necessary repairs to resolve the issue.

Question 24

124. A user reports limited or no connectivity on a laptop. A technician runs ipconfig /all with the following result:

IPv4 connectivity…limited or none
IPv4 address…169.254.254.1
subnet mask…255.255.0.0
default gateway…

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
a. DHCP failure
b. ARP cache
c. DNS resolution
d. Duplicate IP address

Answer 24

A. DHCP failure

Explanation:
When a device receives an IP address in the 169.254.x.x range with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0, it indicates that the device was unable to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server. This range is reserved for Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA), which occurs when a device configured to use DHCP fails to obtain an IP address lease. As a result, the device assigns itself an IP address within this range to maintain local network connectivity.

Question 25

125. A Wi-Fi mesh network has been optimized to eliminate poor coverage areas, yet users still experience decreased bandwidth and connectivity issues.

Which of the following actions should the technician take NEXT?
a. Relocate any large, dense, solid, and metal objects, such as mirrors and file cabinets, in the mesh network coverage area to the perimeter so that wireless reflections, absorptions, and occlusions are minimized.
b. Use a Wi-Fi analyzer to determine whether the channel in use is overcrowded and to identify which channel the mesh network should use for best performance.
c. Use the signal strength indicator on a mobile device to roam the coverage area and generate a heat map to isolate zones with weak signals.
d. Turn off broadcasting of the SSID on the mesh network so that other networks cannot see it.

Answer 25

B. Use a Wi-Fi analyzer to determine whether the channel in use is overcrowded and to identify which channel the mesh network should use for best performance.

Explanation:
In this scenario, users are experiencing decreased bandwidth and connectivity issues despite the optimization of the Wi-Fi mesh network to eliminate poor coverage areas. This suggests that there may be interference or congestion on the Wi-Fi channels being used. Using a Wi-Fi analyzer allows the technician to assess the Wi-Fi spectrum and identify if the current channel is overcrowded or experiencing interference from neighboring networks. By identifying an optimal channel with less interference, the technician can improve the performance of the mesh network.

Question 26

126. Which of the following are default ports for HTTP and HTTPS traffic? (Choose two.)
     a. 23
     b. 25
     c. 80
     d. 143
     e. 389
     f. 443

Answer 26

C. 80 (HTTP)
F. 443 (HTTPS)

Explanation:
HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) uses port 80 by default for transmitting web page data between a web server and a web browser. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure), which is the secure version of HTTP, uses port 443 by default. HTTPS encrypts the data being transmitted between the web server and the web browser, providing a secure connection.

Question 27

127. Documents are not printing out correctly from a laser printer at a conference. Some of the print is missing, and the pages come out unreadable.

Which of the following should a technician do to fix this issue?
a. Exchange the transfer roller.
b. Recalibrate the printer.
c. Clear the jam.
d. Replace the fuser assembly.

Answer 27

A. Exchange the transfer roller.

Explanation:
In a laser printer, the transfer roller is responsible for transferring the toner from the drum onto the paper during the printing process. If the transfer roller is worn out or damaged, it may fail to properly transfer the toner onto the paper, resulting in missing or unreadable printouts. Therefore, exchanging the transfer roller is the appropriate action to take to address this issue.

Question 28

128. Which of the following is an unsecure remote access protocol?
     a. SSH
     b. HTTPS
     c. SFTP
     d. Telnet

Answer 28

d. Telnet

Explanation:
Telnet is an unsecure remote access protocol that transmits data, including login credentials, in plain text format over the network. This lack of encryption makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping and interception by malicious users. Therefore, Telnet is considered insecure for remote access to systems over untrusted networks.

Question 29

129. Which of the following cable types is the standard connector on printers?
     a. DVI
     b. eSATA
     c. USB
     d. Lightning

Answer 29

C. USB

Explanation:
USB (Universal Serial Bus) is the standard connector type used for printers and many other peripherals. USB cables are widely used for connecting printers to computers because they offer a versatile and widely compatible

Question 30

130. Which of the following is the MAXIMUM power PoE+ provides?
     a. 15.4W
     b. 30W
     c. 60W
     d. 95W

Answer 30

B. 30W

Explanation:
PoE+ (Power over Ethernet Plus) is a standard that provides up to 30 watts of power to connected devices over Ethernet cables. This increased power capability compared to standard PoE allows for the powering of devices such as wireless access points, IP cameras, and VoIP phones without the need for a separate power supply.

Question 31

131. A user reports the touch screen on an Android smartphone is not responding to any input. The technician has cleared the cache, restarted the phone, and ensured the phone is fully charged. The issue still persists.

Which of the following should the technician replace on the phone to MOST likely resolve the issue?
a. System on a chip
b. Accelerometer
c. Digitizer
d. Gyroscope

Answer 31

C. Digitizer

Explanation:
The digitizer is the component responsible for detecting touch inputs on a smartphone’s screen. If the touch screen is not responding to any input despite clearing the cache, restarting the phone, and ensuring it’s fully charged, the issue likely lies with the digitizer. Replacing the digitizer should resolve the problem by restoring the phone’s ability to accurately detect touch inputs.

Question 32

132. Which of the following is the SAFEST way to replace RAM on a server that has a redundant power supply?
     a. Unplug one power cable
     b. Verify the RAM temperature
     c. Utilize a grounding strap
     d. Replace the RAM while the server is running

Answer 32

C. Utilize a grounding strap

Explanation:
When replacing RAM on a server, especially one with redundant power supplies, it’s essential to ensure proper safety procedures are followed to prevent damage to the hardware and ensure personal safety. Utilizing a grounding strap helps discharge any static electricity buildup on your body, reducing the risk of damaging sensitive electronic components, such as RAM modules or other server hardware.

Question 33

133. A customer is using a satellite internet connection that is experiencing slowness. A technician notices high latency while pinging, but the download test is performing perfectly with very good download speeds.

Which of the following represents the NEXT action the technician should perform?
a. Restart the modem and run an online internet connection and speed diagnostic tool.
b. Guide the customer on how to upgrade the internet plan with the provider in order to improve latency
c. Explain to the customer this is not an issue; this situation is normal for this type of internet connection.
d. Replace the modem because it is not working correctly based on the test result.

Answer 33

A. Restart the modem and run an online internet connection and speed diagnostic tool.

Explanation:
In this scenario, although the download test is performing well, high latency during pinging indicates potential issues with the satellite internet connection. Restarting the modem can help resolve temporary glitches or connectivity issues. Additionally, running an online internet connection and speed diagnostic tool can provide further insights into the performance of the connection, identifying any underlying issues that may be affecting latency.

Question 34

134. An end user contacted a technician about a laser printer that was no longer printing images on the left side of the page. The technician replaced the toner cartridge, but the issue has persisted.

Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT?
a. Replace the imaging drum
b. Realign the pickup rollers.
c. Clean the duplexing assembly.
d. Calibrate the printer

Answer 34

A. Replace the imaging drum

Explanation:
If replacing the toner cartridge did not resolve the issue of missing images on the left side of the page, the next step should be to replace the imaging drum. The imaging drum is responsible for transferring the toner onto the paper during the printing process. A worn or damaged imaging drum can result in print quality issues, including missing or distorted images.

Question 35

135. A systems administrator has been tasked with allowing SMTP traffic through the system’s host-based firewall.

Which of the following ports should the administrator enable?
a. 23
b. 25
c. 80
d. 161

Answer 35

B. 25

Explanation:
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending email messages between mail servers. By default, SMTP uses port 25 to transmit email data. Therefore, to allow SMTP traffic through the host-based firewall, the systems administrator should enable port 25.

Question 36

136. A technician is monitoring all outbound traffic in a SOHO.

Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective solution to monitor the traffic?
a. Spectrum analyzer
b. Network tap
c. Loopback plug
d. Toner probe

Answer 36

B. Network tap

Explanation:
A network tap is the most cost-effective solution for monitoring outbound traffic in a SOHO (Small Office/Home Office) environment. A network tap is a passive device that is installed on a network segment to passively monitor the traffic flowing through it. It copies the data passing through the network without affecting the original traffic, allowing for real-time monitoring and analysis of network activity.

Question 37

137. A technician recently discovered the root cause of an application error that several users have been experiencing. The technician updated the configurations on the affected machines and verified full functionality was restored for all users.

Which of the following actions should the technician perform NEXT?
a. Write a knowledge base article in the ticketing software to expedite future incidents.
b. Submit a bug report to the developer of the application, along with the steps taken to resolve the issue.
c. Work with the developer to proactively collect the application logs to identify future errors of this type.
d. Send an email communication to the company about the issue and the steps taken to resolve it.

Answer 37

A. Write a knowledge base article in the ticketing software to expedite future incidents.

Explanation:
After resolving an issue and verifying full functionality, it’s essential to document the problem and its resolution to facilitate future troubleshooting efforts. Writing a knowledge base article in the ticketing software allows other technicians to access this information easily when similar incidents occur. This helps expedite the resolution process for future incidents and ensures consistency in troubleshooting approaches

Question 38

138. A new employee has been issued a company laptop. The employee requests an accessory with a single power source that has wired network connectivity and supports a keyboard, mouse, speakers, and dual monitors.

Which of the following accessories should the systems administrator deploy to BEST meet the new user’s needs?
a. PoE switch
b. USB-C hub with power delivery
c. Docking station with DisplayPort
d. KVM switch with audio

Answer 38

C. Docking station with DisplayPort

Explanation:
A docking station with DisplayPort connectivity would be the most suitable accessory to meet the new user’s needs. Here’s why:

Wired network connectivity: Most docking stations include Ethernet ports, providing a wired network connection.
Support for keyboard, mouse, and speakers: A docking station typically offers multiple USB ports, allowing the user to connect peripherals such as a keyboard, mouse, and speakers.
Dual monitors: Docking stations with DisplayPort connections often support dual monitor setups, allowing the user to connect two monitors for extended desktop functionality.
Single power source: Many docking stations also provide power delivery capabilities, allowing the laptop to be charged through the docking station while connected to other peripherals.

Question 39

139. Which of the following describes the operational difference between hubs and switches when transmitting data to a specific computer inside the network?
     a. Switches only send data to the specific computer, while hubs send data to all computers inside the network.
     b. Switches compress data, while hubs send uncompressed data.
     c. Switches receive data and route it to all computers inside the network, while hubs receive data and do not route.
     d. Switches scramble data, while hubs send data in the original form.

Answer 39

A. Switches only send data to the specific computer, while hubs send data to all computers inside the network.

Explanation:
The operational difference between hubs and switches lies in how they handle data transmission within a network:

Switches: Switches create individual collision domains for each port, allowing them to send data only to the specific port (and thus the specific computer) intended to receive it. This enables more efficient and targeted data transmission, reducing network congestion and improving overall network performance.
Hubs: Hubs, on the other hand, operate at the physical layer (Layer 1) of the OSI model and simply broadcast incoming data to all connected devices, regardless of whether they are the intended recipients. This leads to a less efficient use of network bandwidth and can result in network congestion, especially in larger networks.

Question 40

140. Which of the following network devices would an administrator use to distribute traffic evenly throughout multiple nodes?
     a. Load balancer
     b. Bridge
     c. Proxy server
     d. Switch
     e. Firewall

Answer 40

A. Load balancer

Explanation:
A load balancer is specifically designed to distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers or nodes in a balanced manner. By evenly distributing the workload among the nodes, a load balancer helps optimize resource utilization, improve responsiveness, and enhance the overall reliability and scalability of a network or web service.

Question 41

141. A technician is investigating the output shown on a monitor. The output is clear, but it has a pink hue. The technician has replaced the video card and updated the graphics drivers.

Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause?
a. Physical cabling issues
b. Burned-out bulb
c. Display burn-in
d. Incorrect data source

Answer 41

A. Physical cabling issues

Explanation:
A pink hue on the monitor’s output can often be attributed to physical cabling issues, particularly with the VGA or HDMI cables. Faulty or improperly connected cables can introduce interference or color distortion, resulting in abnormal coloration on the screen. Even if the output is clear, a pink hue suggests that there is a problem with the signal transmission between the video source (such as the computer) and the monitor.

Question 42

142. A technician is implementing a SOHO wireless solution with three access points.

Which of the following actions would avoid high latency?
a. Enabling and configuring a 5GHz antenna
b. Configuring separate IP ranges
c. Enabling multiple SSIDs
d. Configuring all devices with different channels

Answer 42

D. Configuring all devices with different channels

Explanation:
To avoid high latency in a SOHO wireless solution with multiple access points, it’s important to minimize interference and optimize channel allocation. By configuring all devices with different channels, you reduce the likelihood of channel overlap and interference between access points. This helps ensure smoother communication and lower latency for wireless clients.

Question 43

143. In which of the following places is a laptop’s wireless antenna MOST likely located?
     a. Near the network interface card
     b. Underneath the battery
     c. Integrated into the motherboard
     d. In the bezel of the lid

Answer 43

D. In the bezel of the lid

Explanation:
In most laptops, the wireless antenna is typically located in the bezel of the lid, near the display. This location allows for optimal wireless signal reception and transmission, as it provides a clear path for radio waves to communicate with nearby access points or routers.

Question 44

144. A company needs to support a 10Gbps throughput. Which of the following is the MINIMUM cable category that could be used?
     a. Cat 5
     b. Cat 5e
     c. Cat 6
     d. Cat 6a

Answer 44

C. Cat 6

Explanation:
Cat 6 (Category 6) cables are designed to support Gigabit Ethernet (up to 1Gbps) and are capable of supporting 10Gbps Ethernet over shorter distances. While Cat 6a cables are typically recommended for reliable 10Gbps performance over longer distances due to their improved specifications and performance characteristics, Cat 6 cables can still support 10Gbps Ethernet over shorter distances, especially within the specifications of the standard.

Question 45

145. Which of the following describes the BEST use case for a client-side hypervisor?
     a. For a software developer who is required to test an application in many environments
     b. When the data center environment is out of resources for a new server
     c. As a cost-saving measure to allow multiple users on one computer
     d. To provide a backup to cloud-based solutions during internet failures

Answer 45

A. For a software developer who is required to test an application in many environments

Explanation:
A client-side hypervisor is a type of hypervisor that runs directly on a client machine (such as a desktop or laptop) and allows multiple virtual machines (VMs) to run simultaneously. The best use case for a client-side hypervisor is for software developers who need to test their applications in various environments. With a client-side hypervisor, developers can create and manage multiple VMs, each with different operating systems and configurations, to simulate different testing environments efficiently. This allows developers to test their applications across different platforms, operating systems, and configurations without the need for multiple physical machines, saving time and resources.

Question 46

146. A technician needs to install a cost-effective storage device into a rackmount server that will be used as a VM host. This storage will be used for all VMs that run from the server.

Which of the following should be used?
a. Optical disk drive
b. eMMC storage device
c. 15,000rpm drive
d. RAID 10 array

Answer 46

C. 15,000rpm drive

Explanation:
A 15,000rpm drive refers to a high-speed hard disk drive (HDD) commonly used in enterprise environments for high-performance storage. In scenarios where cost-effectiveness is a primary consideration and redundancy is not explicitly mentioned or required, opting for high-speed drives can provide good performance for VM hosting.

Question 47

147. A technician installed new firmware on the company’s laser printers and has since been receiving multiple calls that information is garbled and looks like code. Only printers with the new firmware are having this issue.

Which of the following steps should the technician complete NEXT?
a. Change the language settings on the printers.
b. Reboot all the machines having the issues.
c. Reboot all the printers.
d. Install an updated printer driver on the print server.

Answer 47

D. Install an updated printer driver on the print server.

Explanation:
When only printers with the new firmware are experiencing garbled and code-like output, it suggests a compatibility issue between the new firmware and the existing printer drivers. By installing an updated printer driver on the print server, the technician can ensure compatibility between the firmware and the drivers, resolving the garbled output issue.

Question 48

148. A user visits the help desk to report that a smartphone takes more than a day to fully charge. The user already tested multiple wall outlets and swapped the charging cable, but the results are the same.

Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
a. Verify the power rating of the charger.
b. Ensure all unnecessary connectivity features are disabled.
c. Check that all missing smartphone OS updates are applied.
d. Complete a factory reset of the phone.

Answer 48

A. Verify the power rating of the charger.

Explanation:
If the smartphone takes an unusually long time to charge despite trying different outlets and cables, the issue may lie with the power output of the charger. It’s essential to ensure that the charger provides adequate power output compatible with the smartphone’s requirements. Verifying the power rating of the charger should be the first step to troubleshoot the slow charging issue.

Question 49

149. User attempted to install an application on a desktop, and the installation attempt failed. Technician compares these installation files to those on another user’s machine and finds the files are different.

Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
a. Attempt to reinstall the application.
b. Verify the system functionality.
c. Test the functionality of the antivirus.
d. Complete the final report.
e. Determine the source of the installation file.

Answer 49

E. Determine the source of the installation file.

Explanation:
When comparing installation files and finding differences, it’s crucial to determine the source of the files to identify potential issues with file integrity or authenticity. The differences in files could indicate that the installation file on the user’s machine might be corrupted, tampered with, or obtained from an unreliable source. Therefore, determining the source of the installation file should be the next step in troubleshooting the failed installation attempt.

Question 50

150. A technician responds to a help desk ticket that indicates a user’s workstation is not booting. The technician initially suspects a failed hard drive. The technician performs diagnostics and confirms the hard drive is fully operational.

Which of the following steps should the technician complete NEXT?
a. Reinstall the operating system.
b. Configure a new RAID array.
c. Report the status of the drive and close the ticket.
d. Consider another possible cause of the issue.
e. Restore the latest backup of the system.

Answer 50

D. Consider another possible cause of the issue.

Explanation:
Since the technician has confirmed that the hard drive is fully operational, it’s essential to consider other potential causes for the workstation not booting. While a failed hard drive is a common reason for booting issues, there could be other hardware or software-related issues causing the problem. Therefore, the technician should explore alternative causes before taking any further action.