First 50

Question 1

1. A technician is tasked with installing additional RAM in a desktop computer. Which of the following types of RAM is MOST likely to be used?
   a. SODIMM
   b. DDR3
   c. ECC
   d. VRAM

Answer 1

B. DDR3

Explanation:
DDR3 (Double Data Rate 3) is a common type of RAM used in desktop computers. It is a standard for synchronous dynamic random-access memory (SDRAM) that offers high-speed data transfer rates and is widely supported by desktop motherboards. DDR3 is commonly used for upgrading or installing additional RAM in desktop computers.

Question 2

2. Vertical streaks are appearing on the output of a laser printer. Which of the following items is the MOST likely cause?
   a. Roller
   b. Drum
   c. Transfer belt
   d. Ribbon

Answer 2

B. Drum

Explanation:
Vertical streaks appearing on the output of a laser printer are often caused by a worn or damaged drum. The drum in a laser printer is responsible for transferring toner onto the paper. If the drum is scratched, dirty, or worn out, it can result in vertical streaks appearing on the printed output.

Question 3

3. A user is trying to play a DVD on a projector. The user can hear the audio; however, the projector is showing an error message that states:

HDMI Blocked due to Copy Protection

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the error?
a. The HDMI cannot carry the signal from the DVD to the projector.
b. The user needs to switch from HDMI to a cable standard such as DisplayPort.
c. The projector does not support the necessary HDCP protocol.
d. The user needs to enable cony-protected sources in the projector’s settings.

Answer 3

C. The projector does not support the necessary HDCP protocol.

Explanation:
HDCP (High-bandwidth Digital Content Protection) is a form of digital copy protection developed by Intel to prevent unauthorized copying of digital audio and video content. Many modern devices, including projectors, require HDCP compliance to display content from sources such as DVD players, Blu-ray players, and streaming devices over HDMI.

Question 4

4. While implementing a non-carrier-grade wireless backhaul, a technician notices the current channel selection is extremely polluted with various RF signals.

Upon performing a spectral analysis, the technician discovers a channel containing almost no RF pollution. Unfortunately, the technician is unable to select that channel.

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue?
a. The channel is reserved for licensed band use.
b. The channel selection is defective; contact the manufacturer.
c. The channel must be unlocked by the vendor.
d. The device requires a firmware update to unlock the channel.

Answer 4

A. The channel is reserved for licensed band use.

Explanation:
In wireless communication, certain channels may be reserved for licensed use by regulatory authorities. These channels are typically used by organizations or individuals who have obtained licenses for specific frequencies. If a technician discovers a channel with minimal RF pollution but is unable to select it, it is likely because the channel is reserved for licensed band use and cannot be accessed without proper authorization.

Question 5

5. A user submitted a support ticket that states all of the printouts from a laser printer appear to have double images imposed on them. A review of past printer support tickets shows that a maintenance kit has not been installed in more than a year.

Which of the following printer consumables is MOST likely causing the issue?
a. Separation pad
b. Transfer roller
c. Ink cartridge
d. Fuser

Answer 5

D. Fuser

Explanation:
The fuser in a laser printer is responsible for melting and bonding the toner onto the paper. If the fuser becomes worn or damaged, it may not properly fuse the toner onto the paper, resulting in double images or ghosting on printouts. Since the maintenance kit, which typically includes components such as the fuser, has not been replaced in over a year, the worn-out fuser is the most likely cause of the issue.

Question 6

6. A technician is configuring a workstation to be used as a VM host. After installing the necessary software, the technician is unable to create any VMs. Which of the following actions should be performed?
   a. Disable the BIOS password.
   b. Enable TPM.
   c. Enable multithreading.
   d. Enable Fast Startup.

Answer 6

C. Enable Multithreading

Explanation:
TPM is not a requirement to start VMs. Multithreading is sometimes a requirement in order to start a VM since the specifications may require multiple threads per core.
Now, let’s break down the incorrect choices:

Question 7

7. A user’s computer is not receiving a network connection. The technician confirms that the connection seems to be down and looks for the user’s port on the patch panel. The port and patch panel are not labeled.

Which of the following network tools should the technician use to identify the port?
a. Network tap
b. Punchdown tool
c. Toner probe
d. Crimper

Answer 7

C. Toner probe

Explanation:
A toner probe is a network testing tool used to identify and trace cables in a network. In this scenario, where the port and patch panel are not labeled, a technician can use a toner probe to identify the specific port on the patch panel that corresponds to the user’s computer. The toner probe generates a tone that travels along the network cable, allowing the technician to trace the cable from the user’s computer to the patch panel, thus identifying the correct port.

Question 8

8. A user, who is attempting to give a presentation via a projector in a conference room, reports that the projector has video but no audio.

Which of the following will MOST likely resolve the issue?
a. Changing the input on the projector to VGA
b. Changing the output on the PC to DVI
c. Modifying the projector’s refresh rate
d. Utilizing an HDMI connection

Answer 8

D. Utilizing an HDMI connection

Explanation:
In most cases, audio is transmitted along with video through an HDMI connection. If the user is experiencing video but no audio when using the projector, it’s likely that the audio signal is being sent through HDMI but not properly configured or supported. By utilizing an HDMI connection between the computer and the projector, it should allow both video and audio to be transmitted, resolving the issue.

Question 9

9. A customer reports that a computer is never able to reach more than a 100Mbps transfer data rate, even when using a Gigabit LAN card. While troubleshooting, the technician notices the network cable needs to be replaced.

Which of the following cable categories is limiting the transfer speed?
a. A. Cat 5
b. B. Cat 5e
c. C. Cat 6
d. D. Cat 6a

Answer 9

A. Cat 5

Explanation:
Cat 5 (Category 5) cables are capable of supporting network speeds up to 100 Mbps (megabits per second). However, they are not capable of supporting Gigabit Ethernet speeds, which can reach up to 1000 Mbps (or 1 Gbps). Therefore, even if the computer is equipped with a Gigabit LAN card, if it is connected using a Cat 5 cable, the transfer speed will be limited to 100 Mbps.

Question 10

10. While using a popular videoconferencing program, the user selects a webcam, but the software is unable to open the webcam. The webcam was working the previous day.

Which of the following should be done to address this issue?
a. Close other video software and retry.
b. Adjust the conference software to a compatible resolution.
c. Switch the video from the webcam to ג€conference ג€ mode.
d. Reseat or replace the webcam.

Answer 10

A. Close other video software and retry.

Explanation:
When a webcam is unable to be accessed by a videoconferencing program, it may be due to conflicts with other software accessing the webcam simultaneously. Closing other video software that might be using the webcam and then retrying the videoconferencing program is a common troubleshooting step. This allows the videoconferencing program to exclusively access the webcam without interference from other applications.

Question 11

11. A user failed to gain access to a building’s entrance after security measures at the entrance were upgraded last week. The company implemented the 13.56MHz frequency short band, and users can now utilize their mobile devices to authenticate.

Which of the following has to be enabled for the mobile device to authenticate?
a. Bluetooth
b. Biometrics
c. NFC
d. PIN

Answer 11

C. NFC (Near Field Communication)

Explanation:
Near Field Communication (NFC) is a technology that allows for short-range wireless communication between devices, typically within a few centimeters. NFC is commonly used for contactless payment systems, ticketing, and access control systems. In this scenario, where users can authenticate using their mobile devices, the 13.56MHz frequency band indicates the use of NFC technology. Therefore, NFC must be enabled on the mobile device for it to authenticate with the building’s entrance security system.

Question 12

12. Which of the following standards supports MIMO technology?
    a. 802.11a
    b. 802.11b
    c. 802.11g
    d. 802.11n

Answer 12

D. 802.11n

Explanation:
MIMO (Multiple Input, Multiple Output) technology is a key feature in wireless communication systems that uses multiple antennas to improve data throughput and wireless range. The 802.11n standard introduced MIMO technology to Wi-Fi networks, allowing for increased data rates and improved wireless performance compared to previous Wi-Fi standards.

Question 13

13. A technician powers on a PC and its monitor and sees the following error message:
    No input signal detected -
    The display lights on the computer are on.

Which of the following is a possible solution?
a. Changing the BIOS settings
b. Changing the connector setting on the monitor
c. Checking the power plug on the monitor
d. Checking the power plug on the PC

Answer 13

B. Changing the connector setting on the monitor

Explanation:
The error message “No input signal detected” indicates that the monitor is not receiving a signal from the computer. In some cases, this issue can arise if the monitor is not set to the correct input source. By changing the connector setting on the monitor to the appropriate input source (such as HDMI, VGA, DVI, etc.) that matches the cable connected to the computer, the monitor may be able to receive the signal and display the content from the PC.

Question 14

14. Which of the following components enables the input on a mobile device’s touch screen?
    a. OLED
    b. Digitizer
    c. Inverter
    d. CMOS sensor

Answer 14

B. Digitizer

Explanation:
A digitizer is a component of a touch screen that enables the input functionality. It works by converting the analog touch input (such as finger or stylus movement) into digital signals that the device’s software can interpret. The digitizer is responsible for accurately detecting and tracking the touch input on the screen.

Question 15

15. A technician unboxed a new computer, plugged it in to a UPS, and connected the requested peripherals. The computer lights and fans turn on, but the technician hears three loud, consecutive beeps during boot.

Which of the following actions will remediate the issue?
a. Replacing the power supply
b. Replacing the UPS
c. Changing the CMOS battery
d. Reseating the RAM

Answer 15

D. Reseating the RAM

Explanation:
Three loud, consecutive beeps during boot typically indicate a memory (RAM) error. This could mean that the RAM modules are not properly seated in their slots or that there is an issue with the RAM itself. Reseating the RAM involves removing the RAM modules from their slots and then firmly reinstalling them. This action ensures proper connection and contact between the RAM modules and the motherboard, which can resolve issues related to improper seating or poor contact.

Question 16

16. An IT manager discovered that hundreds of pages of printed materials are being recycled each day because the materials are left on the printer tray instead of being picked up by users.

Which of the following would BEST prevent this waste?
a. Send friendly reminders to not print unnecessarily.
b. Enable duplex printing to reduce paper utilization.
c. Bill each department for the excess material cost.
d. Require a code or badge before releasing a print job.

Answer 16

D. Require a code or badge before releasing a print job.

Explanation:
Requiring a code or badge before releasing a print job is an effective method of ensuring that only authorized users can access printed materials. This approach helps prevent documents from being left unattended on the printer tray, as users must physically be present at the printer to release their print jobs. By implementing this security measure, organizations can reduce the risk of sensitive information being exposed or wasted due to unclaimed printouts.

Question 17

17. An online retailer wants to save money and is considering migrating to the public cloud so capacity can be added during the peak shopping season and automatically removed when the peak is over.

Which of the following BEST describes this aspect of cloud computing?
a. Rapid elasticity
b. Metered utilization
c. Shared resources
d. High availability

Answer 17

A. Rapid elasticity

Explanation:
Rapid elasticity is a key characteristic of cloud computing that allows resources to be rapidly and elastically provisioned and released in response to demand. In the context of the scenario described, migrating to the public cloud would enable the online retailer to automatically scale up resources (such as compute instances, storage, and network bandwidth) during peak shopping seasons to handle increased demand, and then scale down those resources when the peak is over. This flexibility allows the retailer to efficiently manage costs by only paying for the resources they use when they need them.

Question 18

18. A technician is receiving reports that the entire office sporadically loses network connectivity throughout the day. The technician determines the root cause to be EMI.

Which of the following cable mediums would be the MOST cost effective without sacrificing system performance?
a. Coaxial
b. Shielded Cat 6
c. Plenum Cat 5e
d. Multimode fiber

Answer 18

. Shielded Cat 6

Explanation:
Shielded Cat 6 (Category 6) cables provide excellent resistance to electromagnetic interference (EMI) due to their shielding design, which helps prevent external sources of interference from disrupting network connectivity. Shielded Cat 6 cables are a cost-effective solution for environments prone to EMI without sacrificing system performance. They offer higher performance and greater reliability compared to Cat 5e cables, making them suitable for addressing sporadic network connectivity issues caused by EMI.

Question 19

19. An organization maintains various record types, including health and criminal justice records.

Which of the following cloud environments is the organization MOST likely to use to limit the attack surface?
a. Public
b. Hybrid
c. Community
d. Private

Answer 19

D. Private

Explanation:
In the context of maintaining sensitive records such as health and criminal justice records, organizations typically prioritize security and control over their data. A private cloud environment offers the highest level of control and customization, as it is dedicated solely to the organization’s use. By using a private cloud environment, the organization can limit the attack surface by having exclusive access to the infrastructure and implementing tailored security measures to protect sensitive data. This approach reduces the risk of unauthorized access and data breaches compared to public or hybrid cloud environments

Question 20

20. Which of the following describes metered utilization of cloud resources?
    a. Resources provisioned instantly
    b. Payments made only for resources that are used
    c. Resources pooled to increase computing power
    d. Implementation of rapid elasticity

Answer 20

B. Payments made only for resources that are used

Explanation:
Metered utilization of cloud resources refers to the practice of measuring and charging for resource usage based on consumption. With metered utilization, users are billed only for the resources they actually use, rather than a fixed monthly fee. This pay-as-you-go model allows for cost optimization by aligning expenses with actual resource usage.

Question 21

21. A user on a SOHO network is unable to watch online videos, even at 240 pixels. The technician runs ipconfig from the user’s computer and records the following:
    Connection-specific DNS Suffix .: lan
    Link-local IPV6 Address………: fe80::1585:7fb2:b05f:7102%12
    IPv4 Address………………..: 192.168.1.131
    Subnet Mask…………………: 255.255.255.0
    Default Gateway……………..: 192.168.1.1
    The technician then connects a test laptop to the router via the user’s Cat 5 cable and records the following information:

Download: 85 mbps -
Upload: 22 mbps -
Ping: 28 ms -

Which of the following is MOST likely causing the user’s issue?
a. Incorrect IP address
b. Faulty NIC
c. Misconfigured default gateway
d. Bad network cable

Answer 21

B. Faulty NIC

Explanation:
If the network cable works fine with the test laptop but the user’s device is experiencing connectivity issues even at low resolutions, it’s possible that the NIC in the user’s device is faulty. A faulty NIC can lead to intermittent or degraded network connectivity, which would explain why the user is unable to watch online videos despite having a functional connection to the network.

Question 22

22. A colleague has a laptop that has been working as expected for several years, but the laptop now has a small bulge in the bottom casing and overheats occasionally while plugged in to a wall outlet.

The MOST likely component that needs to be replaced is the:
a. Power adapter.
b. Battery.
c. System fan.
d. Hard drive.

Answer 22

B. Battery.

Explanation:
The presence of a small bulge in the bottom casing of the laptop, along with occasional overheating while plugged into a wall outlet, are classic signs of a swollen or failing battery. When a lithium-ion battery reaches the end of its lifespan or develops internal faults, it can swell due to the expansion of gases inside the battery cells. This swelling can cause physical deformation of the laptop casing. Additionally, a failing battery can lead to overheating issues as it struggles to maintain proper voltage levels and may generate excess heat during charging or usage.

Question 23

23. A company just bought a printer capable of automatically printing on both sides of the paper. After installation, however, the technician can only print on both sides of the paper manually.

Which of the following should the technician do to fix the issue?
a. Install the most recent firmware upgrade available for the printer.
b. Contact the vendor for a hardware replacement.
c. Reinstall the printer software and drivers, and then restart the printer.
d. Read the installation manual and configure duplex settings.

Answer 23

D. Read the installation manual and configure duplex settings.

Explanation:
The issue described indicates that the printer is not automatically printing on both sides of the paper as expected. This suggests that the duplex printing feature may not be correctly configured. By referring to the installation manual for the printer and configuring the duplex settings accordingly, the technician can enable automatic duplex printing. This typically involves accessing the printer settings through the control panel or printer software and selecting the appropriate duplex printing option.

Question 24

24. A small office has a wireless network with several access points for roaming laptop use. Users occasionally report that the wireless connection drops or becomes very slow. Users have confirmed that this issue only happens when connected to the office wireless network.

Which of the following would MOST likely be the cause?
a. Hidden SSID
b. Device interference
c. Ethernet port flapping
d. High ISP latency

Answer 24

B. Device interference

Explanation:
Device interference is the most likely cause of dropped or slow wireless connections in a scenario where users experience issues only when connected to the office wireless network. Device interference can occur due to various factors such as neighboring wireless networks, electronic devices operating on similar frequencies, or physical obstacles obstructing the wireless signal. In a small office environment with multiple access points, device interference is a common issue that can lead to degraded wireless performance or dropped connections.

Question 25

25. Which of the following cloud models maintains access, even when a local internet outage occurs?
    a. Private
    b. SaaS
    c. Community
    d. Public

Answer 25

A. Private

Explanation:
A private cloud model typically provides dedicated infrastructure and resources that are exclusively used by a single organization. In a private cloud setup, the organization has full control over the infrastructure, including access and management. Because the private cloud infrastructure is hosted within the organization’s own data center or in a dedicated environment, access to cloud services and applications can be maintained even in the event of a local internet outage. This is because the organization’s internal network infrastructure still remains operational, allowing users to access cloud resources within the local network.

Question 26

26. A user is researching hard drives to upgrade a PC and has decided to purchase a NVMe drive.

Which of the following should the user confirm are available on the PC before making the purchase? (Choose two.)
a. SATA
b. M.2
c. PCIe.
d. SAS
e. SCSI
f. DRAM

Answer 26

The user should confirm the following options are available on the PC before purchasing a NVMe drive:

B. M.2
C. PCIe

Explanation:

B. M.2: NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) drives typically utilize the M.2 form factor for installation. Therefore, the user should ensure that the PC has an available M.2 slot for installing the NVMe drive.

C. PCIe: NVMe drives connect to the system through the PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) interface for high-speed data transfer. Therefore, the user should confirm that the PC supports PCIe connectivity to accommodate the NVMe drive.

Question 27

27. A laptop has been returned for a screen repair. The owner insists the screen is broken, but occasionally a faded image is able to be seen in very bright settings on the desktop.

Which of the following steps should the repair technician take FIRST?
a. Replace the graphics card.
b. Replace the screen, as the customer insists.
c. Recommend the usage of an external display instead.
d. Ensure the backlight is functioning as expected.

Answer 27

D. Ensure the backlight is functioning as expected.

Explanation:
The symptoms described, where a faded image is occasionally visible in very bright settings on the desktop, suggest that the backlight of the laptop screen may be malfunctioning. The backlight provides illumination for the LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) screen, allowing images to be visible. If the backlight is not functioning properly, the screen may appear dark or dim, and the image may only be faintly visible in very bright settings.

Question 28

28. A laptop PC user is reporting issues with the hard drive. A filesystem check shows that all files are accessible and the filesystem is clean. After the check, the PC still issues a hard drive error message.

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the error?
a. S.M.A.R.T failure
b. IOPS failure
c. DIMM failure
d. RAID failure

Answer 28

A. S.M.A.R.T failure

Explanation:
S.M.A.R.T (Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology) is a feature present in modern hard drives that monitors various aspects of the drive’s health and performance. If a S.M.A.R.T failure occurs, it indicates that the hard drive has detected a critical issue or imminent failure, even if the filesystem appears to be clean and files are accessible. Therefore, a S.M.A.R.T failure is the most likely cause of the error message reported by the PC user.

Question 29

30. A salesperson is using a weather application on a mobile device. The application appears to be draining the device’s battery very quickly. Which of the following is the BEST action for the salesperson to take in order to view weather forecasts while travelling?
    a. Enable the GPS service to ensure accurate location detection.
    b. Manually enter office locations in the weather application.
    c. Configure less frequent location checks using cellular location services.
    d. Use the offices’ Wi-Fi IP addresses as the geolocation mechanism.

Answer 29

C. Configure less frequent location checks using cellular location services.

Explanation:
The issue described is that the weather application is draining the device’s battery quickly. By configuring less frequent location checks, the application will consume less battery power while still providing weather forecasts based on the device’s current location. This option addresses the problem directly by reducing the frequency of location checks, thus alleviating the battery drain issue.

Question 30

29. A user reboots a machine. On rebooting, the user hears one beep, and then an error message is displayed.

Which of the following are MOST likely causing this issue? (Choose two.)
a. RAM module
b. Graphics card
c. CPU
d. Boot order
e. USB flash drive
f. Power supply

Answer 30

The most likely causes of this issue are:

D. Boot order
E. USB flash drive

Explanation:

D. Boot order - The single beep during POST indicates that basic hardware components are functioning properly, including the RAM and CPU. If the boot order is misconfigured, the system may attempt to boot from an incorrect device (such as a non-bootable USB flash drive) instead of the primary boot device where the operating system is installed. This can result in an error message during the boot process, as the system fails to find a bootable operating system.

Question 31

31. A technician replaced a motherboard on a server, and now the 64-bit hypervisor is not loading correctly. Which of the following needs to be enabled for the hypervisor to run?
    a. Hardware prefetcher
    b. Hyperthreading
    c. vPro
    d. VT-d

Answer 31

D. VT-d
Explanation:
VT-d stands for Intel Virtualization Technology for Directed I/O. It is a hardware virtualization technology that helps improve virtualization performance and security by allowing direct access to certain physical hardware devices from within virtual machines. In the context of a hypervisor not loading correctly after a motherboard replacement, enabling VT-d would likely resolve the issue by allowing the hypervisor to properly access hardware resources.

Question 32

32. A user’s mobile phone gets really hot to the touch and does not retain a charge. The user also reports that the phone is very slow, especially while charging. Which of the following is MOST likely causing these symptoms?
    a. Broken charging port
    b. Digitizer failure
    c. CPU overheating
    d. Defective battery

Answer 32

D. Defective battery
Explanation:
The symptoms described—getting hot to the touch, not retaining a charge, being slow while charging—are indicative of a defective battery. When a battery is faulty, it can exhibit these behaviors due to internal issues such as deterioration of the battery cells or a malfunctioning charging mechanism. A defective battery can cause overheating, slow charging, and inability to hold a charge, leading to the symptoms reported by the user.

Question 33

33. A Microsoft Windows user is preparing to work in another country and needs to comply with corporate policy for data protection when copying files to portable media.

Which of the following solutions would MOST likely satisfy this requirement?
a. A USB 3.1 flash drive with BitLocker to Go installed
b. An SD memory card with NTFS
c. An xD memory card with ext3
d. A portable hard drive with FAT32

Answer 33

A. A USB 3.1 flash drive with BitLocker to Go installed

Explanation:
BitLocker to Go is a feature available in certain editions of Microsoft Windows that allows users to encrypt removable storage devices, such as USB flash drives, to protect data stored on them. By encrypting the USB flash drive with BitLocker to Go, the user can ensure that data copied to the drive is protected in compliance with corporate data protection policies. This solution provides encryption for the portable media, addressing the requirement for data protection.

Question 34

34. Which of the following network devices is used to separate broadcast domains?
    a. Switch
    b. Wireless access point
    c. Router
    d. Hub

Answer 34

C. Router

Explanation:
A router is a network device that operates at the network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model and is used to connect multiple networks together. One of the primary functions of a router is to separate broadcast domains, which are groups of devices that receive broadcast messages from each other. Routers achieve this separation by filtering broadcast traffic and only forwarding it to the appropriate network segment, effectively preventing broadcast traffic from crossing into other network segments. Therefore, a router is the network device used to separate broadcast domains.

Question 35

35. A user submits a help desk ticket regarding a smartphone that will no longer accept its charging cable. The assigned technician notices the phone does not have a protective case, and the user constantly transports the phone in a pocket. The technician attempts to use a secondary charger, but the cable falls out of the phone.

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
a. The phone requires a firmware update to address charging issues.
b. The charge port contains foreign objects, such as lint.
c. The phone’s battery has swelled, preventing the utilization of the charge port.
d. The phone has experienced water damage, thus the battery is not charging.

Answer 35

B. The charge port contains foreign objects, such as lint.

Explanation:
Given the scenario where the user constantly transports the phone in a pocket without a protective case, it’s probable that lint or other debris has accumulated in the charge port over time. This accumulation can prevent the charging cable from making a secure connection with the port, leading to issues such as the cable falling out or the phone not accepting the charging cable. Therefore, cleaning the charge port to remove any foreign objects, such as lint, would likely resolve the issue.

Question 36

36. A network administrator was notified that laptop users are unable to access or ping any network resources on the corporate network. Which of the following should the network administrator check FIRST?
    a. DHCP
    b. AAA
    c. DNS
    d. ARP

Answer 36

A. DHCP

Explanation:
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is responsible for automatically assigning IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, and other network configuration information to devices on a network. If laptop users are unable to access or ping any network resources, it’s possible that they are not receiving valid IP addresses from the DHCP server. This could result in a lack of network connectivity. Therefore, checking the DHCP server to ensure it is operational and properly configured should be the first step in troubleshooting this issue.

Question 37

37. A user in a medical office contacts a technician regarding a printer that is used to print A4-sized labels. After the labels are printed, they mistakenly contain white space in the middle of the page.

Which of the following would MOST likely be the cause?
a. Contaminated fuser
b. Worn rollers
c. A misfeed
d. Page orientation

Answer 37

D. Page orientation

Explanation:
Page orientation refers to the way content is arranged on a printed page, typically as portrait (taller than it is wide) or landscape (wider than it is tall). A4-sized labels are typically designed to be printed in a specific orientation. If the page orientation setting in the printer or printing software does not match the orientation of the labels, it can result in white space in the middle of the page when printed. Therefore, incorrect page orientation is the most likely cause of the issue described.

Question 38

38. Upon booting a workstation, a technician hears a distinct clicking sound after power is applied to the motherboard.

Which of the following would MOST likely be the cause?
a. RAID
b. SSD
c. S.M.A.R.T
d. HDD

Answer 38

D. HDD

Explanation:
The distinct clicking sound heard after power is applied to the motherboard is a common symptom of a failing or failed hard disk drive (HDD). This sound often indicates that the read/write heads inside the HDD are unable to properly read or write data, and they are repeatedly attempting to access the disk, resulting in the clicking noise. HDDs consist of moving mechanical parts, including spinning disks and moving heads, and the clicking sound can occur when these components encounter physical issues, such as mechanical failure or damage.

Question 39

39. A technician identified an issue on a workstation, obtained details from the user, and made a backup of the system.

Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
a. Determine the next steps to resolve the issue and document it.
b. Design a plan of action to resolve the issue and implement the solution.
c. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes.
d. Establish a theory of probable cause, researching internally or externally as needed.

Answer 39

D. Establish a theory of probable cause, researching internally or externally as needed.

Explanation:
After identifying the issue on the workstation, obtaining details from the user, and making a backup of the system, the technician should proceed with establishing a theory of probable cause. This involves analyzing the information gathered, investigating possible reasons for the issue, and formulating hypotheses about what might be causing the problem. The technician may need to research internally or externally to gather additional information or expertise to support their theories.

Question 40

40. An organization has some computers running macOS and some computers running Windows. The computers running macOS also need to run a piece of software that is only available on Windows.

Which of the following BEST describes the solution for running Windows software on a computer running macOS?
a. Operating system spoofing
b. Remote software provisioning
c. Indirect software implementation
d. Cross-platform virtualization

Answer 40

D. Cross-platform virtualization

Explanation:
Cross-platform virtualization allows users to run software from one operating system (in this case, Windows) on a computer running a different operating system (in this case, macOS). Virtualization software, such as VMware Fusion, Parallels Desktop, or Oracle VirtualBox, creates a virtual environment within macOS where Windows can be installed and run as a guest operating system. Users can then install and use Windows software within this virtual environment without needing to dual-boot or install Windows directly on their macOS machine.

Question 41

41. A field technician has been dispatched to a site with an internet outage. Upon arriving, the technician discovers that the POTS lines are not working as well.

Which of the following technologies is the site MOST likely using?
a. Fiber
b. Cable
c. DSL
d. Satellite

Answer 41

C. DSL

Explanation:
POTS (Plain Old Telephone Service) lines are traditional telephone lines used for voice communication, and DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) technology is commonly used to provide internet access over existing POTS lines. DSL utilizes the same copper telephone lines used for voice communication to transmit digital data for internet connectivity. Therefore, if both the internet and POTS lines are not working, it suggests an issue with the underlying DSL technology or the telephone lines themselves.

Question 42

42. An online retailer would like to add capacity to support increased sales. Additional servers have been installed.

Which of the following should be used to ensure each new server is being properly utilized?
a. Virtualization
b. Clustering
c. Load balancer
d. Round-robin DNS

Answer 42

C. Load balancer

Explanation:
A load balancer distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers to ensure that no single server becomes overwhelmed with requests, thus optimizing resource utilization and maintaining system performance. By using a load balancer, the online retailer can evenly distribute incoming sales traffic across the newly installed servers, ensuring that each server is properly utilized and capable of handling its share of the workload.

Question 43

43. A user contacts the help desk in reference to a failing thumbprint scanner. The user states the scanner was functioning correctly yesterday.

Which of the following troubleshooting steps should be performed FIRST after the ticket has been filed?
a. Inquire about possible changes.
b. File a damage report.
c. Requisition a new scanner.
d. Attempt to clean the scanner.

Answer 43

A. Inquire about possible changes.

Explanation:
Inquiring about possible changes allows the technician to gather information about any recent modifications or events that may have affected the functionality of the thumbprint scanner. Changes such as software updates, configuration adjustments, physical relocations, or environmental factors could potentially impact the scanner’s performance. By identifying any recent changes, the technician can narrow down potential causes and determine if they are related to the reported issue.

Question 44

44. A company wants to use client-side virtualization for application testing.

Which of the following configurations would BEST support this goal?
a. A. CPU 2.5GHz - 4 cores 16GB DDR4 RAM 1TB SSD
b. B. CPU 3.2GHz - 1 core 16GB DDR4 RAM 4TB SSD
c. C. CPU 2.5GHz - 2 cores 16GB DDR4 RAM 4x 1TB HDD RAID 5
d. D. CPU 3.2GHz - 4 cores 8GB DDR4 RAM 500GB HDD

Answer 44

A. CPU 2.5GHz - 4 cores 16GB DDR4 RAM 1TB SSD

Explanation:
Client-side virtualization involves running virtual machines (VMs) on a client device for purposes such as application testing. To support this goal effectively, the client device needs sufficient processing power, memory, and storage capacity.

Option A provides a balanced configuration with a multi-core CPU (4 cores) running at a reasonable clock speed (2.5GHz), which is suitable for running multiple VMs simultaneously. The 16GB DDR4 RAM provides ample memory capacity to allocate to the VMs, allowing them to run smoothly without experiencing performance bottlenecks. Additionally, the 1TB SSD offers fast storage access, which is crucial for efficient VM operation and application testing.

Question 45

45. A user submitted a ticket to report an issue with a new printer that is no longer accepting new print jobs. The technician verifies the printer is on and notices the printer LCD screen has the following error message:

Paper Jam, Jam in Fuser.

Which of the following is the MOST efficient next step the technician should complete?
a. Apply a maintenance kit to the printer.
b. Check the printer paper path to locate any obstructions.
c. Turn the printer on and off to see if the error clears.
d. Replace the fuser.

Answer 45

B. Check the printer paper path to locate any obstructions.

Explanation:
The error message “Paper Jam, Jam in Fuser” indicates that there is likely a paper jam occurring in the fuser unit of the printer. The fuser unit is responsible for applying heat and pressure to bond toner onto the paper. Paper jams in the fuser can occur due to various reasons, such as torn paper or debris obstructing the paper path.

Before taking more drastic actions such as applying a maintenance kit or replacing the fuser, the technician should first perform a visual inspection of the printer paper path to locate and remove any obstructions causing the paper jam. This is the most efficient next step because it directly addresses the reported issue and may resolve the problem without the need for further maintenance or replacement parts.

Question 46

46. Which of the following is a valid use for PaaS?
    a. Off-site backups
    b. An application development environment
    c. A virtual server installation and configuration model
    d. A web application for asset management

Answer 46

B. An application development environment

Explanation:
PaaS provides a platform that allows developers to build, deploy, and manage applications without worrying about the underlying infrastructure. With PaaS, developers can access development tools, frameworks, and runtime environments to create, test, and deploy applications more efficiently. PaaS abstracts away the complexity of managing servers, operating systems, and other infrastructure components, allowing developers to focus on writing code and delivering value to their users.

Question 47

47. A company has a dot matrix printer that uses carbon paper. The company reports that the first page is printing too light, although the following pages are still legible.

Which of the following MOST likely needs to be fixed?
a. The print drum is worn and loose, causing the printing to be light in places.
b. The ribbon is low on ink or missing and must be replaced to get proper output.
c. The heating element has failed, and a new one needs to be installed for proper transfer.
d. The wrong type of filament is loaded, preventing it from sticking correctly.
e. The fuser assembly is not calibrated properly, causing it to impact the paper too hard.

Answer 47

B. The ribbon is low on ink or missing and must be replaced to get proper output.

Explanation:
In dot matrix printers, the print head strikes an inked ribbon against the paper to produce characters and images. If the ribbon is low on ink or missing, it can result in light or faded printing, especially on the first page, as the ribbon may not have enough ink saturation to produce a clear print. Replacing the ribbon with a new one will ensure proper ink coverage and improve print quality.

Question 48

48. The IT department at an insurance brokerage needs to acquire laptops that have built-in fingerprint readers in order to create a more secure environment.

Which of the following would be the MOST secure way to implement the fingerprint readers?
a. Grant all registered employees access to each machine.
b. Restrict device access to only the user to whom the laptop is assigned.
c. Limit device access to departments and guest users.
d. Give each team member a USB drive that bypasses the reader to allow guest users to log in.

Answer 48

B. Restrict device access to only the user to whom the laptop is assigned.

Explanation:
Implementing fingerprint readers on laptops provides a biometric authentication method, enhancing security by requiring a unique physical characteristic (fingerprint) for user authentication. Restricting device access to only the user to whom the laptop is assigned ensures that only authorized individuals can access the device and its data. This approach aligns with the principle of least privilege, where access rights are granted based on the specific needs of individual users, reducing the risk of unauthorized access and potential security breaches.

Question 49

49. A technician receives several error alerts on a server after an unexpected reboot. A message states that one or more disks are in a degraded state. When the technician advances to the next error message, it indicates the OS is missing.

Which of the following are the MOST likely causes of these errors? (Choose two.)
a. Missing drives in the OS
b. RAID failure
c. Bootable device not found
d. Data loss
e. Controller failure
f. CMOS corruption
g. TPM malfunction

Answer 49

B. RAID failure
C. Bootable device not found

Explanation:

B. RAID failure: The error alert indicating that one or more disks are in a degraded state suggests a problem with the RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) configuration. A degraded RAID array means that one or more disks in the array have failed or are experiencing issues, compromising the redundancy and potentially leading to data loss. RAID failures can occur due to various reasons, such as disk failures, controller issues, or misconfiguration.

C. Bootable device not found: The error message indicating that the operating system (OS) is missing suggests that the server is unable to locate a bootable device containing the OS. This can occur if the primary boot device, such as the hard drive or RAID array containing the OS, is inaccessible or has failed. Factors contributing to this issue may include disk failures, connectivity issues, or misconfigurations in the BIOS/UEFI settings.

Question 50

50. A technician is commissioning a workstation that is required to have mirrored storage, utilizing two 4TB drives that support one failure. Which of the following BEST meets these requirements?
    a. RAID 0
    b. RAID 1
    c. RAID 5
    d. RAID 10

Answer 50

b. RAID 1

Explanation:
RAID 1, also known as mirroring, involves creating an exact copy (mirror) of data across multiple drives. In a RAID 1 configuration with two drives, each drive contains the same data, providing redundancy and fault tolerance. If one drive fails, the system can continue to operate using the data from the remaining drive. Therefore, RAID 1 is suitable for environments where data redundancy and reliability are crucial, as it offers protection against drive failures without sacrificing storage capacity.