Second 50 Flashcards by Michael Cessaro

A laptop’s external webcam software is running, but it shows no image or video.

Which of the following should a technician perform FIRST?
a. Research new webcam firmware.
b. Restart the computer and run system diagnostics.
c. Reseat the webcam.
d. Reinstall the webcam software and drivers.

c. Reseat the webcam.

Explanation:
Reseating the webcam involves disconnecting and reconnecting the physical connection of the webcam to the laptop’s motherboard. This step ensures that the connection is secure and may address any potential issues caused by loose connections or poor contacts. Sometimes, physical connections can become loose over time due to movement or wear, leading to connectivity issues with external devices like webcams.

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An engineer is experiencing unexpected reboots on a graphics workstation when rendering complex 3-D models. The workstation is configured with a 115V power supply that is rated at 200W and connected to a UPS. The central processing unit contains 16 hyperthreaded cores, and a discrete graphics solution utilizing an 8- pin power connector is installed in a PCI Express x16 slot.

Which of the following indicates where the technician should begin troubleshooting?
a. The UPS, as 115V is insufficient for the configuration and should be increased to 220V
b. The power supply, as 200W is insufficient when the GPU is heavily tasked
c. The graphics card, as it is the component that triggers the unexpected reboots
d. The motherboard, as only standard PCI slots should be used for high-end graphics cards, not PCI Express slots

B. The power supply, as 200W is insufficient when the GPU is heavily tasked.

Explanation:
Rendering complex 3-D models can be a resource-intensive task, especially for the graphics processing unit (GPU) and the central processing unit (CPU). In this scenario, the unexpected reboots occurring during rendering suggest a potential power supply issue, particularly if the system is drawing more power than the power supply can provide.

While the 200W power supply may be adequate for normal operation, rendering complex 3-D models can significantly increase power consumption, particularly when the GPU is heavily tasked. If the power supply cannot deliver sufficient power to meet the demands of the CPU and GPU under load, it can result in unexpected reboots or system instability.

Therefore, the technician should start troubleshooting by examining the power supply to ensure it has adequate capacity to support the system’s power requirements, especially during high-load scenarios like rendering complex 3-D models.

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Which of the following technologies can allow multiple networks to traverse a switch?
a. VLAN
b. VRRP
c. VPN
d. DHCP

A. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network)

Explanation:
VLANs are a network segmentation technology that allows a single physical switch to create multiple logical networks or broadcast domains. By assigning different ports on the switch to different VLANs, network traffic can be isolated and segregated based on organizational, departmental, or security requirements. This enables multiple networks to coexist and communicate over the same physical switch infrastructure while maintaining network segmentation and security.

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An end user reports that the time and date on a desktop resets after shutdown, and subsequently, the device reboots. The next day, the desktop does not load the OS and is stuck at a black screen with the following message:
Date/Time Not Set -
Press F1 to Run Setup -

Which of the following would be the BEST action to take next?
a. Change the motherboard.
b. Reseat the motherboard power connections.
c. Replace the CMOS battery.
d. Restore the BIOS to factory default settings.

C. Replace the CMOS battery.

Explanation:
The symptoms described, including the desktop resetting its time and date after shutdown, subsequent reboot, and displaying an error message indicating “Date/Time Not Set,” suggest a likely problem with the CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor) battery. The CMOS battery is responsible for maintaining the system’s BIOS settings, including the time and date, when the computer is powered off. If the CMOS battery is failing or depleted, it can cause the system to lose its BIOS settings, resulting in time and date resets and potential boot issues.

Replacing the CMOS battery is the recommended course of action to address this problem. A new CMOS battery will ensure that the BIOS settings, including the time and date, are maintained properly, preventing further occurrences of the reported issue.

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A user reports that a PC occasionally fails to boot. The user reboots the PC, but the performance is degrading. The technician hears a strange, repetitive, ticking noise coming from the PC.

Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
a. Try to extract data.
b. Reseat the RAM modules.
c. Inspect the fan.
d. Check the CD tray.

C. Inspect the fan.

Explanation:
The strange, repetitive ticking noise coming from the PC, along with occasional boot failures and degrading performance, suggests a potential hardware issue. A ticking noise can often indicate a problem with a fan, such as a fan blade hitting an obstruction or a failing fan bearing.

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A technician is upgrading a faulty motherboard that was ordered by an end user for an old, high-end desktop computer. However, the technician is unable to install the CPU into the socket. Upon closer inspection, the technician notices the pins on the CPU do not line up with the socket.

Which of the following would be the best course of action for the technician to take NEXT?
a. Try to set as many pins as possible.
b. Install an adaptor to create a universal socket.
c. Verity the socket type and manufacturer.
d. Find a compatible motherboard for the CPU.

C. Verify the socket type and manufacturer.

Explanation:
In this scenario, it seems that the CPU and motherboard are not compatible due to misalignment of the CPU pins with the socket. Verifying the socket type and manufacturer is the best course of action because it allows the technician to determine whether the CPU and motherboard are indeed compatible. If they are not compatible, the technician can then find a compatible motherboard for the CPU, which would resolve the issue.

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A remote user reports connectivity issues with the local internet provider. Even after a technician reboots the modem supplied by the ISP, the issue persists.

Which of the following would BEST establish the connection in minimal time?
a. Radio frequency ISP
b. Neighbor’s WI-FI
c. Mobile hotspot
d. Fiber optic

C. Mobile hotspot.

Explanation:
In this scenario, since the issue persists even after rebooting the modem supplied by the ISP, the problem might lie with the ISP’s infrastructure or service. Utilizing a mobile hotspot would be the best option to establish internet connectivity in minimal time. This is because a mobile hotspot utilizes cellular data from a mobile carrier, bypassing the need to rely on the problematic ISP infrastructure. It provides a quick and alternative method for the remote user to access the internet while the ISP connectivity issue is being resolved.

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A company wants to give third-party developers access to the corporate network through desktop environments that the company can control.

Which of the following can BEST achieve these requirements?
a. Sandbox
b. VDI
c. Private cloud
d. SaaS

B. VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure).

Explanation:
VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) is a technology that allows companies to host desktop environments on a centralized server and provide access to those desktop environments to users over a network. With VDI, the company can control the desktop environments, manage access permissions, and ensure security. Third-party developers can access the corporate network through these controlled desktop environments without compromising the company’s security posture. VDI provides a flexible and scalable solution for delivering desktop environments to users while maintaining centralized control.

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A technician needs to fix a Cat 5 cable issue. The cable, which is connected to a network jack, fails when it is moved around.

Which of the following items must the technician use to fix the issue? (Choose two.)
a. Scissors
b. Network tap
c. Magnetized screwdriver
d. Tone generator
e. RJ45 connector
f. Crimper

E. RJ45 connector
F. Crimper

Explanation:

E. RJ45 connector:
An RJ45 connector is used to terminate Ethernet cables, such as Cat 5 cables. If the cable is failing when moved around, it’s possible that the connection between the cable and the network jack is loose or damaged. The technician can cut off the existing connector, trim the cable, and then install a new RJ45 connector to ensure a secure and proper connection.

F. Crimper:
A crimper is used to attach RJ45 connectors to the ends of Ethernet cables. After trimming the cable and preparing the wires, the technician uses the crimper to securely attach the RJ45 connector to the cable. This ensures a proper connection between the cable and the network jack, addressing the issue of the cable failing when moved around.

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A user acquired a new workstation and is attempting to open multiple large Excel files simultaneously. The user is not experiencing the expected performance when executing such large requests.

Which of the following should a technician do FIRST?
a. Increase the swap partition.
b. Upgrade the CPU in the workstation.
c. Upgrade the power supply in the workstation.
d. Upgrade the RAM in the workstation.

A. Increase the swap partition.

Explanation:
When a user is experiencing performance issues due to insufficient memory (RAM), one potential solution is to increase the size of the swap partition. The swap partition serves as virtual memory, allowing the operating system to use the hard drive as additional memory when physical RAM is exhausted. By increasing the size of the swap partition, the operating system has more virtual memory space to utilize when handling memory-intensive tasks, such as opening multiple large Excel files simultaneously.

Increasing the swap partition can help alleviate memory shortages and improve system performance by reducing the reliance on slower disk-based virtual memory. It’s a relatively straightforward solution that can be implemented without the need for physical hardware upgrades.

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Which of the following utilizes TCP ports 20/21 and transfers data in cleartext?
a. SNMP
b. SSH
c. FTP
d. Telnet

C. FTP (File Transfer Protocol).

Explanation:
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) utilizes TCP ports 20 and 21 for data transfer and control, respectively. When using FTP in its default configuration, data is transferred in cleartext, meaning the data is not encrypted. This lack of encryption makes FTP vulnerable to eavesdropping and interception, especially over unsecured networks like the internet.

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An organization is looking to upgrade the processing ability for its computers. Most users report that whenever multiple applications are being utilized, the system’s response time slows down drastically. When only one application is open, the response time is acceptable.

Which of the following should be upgraded FIRST?
a. SSD
b. CPU
c. HDD
d. RAM

D. RAM.

Explanation:
In this scenario, when multiple applications are being utilized, the system’s response time slows down drastically, indicating a potential bottleneck in memory (RAM) capacity. Insufficient RAM can lead to performance degradation when the system is tasked with running multiple applications simultaneously. When only one application is open, the response time is acceptable because the system has enough memory to handle the workload.

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Client-side virtualization guest machines have security requirements similar to physical machines, but they also need to ensure separation from other guest machines.

Which of the following BEST describes this client-side guest security requirement?
a. Isolation
b. Authentication
c. Hardening
d. Authorization

A. Isolation.

Explanation:
In client-side virtualization, where multiple guest machines run on a single physical host, it’s crucial to ensure that each guest machine is isolated from others to maintain security and prevent unauthorized access or interference. Isolation refers to the separation of one guest machine’s resources from another, ensuring that each guest machine operates independently and securely.

By maintaining isolation between guest machines, security requirements similar to physical machines can be enforced for each guest, while also ensuring that any compromise or issue with one guest machine does not affect others.

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A user connects a smartphone to a laptop. Which of the following types of networks has the user created?
a. PAN
b. MAN
c. WLAN
d. LAN

A. PAN (Personal Area Network).

Explanation:
When a user connects a smartphone to a laptop, they are typically creating a Personal Area Network (PAN). A PAN is a network established over a short distance, typically within the range of a person, and connects devices such as smartphones, laptops, tablets, and peripherals like Bluetooth keyboards or mice.

In this scenario, the smartphone and laptop are likely connected via Bluetooth, Wi-Fi Direct, or a USB cable, creating a small-scale network for data sharing, internet access sharing, or other communication purposes.

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Recently, an organization received a number of spam emails that passed through the spam gateway. These emails contained generally the same information, but the sending domains were different.

Which of the following solutions would BEST help mitigate the issue?
a. Updating the keyword filtering
b. Editing the sender policy framework
c. Contacting the gateway vendor
d. Verifying DMARC is enabled

A. Updating the keyword filtering.

Explanation:
Updating the keyword filtering would be the most effective solution to mitigate the issue described. Keyword filtering involves scanning email content for specific words or phrases commonly associated with spam or malicious content. By updating the keyword filtering rules to target the content common to these spam emails, the organization can improve the effectiveness of its spam detection and prevention mechanisms.

In this scenario, although the sending domains are different, the content of the spam emails is generally the same. By targeting the common content rather than solely focusing on specific sending domains, updating the keyword filtering can help identify and block similar spam emails in the future, regardless of the sending domain.

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Several users who share a multifunction printer in an office have reported unintended, thin, vertical lines that cover the entire height of every page printed from the printer.

Which of the following steps should a technician complete in order to MOST likely resolve this issue?
a. Replace the printer paper with a new ream.
b. Clear the print spooler on each computer.
c. Reinstall the printer driver on each computer.
d. Perform the drum-cleaning procedure.

D. Perform the drum-cleaning procedure.

Explanation:
The presence of thin, vertical lines that cover the entire height of every page printed from the printer suggests a problem with the printer’s imaging drum. Over time, dust, debris, or residual toner particles can accumulate on the surface of the imaging drum, leading to print quality issues such as vertical lines.

Performing the drum-cleaning procedure is the most likely solution to resolve this issue. The drum-cleaning procedure involves accessing the printer’s internal components, locating the imaging drum, and carefully cleaning its surface to remove any accumulated debris or toner particles. This helps restore the imaging drum’s functionality and improves print quality.

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Which of the following should the data center hardware technician implement to ensure maximum uptime for customers’ virtual machines?
a. Line conditioner
b. AC voltage regulator
c. Uninterruptible power supply
d. Cloud storage backup

C. Uninterruptible power supply (UPS).

Explanation:
An Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) is essential for ensuring maximum uptime for customers’ virtual machines in a data center environment. A UPS provides backup power in the event of a power outage or fluctuation, allowing critical systems like servers and virtual machines to continue operating without interruption. This ensures that customers’ services remain available and accessible even during power disturbances or outages, minimizing downtime and potential data loss.

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A technician needs to improve a workstation’s overall response time for frequently used applications and data without removing the current hard drive.

Which of the following storage devices should the technician install to BEST accomplish the objective?
a. M.2
b. SAS
c. HDD
d. SCSI

A. M.2.

Explanation:
Installing an M.2 (or NVMe) solid-state drive (SSD) would be the best option for improving the workstation’s overall response time for frequently used applications and data without removing the current hard drive. M.2 SSDs offer significantly faster read and write speeds compared to traditional HDDs and even SATA SSDs. They connect directly to the motherboard via the M.2 slot, providing high-speed data transfer rates and reducing latency.

By adding an M.2 SSD as a secondary storage device, the technician can install the operating system and frequently used applications on the SSD, while keeping the existing HDD for additional storage capacity. This setup allows the system to benefit from the speed of the SSD for faster boot times, application launches, and data access, while still retaining the storage space provided by the HDD.

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A technician is setting up a device to use two-factor authentication. Which of the following meets this requirement?
a. Thumbprint/retinal scan
b. Password/password
c. Password/thumbprint
d. Password/PIN

C. Password/thumbprint.

Explanation:
Two-factor authentication (2FA) requires users to provide two different authentication factors to verify their identity. These factors typically fall into three categories: something the user knows (such as a password), something the user has (such as a smartphone or security token), and something the user is (biometric information).

In this scenario, using a combination of a password (something the user knows) and a thumbprint (biometric information, something the user is) would meet the two-factor authentication requirement. The user would need to provide both the correct password and a valid thumbprint to authenticate and access the device or system

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Which of the following BEST describes the main function of a web server?
a. Storing files and controlling user access
b. Setting up personal mailboxes and calendars
c. Providing IP addresses and printing services
d. Hosting home pages and business portals

D. Hosting home pages and business portals.

Explanation:
A web server is a software application or hardware device responsible for hosting websites and serving web pages to clients over the internet or an intranet. The main function of a web server is to store, process, and deliver web content to users when requested through a web browser. This includes hosting home pages, business portals, blogs, e-commerce platforms, and other types of websites.

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A user brings an older laptop to the help desk and reports issues with the keyboard. Upon inspection, the technician does not see any external damage but notices that many keystrokes do not register in a word processor. The laptop works fine when the technician tests it with an external keyboard.

Which of the following actions would MOST likely resolve the issue?
a. Disable the sticky keys feature.
b. Clean the keyboard.
c. Reset the BIOS settings to default.
d. Charge the laptop.

B. Clean the keyboard.

Explanation:
The symptoms described suggest that the issue with the keyboard on the older laptop may be caused by debris, dust, or dirt accumulated beneath the keys, preventing them from registering keystrokes properly. Cleaning the keyboard is the most likely action to resolve this issue.

Over time, keyboards can accumulate dust, dirt, or other debris, which can interfere with the proper functioning of the keys. Cleaning the keyboard can help remove any obstructions and restore normal keyboard functionality.

An administrator is configuring a corporate-owned smartphone for a new manager. The company requires the ability to wipe the phone’s data remotely in the event of loss or theft and the capability to approve applications installed on the phone.

Which of the following tools would BEST meet this need?
a. Tethering to a corporate-owned laptop
b. WPA2-Enterpise wireless
c. Corporate enterprise email
d. Mobile device management

D. Mobile device management.

Explanation:
Mobile Device Management (MDM) is a solution used by organizations to manage and secure mobile devices, such as smartphones and tablets, deployed across their network. MDM provides administrators with centralized control and oversight over mobile devices, allowing them to enforce security policies, configure device settings, deploy applications, and remotely manage devices.

In this scenario, an administrator needs to configure a corporate-owned smartphone for a new manager while ensuring the ability to wipe the phone’s data remotely in case of loss or theft and control the installation of applications. MDM solutions typically offer features such as remote device wipe, application management, security policy enforcement, and device inventory tracking, making them ideal for meeting these requirements.

A user reports that printed receipts have black smudges over the entire image. The text is still present but is very dark and sometimes illegible.

Which of the following are the MOST likely cause and solution for the printer issue?
a. The ribbon is jammed and is rubbing on the paper. Clear the bad ribbon and feed it through properly.
b. The printhead is too hot. Adjust the temperature down and retry printing.
c. The printer is loaded with the wrong type of paper. Replace the receipt paper with carbon paper.
d. The blue ink cartridge was loaded with black ink. Put in the correct ink and clean the printhead.

B. The printhead is too hot. Adjust the temperature down and retry printing.

Explanation:
In thermal printers, the printhead generates heat to selectively heat portions of the special thermal paper, resulting in the desired printed content. If the printhead is too hot, it can cause excessive heat transfer to the paper, leading to smudging and darkening of the printed content. Adjusting the printhead temperature down can help alleviate this issue by reducing the amount of heat applied to the paper, resulting in clearer and more legible prints.

A user requested upgrades to a company-issued laptop to increase its performance while working with a large database stored on drive C:

Which of the following tasks should a systems administrator complete to BEST meet this goal? (Choose two.)
a. Configure RAID 1.
b. Install a hybrid drive.
c. Upgrade to 1GB NIC.
d. Increase the RAM.
e. Migrate to a SSD.
f. Upgrade the power supply.

d. Increase the RAM
e. Migrate to a SSD

Explanations:
d. Increase the RAM:
Increasing the RAM (Random Access Memory) allows the laptop to handle more data and applications simultaneously, which can significantly improve performance when working with large databases. Additional RAM provides more memory for the laptop to cache frequently accessed data and run multiple processes efficiently.

e. Migrate to a SSD:
Migrating from a traditional hard disk drive (HDD) to a solid-state drive (SSD) can greatly enhance performance, especially in tasks involving large databases. SSDs offer faster read and write speeds, quicker data access times, and improved overall system responsiveness compared to HDDs. This upgrade can significantly reduce database query times and improve the overall user experience.

A developer is requesting permission to utilize client-side virtualization. The developer would like to write code in a setting isolated from other infrastructure to avoid negative impacts of experimental code.

Which of the following provides the BEST solution for the developer?
a. Cross-platform functionality
b. Software compatibility
c. Test case development
d. Sandbox environment

D. Sandbox environment.

Explanation:
A sandbox environment is a controlled and isolated environment where software developers can safely test, develop, and run applications without affecting the production or main infrastructure. In the context of client-side virtualization, a sandbox environment provides an ideal solution for the developer’s requirement to write code in an isolated setting. The developer can create virtual machines or containers within the sandbox environment, allowing them to experiment with code without risking negative impacts on other infrastructure components.

A user takes a tablet to a technician because the cursor on it keeps drifting. The technician notices the screen does not appear to be damaged.

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the cursor issue?
a. The screen is physically damaged.
b. The screen rotation is incorrect.
c. The touch-pen battery is depleted.
d. The screen needs to be recalibrated

D. The screen needs to be recalibrated.

Explanation:
When the cursor on a tablet drifts or behaves erratically without any apparent physical damage to the screen, the issue is often related to calibration. Tablet screens utilize touch-sensitive technology to detect input from the user’s fingers or a stylus. Over time, environmental factors or software glitches can cause the calibration settings to become inaccurate, resulting in cursor drift.

A user reports issues with a smartphone after dropping it. The icons on the screen all look normal, but when the user touches the email icon, for example, nothing happens.

Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
a. Digitizer issues
b. Overheating
c. Broken screen
d. Malware

A. Digitizer issues.

Explanation:
A digitizer is a component in touchscreen devices that detects and converts touch input (such as tapping or swiping) into digital signals for the device to interpret. When a smartphone is dropped or subjected to physical impact, the digitizer can become damaged or malfunction, resulting in issues like unresponsive or erratic touch behavior.

Which of the following options provides correct information about 2.4GHz and 5GHz wireless frequencies? (Choose two.)
a. 2.4GHz has less interference. 5GHz transmits in lower speed.
b. 2.4GHz penetrates solid objects more effectively. 5GHz provides faster data connections.
c. 2.4GHz has a higher data rate. 5GHz has 23 channels.
d. 2.4GHz has 11 channels. 5GHz has no data interference.
e. 2.4GHz has a higher coverage area. 5GHz has higher bandwidth.
f. 2.4GHz has a higher bandwidth. 5GHz has lower transmit power.

B. 2.4GHz penetrates solid objects more effectively. 5GHz provides faster data connections.

E. 2.4GHz has a higher coverage area. 5GHz has higher bandwidth.

Explanation:

B. 2.4GHz penetrates solid objects more effectively. 5GHz provides faster data connections:

The lower frequency of 2.4GHz enables it to penetrate solid objects like walls more effectively than 5GHz signals. This makes 2.4GHz better suited for environments where obstacles may obstruct the signal path.
On the other hand, 5GHz signals provide faster data connections due to their wider available bandwidth. While 2.4GHz may offer better coverage, 5GHz can transmit data at higher speeds, making it ideal for applications requiring high bandwidth, such as streaming high-definition video or online gaming.

A technician is tasked with upgrading a laptop’s RAM.

Which of the following steps should the technician take FIRST?
a. Confirm that both the current and new memory are from the same brand.
b. Run a diagnostic test on the current memory.
c. Verify the memory requirements of the motherboard.
d. Connect an electrostatic discharge strap.

C. Verify the memory requirements of the motherboard.

Explanation:
Before upgrading the RAM in a laptop, it’s crucial to verify that the new memory modules are compatible with the motherboard. This involves checking the type (e.g., DDR3, DDR4), speed (e.g., 2400MHz, 3200MHz), capacity (e.g., 8GB, 16GB), and form factor (e.g., SODIMM) supported by the motherboard. Consulting the laptop’s documentation or manufacturer’s website can provide information on the supported memory specifications.

By verifying the memory requirements of the motherboard first, the technician ensures that the new RAM modules are compatible with the laptop’s hardware. This helps prevent compatibility issues, such as mismatched RAM types or incompatible speeds, which could potentially cause system instability or failure.

A startup is looking to immediately expand its data center but does not have the personnel or space to manage everything internally. The organization has multiple small offices and remote users with large computational and storage-solution requirements. Funding is not an issue for the company.

Which of the following can BEST accomplish the company’s goals?
a. SaaS
b. IaaS
c. ISP
d. SDN

B. IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service).

Explanation:
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides the company with scalable and on-demand computing resources over the internet, eliminating the need for maintaining physical hardware on-premises. By leveraging IaaS, the startup can immediately expand its data center without the need for additional personnel or physical space. IaaS providers offer a range of services, including virtual machines, storage, networking, and other infrastructure components, allowing the company to scale resources up or down based on demand.

A technician is configuring a new CAD workstation that has four large hard drives. The workstation will be used to edit large, critical files, so the storage configuration should be both fast and redundant.

Which of the following RAID levels BEST meets these requirements?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 5
d. 10

D. RAID 10.

Explanation:
RAID 10, also known as RAID 1+0, combines disk striping (RAID 0) and disk mirroring (RAID 1) to achieve both performance and redundancy. In a RAID 10 configuration with four drives, data is striped across mirrored pairs of drives.

Performance: RAID 10 provides fast read and write performance by striping data across multiple drives, similar to RAID 0. This allows for high throughput when accessing and editing large files, making it suitable for CAD workstations handling critical files.
Redundancy: RAID 10 offers redundancy by mirroring data across multiple drives, similar to RAID 1. If one drive in a mirrored pair fails, the data can be rebuilt from the mirror drive, ensuring data integrity and minimizing the risk of data loss.
Overall, RAID 10 provides a balance of performance and redundancy, making it an ideal choice for workstations handling large, critical files where both speed and data protection are essential.

A technician receives a ticket that states a mobile payment device is having issues with its contactless payment feature. The device is not detecting payment options.

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
a. NFC
b. Bluetooth
c. Wi-Fi
d. Lightning adapter

A. NFC (Near Field Communication).

Explanation:
NFC (Near Field Communication) is the technology commonly used for contactless payment features in mobile devices. It allows devices to communicate and exchange data wirelessly over short distances, typically within a few centimeters. When a mobile payment device utilizes NFC for contactless payments, it relies on NFC to establish a connection with the payment terminal or reader.

A user calls the help desk for assistance configuring an Android phone with a new NFC-enabled speaker that will be used for an upcoming conference call. The user was unable to direct the phone’s audio to the NFC speaker.

Which of the following sequences should the help desk technician walk the customer through to accomplish this task?
a. Enable NFC on the speaker. Ensure the speaker is less than 33ft (10m) from the Android phone. On the phone’s Bluetooth settings menu for Connected Devices, select Pair New Device. Tap to accept the connection to the speaker when the prompt is displayed on the phone’s screen.
b. Enable NFC and Bluetooth on the Android phone. From the Android phone’s Bluetooth settings menu for Connected Devices, select the Previously Connected Devices option. Select a listed device that most closely matches the speaker. Tap to accept the connection to the speaker when the prompt is displayed on the phone’s screen.
c. Enable NFC and Bluetooth on the Android phone. Tap and hold the Android phone to the spot on the speaker where the NFC logo is displayed. Accept the connection to the speaker when the prompt is displayed on the phone’s screen.
d. Enable Wi-Fi on the speaker. Enable Wi-Fi on the Android phone. Tap and hold the Android phone to the spot on the speaker where the NFC logo is displayed. Accept the connection to the speaker when the prompt is displayed on the phone’s screen.
he software requirements with the installed RAM.

The correct sequence the help desk technician should walk the customer through to accomplish the task of configuring the Android phone with the NFC-enabled speaker is:

C. Enable NFC and Bluetooth on the Android phone. Tap and hold the Android phone to the spot on the speaker where the NFC logo is displayed. Accept the connection to the speaker when the prompt is displayed on the phone’s screen.

Explanation:
NFC (Near Field Communication) allows for easy pairing between devices by simply tapping them together. In this scenario, the user wants to connect their Android phone to an NFC-enabled speaker for a conference call.

A user wants a second monitor installed on a laptop. The VGA/DVI or HDMI cables have already been connected.

Which of the following should the technician do to configure the laptop to show both screens?
a. Power cycle the laptop.
b. Plug in the monitor to the USB port.
c. Adjust the monitor display settings.
d. Power cycle the monitor.

C. Adjust the monitor display settings.

Explanation:
When adding a second monitor to a laptop, it’s essential to configure the display settings to extend or duplicate the desktop across both screens. This configuration typically involves adjusting settings in the operating system to recognize and utilize the additional display. On Windows, for example, you would right-click on the desktop, select “Display settings,” and then configure the multiple display option to extend or duplicate the desktop. Therefore, option C is the correct choice.

A technician is troubleshooting intermittent fuzzy video on a computer using a VGA to DisplayPort adapter to connect to a monitor. The monitor with a VGA connector was previously working fine for another user. The technician replaces the adapter; however, the issue persists.

Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
a. Use another brand of VGA to DisplayPort adapter.
b. Research the issue further and formulate a new hypothesis to test.
c. Ask the user additional clarifying questions regarding the issue.
d. Document the action taken and the outcome.

B. Research the issue further and formulate a new hypothesis to test.

Explanation:
In troubleshooting methodology, when initial troubleshooting steps fail to resolve the problem, it’s important to step back and reassess the situation. This often involves researching the issue further to gain additional insights and formulate new hypotheses to test. By gathering more information and considering alternative explanations, the technician can develop a more comprehensive understanding of the problem and explore new avenues for resolution. This approach is iterative and flexible, allowing the technician to adapt to new information and refine their troubleshooting strategy as needed.

A technician is troubleshooting an old desktop system that randomly shows a Windows BSOD or powers off unexpectedly. All system temperatures are within normal limits.

Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
a. Visually inspect the motherboard capacitors.
b. Verify all case fans are operational.
c. Check that the BIOS version supports the installed CPU.
d. Compare the software requirements with the installed RAM.

A. Visually inspect the motherboard capacitors.

Explanation:
Random Windows Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) errors or unexpected system shutdowns can sometimes be caused by failing or faulty motherboard capacitors. These capacitors can degrade over time, leading to instability in the system’s power delivery and resulting in issues like BSOD errors or sudden shutdowns.

By visually inspecting the motherboard capacitors, the technician can look for signs of bulging, leaking, or damage. If any capacitors appear to be faulty, they should be replaced to resolve the issue. This step helps identify a potential hardware problem that could be causing the system instability.

A user on the marketing team uses various multimedia applications that consume a lot of memory. The user needs to install more RAM to run these applications effectively. When the user opens the computer case, the user sees four slots in two sets of colors.

Which of the following memory types is MOST likely required?
a. Dual-channel
b. Triple-channel
c. Single-channel
d. Quad-channel
e. Error correction code RAM

A. Dual-channel

Explanation:
The presence of four memory slots in two sets of colors typically indicates support for dual-channel memory configuration. Dual-channel memory involves installing memory modules in pairs, with each pair placed in slots of the same color. This configuration allows the system to access two memory modules simultaneously, effectively doubling the memory bandwidth and improving overall system performance. Therefore, based on the information provided, the most likely required memory type is dual-channel.

Which of the following allows all VMs in a virtual environment to have RAM allocated for use?
a. Measured service
b. Containerization
c. Synchronization
d. Resource pooling

D. Resource pooling

Explanation:
In a virtual environment, resource pooling is a key concept that involves aggregating physical hardware resources, such as CPU, memory, storage, and network bandwidth, into a shared pool. This pooled resources can then be dynamically allocated to virtual machines (VMs) as needed based on demand. When a VM requires additional RAM, it can request it from the shared pool, and the hypervisor allocates the necessary amount of RAM from the pool to the VM.

Which of the following 802.11 standards supports both 5GHz and 2.4GHz channel frequencies?
a. 802.11a
b. 802.11ac
c. 802.11b
d. 802.11g

B. 802.11ac

Explanation:
802.11ac is a wireless networking standard that supports both 5GHz and 2.4GHz channel frequencies. It is one of the latest and most advanced Wi-Fi standards, providing high throughput and improved performance compared to previous standards.

A technician has set up a new conference room with a TV and a video soundbar. The technician wants to test the system with a conference call. During the test, the TV speaker produces sound, but the soundbar does not.

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
a. The volume on the TV needs to be turned up.
b. The conference call needs to be unmuted for audio.
c. An incorrect HDMI cable is being used.
d. The TV’s HDMI-ARC port is not being used.

D. The TV’s HDMI-ARC port is not being used.

Explanation:
HDMI-ARC (Audio Return Channel) is a feature available on many modern TVs and soundbars that allows audio to be sent from the TV to the soundbar over the same HDMI cable that is used to connect the devices. When setting up a TV and a soundbar for audio output, it’s essential to use the TV’s HDMI-ARC port to ensure that audio is properly routed to the soundbar.

In this scenario, if the TV speaker produces sound but the soundbar does not, it suggests that the audio signal is not being sent to the soundbar as expected. This could occur if the HDMI cable is not connected to the TV’s HDMI-ARC port, preventing the TV from sending audio to the soundbar. Therefore, the most likely cause of the issue is that the TV’s HDMI-ARC port is not being used.

A hardware technician is configuring a laptop, and the network administrator requires the network settings to be static. The technician successfully pings the servers by IP address but cannot ping the UNC path.

Which of the following is the cause of this issue?
a. Domain Name System
b. Gateway
c. Subnet
d. IP address

A. Domain Name System (DNS)

Explanation:
In this scenario, the technician can successfully ping the servers by IP address but cannot ping the UNC (Universal Naming Convention) path. The UNC path typically includes the hostname or domain name of the server, which is resolved to an IP address by the Domain Name System (DNS). If the UNC path cannot be resolved to an IP address via DNS, then the technician would encounter difficulties accessing resources using UNC paths, even though direct IP address communication is successful.

A technician is setting up a projector for a videoconferencing system. When the user attempts to connect a laptop to the system, the system displays the following error message: no source found.

The user tries multiple cables and inputs on the projector. Which of the following should the user try NEXT?
a. Check the bulb on the projector and replace it with a new one.
b. Check the display settings on the computer and set them to extend/duplicate.
c. Replace the projector with another known-good one and try again.
d. Replace the video card on the machine that is plugged in to the projector, as it has gone bad.

B. Check the display settings on the computer and set them to extend/duplicate.

Explanation:
The error message “no source found” indicates that the projector is not receiving a signal from the laptop. This suggests a problem with the connection or the display settings on the laptop.

In this scenario, since the user has already tried multiple cables and inputs on the projector without success, the next step is to ensure that the laptop is configured to output video to the projector. This involves checking the display settings on the laptop and configuring them to extend or duplicate the desktop to the projector.

Which of the following is a method that can be used to securely connect a remote user’s laptop to a corporate server?
a. WAN
b. VPN
c. SSL
d. DHCP

B. VPN

Explanation:
A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a method used to securely connect a remote user’s device, such as a laptop, to a corporate server over the internet. A VPN creates an encrypted tunnel between the user’s device and the corporate server, ensuring that data transmitted between them is secure and protected from unauthorized access.

A technician is inspecting a projector that is displaying fuzzy images. Which of the following actions would provide the BEST solution?
a. Adjusting the lens
b. Changing the filter
c. Replacing the video cable
d. Reseating the lamp

A. Adjusting the lens

Explanation:
When a projector displays fuzzy images, one of the common causes could be misalignment or improper focusing of the lens. Adjusting the lens can help improve the clarity and sharpness of the projected image by ensuring that the projection is properly focused and aligned.

An end user discovered that the touch-screen features on a Windows device have stopped working.

Which of the following should a technician check?
a. Performance monitor
b. Tablet/PC settings
c. System configuration
d. Display settings

b. Tablet/PC settings

Explanation:
When the touch-screen features on a Windows device stop working, the most likely cause is a configuration issue related to the device’s tablet or PC settings. These settings control how the touch-screen interface functions, including gestures, sensitivity, and calibration.

Checking the Tablet/PC settings allows the technician to verify if the touch-screen functionality is enabled and properly configured. They can also troubleshoot any settings that may have been changed or reset.

Which of the following network services allows a networked device to always be assigned the same IP address based on the device’s MAC address?
a. DHCP
b. LOAP
c. UTM
d. DNS

a. DHCP

Explanation:
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) allows networked devices to dynamically obtain IP addresses from a DHCP server. However, DHCP servers can also be configured to assign a specific IP address to a device based on its MAC address. This feature is known as DHCP reservation or static DHCP assignment.

With DHCP reservation, a networked device is assigned a specific IP address permanently based on its MAC address. This ensures that the device always receives the same IP address whenever it connects to the network, even if the DHCP lease expires or the device is restarted.

A help desk technician has been tasked with installing an IP phone in a small office with an unmanaged switch. When connected to an RJ45 receptacle, the phone does not boot. Which of the following is the QUICKEST way to resolve this issue?
a. Upgrade the Ethernet cable to the latest specification.
b. Replace the phone.
c. Install a PoE injector.
d. Change ports on the switch.

C. Install a PoE injector.

Explanation:
The quickest way to resolve the issue of an IP phone not booting when connected to an RJ45 receptacle on an unmanaged switch is to install a Power over Ethernet (PoE) injector.

A PoE injector provides power to the IP phone through the Ethernet cable, eliminating the need for a separate power adapter. Since the unmanaged switch may not support PoE, using a PoE injector allows the IP phone to receive power and boot up properly.

A technician installs a new printer for a workstation and tries to print a test page, but the page does not print. The technician looks at the print queue and notices that the printer is called “Generic Printer”.

Which of the following BEST describes what the technician should do to fix this issue?
a. Connect the printer with a USB cable rather than over the network.
b. Install the appropriate printer drivers for the OS.
c. Install the correct toner in the printer.
d. Set the printer trays to allow duplex printing.

B. Install the appropriate printer drivers for the OS.

Explanation:
The issue described indicates that the printer is identified as a “Generic Printer” in the print queue, which suggests that the correct printer drivers have not been installed for the specific printer model on the workstation.

Installing the appropriate printer drivers for the operating system ensures that the workstation can communicate properly with the printer and send print jobs successfully. Without the correct drivers, the operating system may not recognize the printer’s capabilities or communicate effectively with it, resulting in print jobs not being processed.

A user creates a support ticket to report a conference room projector that does not work. The user says that even though the provided cables are being used, the projector screen shows the following error message:

No Signal Input -

Which of the following describes the FIRST action that should be taken?
a. Verify that the projector is turned on.
b. Verify that the user is using an approved OS.
c. Replace the projector bulb.
d. Check the video cable and replace it if necessary.

A. Verify that the projector is turned on.

Explanation:
When troubleshooting a conference room projector that displays a “No Signal Input” error message, the first action should be to verify that the projector is turned on. It’s possible that the projector is powered off, which would result in the absence of a signal input.

Verifying the power status of the projector ensures that the basic functionality of the device is operational before proceeding with further troubleshooting steps.

A technician was called in to look at a user’s PC. The user reported the PC was very sluggish. The HDD light on the PC was constantly on without blinking. The PC itself was slow receiving input and took a very long time to load the OS. The technician also noticed updates had failed.

Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of these issues?
a. The hard disk drivers have been corrupted.
b. The HDD cables need reseating.
c. A RAID disk failed.
d. The HDD has no free space.

D. The HDD has no free space.

Explanation:
The symptoms described—constant HDD light activity without blinking, sluggish performance, slow OS loading, and failed updates—are indicative of a hard disk drive (HDD) that has insufficient free space.

When a hard drive runs out of free space, it can significantly impact system performance and responsiveness. The constant HDD light activity suggests that the system is struggling to read or write data due to the lack of available space, resulting in sluggish performance and delayed OS loading times.

Additionally, failed updates can occur when there is not enough free space on the HDD to download and install the updates properly. The lack of free space may also prevent temporary files from being created or cached, further exacerbating the performance issues.

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