Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MRCPsych Part A big > Things to Remember > Flashcards

Things to Remember Flashcards

1
Q

What is the radial arm maze?

A

Measures spatial learning and memory in rats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who created the radial arm maze?

A

Olton and Samuelson in 1976

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is The Morris water navigation task?

A

Used to study spatial learning and memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What lesion impairs spatial learning?

A

Hippocampal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are some ways of testing spatial learning in rats?

A

The Morris Water Navigation Task

T-Maze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the Latent Inhibition Test?

A

Tests for sensorimotor gating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define Latent inhibition

A

An animal’s unconscious capacity to ignore stimuli that experience shows is irrelevant to its needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What test shows learned helplessness?

A

Yoked Shock Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What test shows the effect of antidepressants on the behaviour of lab animals?

A

Behavioural despair test/Porsolt Test/Forced swimming test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Normal range for Carbamazepine

A

> 7mg/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Normal value for Sodium Valproate

A

50-100mg/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Normal value for Phenytoin

A

10-20mg/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Normal value for Amitriptyline

A

100-200 micrograms/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Features of Preoperational stage

A 
Deferred imitation
Symbolic Play
Drawing
Mental Imagery
Language
Semiotic functioning - uses symbols
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When do primary circular reactions occur?

A

Sensoriomotor - 2-5 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is primary circular reaction?

A

Involve infants own body only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When do secondary circular reactions occur

A

5-9 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are secondary circular reactions?

A

Behaviour involves external objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When do tertiary circular reactions occur?

A

12-18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are tertiary circular reactions?

A

Experiments with different effects of same behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When does phenomenalistic causality occur?

A

Preoperational stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When does Syllogistic Reasoning occur?

A

Concrete Operational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is increased in CSF compared to Blood?

A

Mg

Cl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the same in both CSF and blood?

A

Na

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is discredited stigma?

A

Individual assumes their difference is already known/evident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is discreditable stigma?

A

Individual assumes their stigma is neither known about nor immediately perceiveable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

% risk of Uncle/aunt developing schizophrenia

A

2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

% risk of neice/nephew developing schizophrenia

A

4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

% risk of grandchild developing schizophrenia

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

% chance of identical twins developing schizophrenia

A

48%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

% change of children developing schizophrenia

A

13%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

% chance of sibling developing schizophrenia

A

9%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

% chance of fraternal twin developing schizophrenia

A

46%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

% chance of child of both parents with schizophrenia developing the condition

A

46%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

% chance of child of one parent developing schizophrenia

A

13%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Name the secondary amines

A

Desimipramine
Nortriptyline
Protryptiline
Amoxapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Who will be unaffected in X-linked dominant?

A

Sons of a man with the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Who will be unaffected in X-linked recessive?

A

Son from father

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Who do sons receive their X chromosome from?

A

Mother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which CN travel through the superior orbital fissure?

A

CN III-VI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which CN travel through the internal auditory canal?

A

VII-VIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which CN travel through the jugular foramen?

A

IX-XI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Antidepressants for nocturnal enuresis in children?

A

Amitriptyline
Imipramine
Nortriptyline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Antidepressants for phobic and obsessional states?

A

Clomimipramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Antidepressants for Narcolepsy?

A

Comimipramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Antidepressants for Panic Disorder and Agoraphobia

A 
Citalopram
Escitalopram
Sertraline
Paroxetine
Venlafaxine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Antidepressants for Social Anxiety

A 
Escitalopram
Paroxetine
Sertraline
Moclobemide
Venlafaxine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Antidepressants for GAD

A

Escitalopram
Paroxetine
Duloxetine
Venlafaxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Antidepressants for OCD

A 
Escitalopram
Fluoxetine
Fluvoxamine
Paroxetine
Sertraline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Antidepressants for Bulimia

A

Fluoxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Antidepressants for PTSD

A

Paroxetine

Sertraline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is Anwesenheit?

A

Feeling of something or some preson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is Telepsia?

A

Seeing objects far away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What characterises Cortical Dementias?

A

Impaired memory
Impaired visuospatial ability
Impaired executive function
Impaired language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Name some Cortical Dementias

A

Alzheimers
Picks Disease
CJD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What characterises subcortical dementias?

A

Generalised slowing of mental processes
Personality change
Mood disorders
Presence of abnormal movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Name some subcortical dementias

A

Binswanger’s disease
Dementia associated Huntington’s disease
Dementia associated AIDS
Dementia associated with Parkinson’s disease
Dementia associated with Wilson’s disease
Dementia associated with progressive supranuclear palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Aim of Trust vs Mistrust?

A

Hope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Aim of Autonomy v Same?

A

Will

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Aim of Initiative v Guilt?

A

Purpose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Aim of Industry vs Inferiority?

A

Competence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Aim of Identity v Role Confusion?

A

Fidelity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Aim of Intimacy v Isolation

A

Love

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Aim of Generativity v Stagnation

A

Care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Aim of Integrity v Despair

A

Wisdom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Inducers of CYP450

A 
Smoking
Alcohol
Barbituates
Carbamazepine
Phenytoin
St Johns Worst
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Inhibitors of CYp450

A

Chlorpromazine
SSRIs
Grapefruit Juice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which gyrus is important for dreaming?

A

Lingual gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Where is the lingual gyrus?

A

Occipital Lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which gyrus is important for episodic memory?

A

Dentate gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What does the Prosencephalon differentiate into?

A

Telencephalon

Diencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What does the Telencephalon form?

A

Cerebrum
Striatum
Pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What does the Diencephalon form?

A 
Hypothalamus
Subthamus
Epithalamus
Thalamus
Pineal Body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the two parts of the Mesencephalon?

A

Tectum

Tegmentum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the Tectum made up of?

A

Superior & Inferior Colliculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the Tegmentum made up of?

A

Red Nucleus

Periaqueductal grey matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What does the Rhombencephalon differentiate into?

A

Metencephalon

Myelencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What does the Metencephalon form?

A

Pons

Rostral part of Medulla Oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What does Myelencephalon form?

A

Caudal part of Medulla Oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Declaration of Geneva?

A

Revision of Hippocratic Oath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Declaration of Helsinki?

A

Ethical principle of research in human subjects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Declaration of Tokyo?

A

Doctors should refuse to participate, condone or give permission for torture, degradation or cruel treatment of prisoners or detainees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Decleration of Malta?

A

Guidance for treating people on hunger strike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Declaration of Lisbon?

A

International statement of the rights of patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Where is PrP?

A

Chromosome 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Where is BDNF?

A

Chromosome 11

87
Q

Enzyme involved in Homcystinuria?

A

Cystathionine beta synthase deficiency

88
Q

Enzyme involved in Tay Sachs disease?

A

Beta-N-acetylhexosaminidase A deficiency

89
Q

Enzyme involved in Gauchers disease?

A

Glucosylceramidase deficiency

90
Q

What travels through Foramen spinosum?

91
Q

What travels through Foramen ovale?

A

Mandibular division of CN V

92
Q

What travels through Foramen lacerum?

93
Q

What travels through jugular foramen?

94
Q

Where is the jugular foramen?

A

Posterior fossa

95
Q

Chromosome of Wolf Heirschhorn syndrome?

A

4p deletion

96
Q

Signs of Wolf Hierschhorn syndrome?

A

Greek warrior helmet
Cleft lip
Microcephaly

97
Q

Chromosome of Retts?

98
Q

Chromosome of Rubinstein Taybi Syndrome?

99
Q

Signs of Rubinstein Taybi?

A

Friendly disposition?

100
Q

Name of XYY?

101
Q

Chromosome of Coffin Lowry?

102
Q

Signs of Coffin Lowry?

A

Short
Slanting eyes
Broad Nose

103
Q

Chromosome of Niemann Picks Disease

104
Q

Who stated the driving force of personality was striving for superiority?

A

Alfred Adler

105
Q

Who created group dynamics?

106
Q

Three parts of group dynamics

A

Fight or flight
Dependency
Pairing

107
Q

Who created interpersonal therapy?

A

Harry Sullivan

108
Q

Thorndike’s law of effects

A

The tendency of an action to occur depends on the effect it has on the environment.

109
Q

What is a Haplotype?

A

Set of DNA variations that are inherited together

110
Q

What is a Karyotype?

A

Individual’s collection of chromosomes

111
Q

Withdrawl features of Cocaine and Amphetamine

A

Hypersomnia
Hyerphagia
Irritability/agitation
Vivid dreams

112
Q

Withdrawal symptoms of MDMA/Ecstacy

A

Depression
Insomnia
Depersonalisation
Derealisation

113
Q

Withdrawal syndrome of Cannabis

A

Insomnia
Irritability
Reduced appetite

114
Q

Who found Isopronazid?

115
Q

Who discovered the cheese effect of MAOIs?

116
Q

Who discovered Chlorpromazine?

A

Charpentier

117
Q

Who discovered Imipramine?

118
Q

Who discovered ECT?

119
Q

Who coined the term antidepressant?

120
Q

Who discovered insulin shock therapy?

121
Q

Who discovered frontal leucotomy for schizophrenia?

122
Q

Who discvered Metrazol Therapy?

123
Q

Types of MSA

A

Shy-Drager
Striatonigral
Olivopontocerebellar

124
Q

Macroscopic findings of MSA

A

Pallor of substantia nigra
Greenish discolouration and atrophy of the putamen
Cerebellar atrophy

125
Q

Microscopic findings of MSA

A

Papp-Lantos bodies (alpha-synuclein inclusions in oligodendrocytes found in the substantia nigra, cerebellum, and basal ganglia)

126
Q

Who created the terms of Acculturation?

A

John Berry

127
Q

Who is the founder of Gestalt Psychology?

A

WIlliam Wundt

128
Q

Poor metabolisers of CYP 2D6?

129
Q

Jaw jerk CN?

130
Q

Related mutations for Retts?

131
Q

Related mutations for suicidal behaviour?

132
Q

Functions of Cingulate gyrus

A

Regulates aggressive behaviour

Coordinates response to pain

133
Q

Where is cingulate gyrus?

A

Medial aspect of cerebral hemisphere next to corpus callosum

134
Q

Who coined Cognitive Heuristics?

A

Tversky

Kahneman

135
Q

What is anchoring and adjustment

A

Starting from initial value that is adjusted to yield final value.

E.g. For example in one study a mock jury was told to contemplate the harshest verdict first. The final verdict was found to be relatively harsh.

136
Q

What enzyme does CYP 2D6 encode?

A

Debrisquine Hydroxylase

137
Q

Where is oxytocin synthesised?

A

Paraventricular nucleus

138
Q

Where is ADH synthesized?

A

Supraoptic nucleus

139
Q

Name the projection tracts

A 
Corticospinal
Corticobulbar
Corona Radiata
Internal capsule
Geniculocalcarine tract
140
Q

Which tract connects motor cortex to brain stem and spinal cord?

A

Corticospinal

Corticobulbar

141
Q

What does Geniculocalcarine tract connect?

A

Lateral geniculate nucleus to occipital cortex

142
Q

Name the Commissural tracts?

A

Corpus Callosum

Anterior Commissure

143
Q

What does anterior commissure connect?

A

Anterior fibres: olfactory bulbs &nuclei

Posterior fibres: middle & inferior temporal gyrus

144
Q

Name the Association Fibres

A

Cingulum
Superior & Inferior Orbitofrontal fasciculus
Uncinate Fasciculus
Superior & Inferior Longitudinal Fasciculus

145
Q

What is the arcuate fasciculus?

A

Superior Longitudinal Fascilulus

146
Q

What does Inferior Longitudinal Fasciculus connect?

A

Occipital & Temporal lobes

147
Q

What does Arcuate Fasciculus connect?

A

Frontal lobe to Parietal, Temporal & Occipital lobes

148
Q

What does Uncinate fasciculus connect?

A

Orbital & inferior frontal gyri of frontal lobe to anterior temporal lobe

149
Q

What does Cingulum connect?

A

Portions of Frontal, Parietal and Temporal lobes

150
Q

What are Papp Lantos Bodies?

A

Glial cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in CNS

151
Q

What are Papp Lantos Bodies found in?

152
Q

What are Asteroid bodies found in?

A

Sarcoidosis

Berylliosis

153
Q

How do Asteroid bodies appear?

A

Acidophilic

Stellate inclusions in giant cells

154
Q

How do Barr bodies appear

A

Dark staining mass in contact with nuclear membrance

155
Q

Which conditions are Mallory bodies found in?

A

Alcoholic hepatitis and cirrhosis
Wilsons Disease
PBC

156
Q

How do Mallory bodies appear?

A

Alcoholic hyalin

Eosoniphilic intracytoplasmic includions in hepatocytes

157
Q

What conditions are Schauman bodies found in

A

Sarcoidosis

Berylliosis

158
Q

How do Schauman bodies appear

A

Concentrically laminated inclusions in giant cells

159
Q

What consitions are Cebra bodies found in?

A

Niemann-Pick disease
Tay Sachs
Any of the mucopolysaccharidoses

160
Q

How do Zebra bodies appear?

A

Palisaded lamellated membranous cytoplasmic bodies in macrophages

161
Q

What conditions are LE bodies/Hematoxylin bodies found in?

162
Q

How do LE bodies appear?

A

Nuclei of damaged cels within bound anti-nuclear antbodies become homogenous and loose chromatin pattern

163
Q

Which conditions do Verocay Bodies appear in?

A

Schwannoma

164
Q

How do Verocay bodies appear?

A

Palisades of nuclei at end of fibrillar bundle

165
Q

What are Kuru plaques found in?

A

Kuru
Gerstmann-Straussler Syndrome
CJD (sometimes)

166
Q

What are Kuru plaques made of?

A

Host-encoded prion protein

167
Q

Licensed drug for TD?

A

Tetrabenazine

168
Q

What can increase levels of Lamotrigine?

A

Sertraline

Valproate

169
Q

Macroscopic findings in Huntingtons

A

Gyral atrophy in frontal and temporal lobs

170
Q

Mutational link in ADHD?

171
Q

Type I reaction?

A

IgE mediated

172
Q

TII reaction?

A

Cytotoxic - IgG/IgM binds to cell

173
Q

TIII reaction?

A

Immune complex - drug-antibody complex

174
Q

How do TII reactions manifest?

A

Blood abnormalities

175
Q

How do TIII reactions manifest?

A

Fever
Rash
Urticaria
Vasculitis

176
Q

TIV reaction?

A

Cell mediated

MHC system presents drug molecules to T cells

177
Q

Manifestation of TIV reaction?

A

Allergic contact dermatitis

Rashes

178
Q

EEG findings of TLE?

A

Localised 5-7 Hc

179
Q

EEG findings of Myoclonic Epilepsy?

180
Q

EEG finding of Metabolic infections?

A

Triphasic 1.5-3 second high voltage slow waves

181
Q

EEG findings of Herpes Simplex?

A

Episodic discharges every 1-3 seconds

182
Q

What is polarised delusion?

A

Delusion + fact mixed together

183
Q

What is a juxtaposed delusion?

A

Delusion + fact exist together but do not ineract

184
Q

What is autistic delusion?

A

No reality

Patient lives in delusional world

185
Q

Who coined the term group dynamics?

186
Q

Function of unconscious in group dynamics?

A

Protect group from pain of reality

187
Q

Groups in Group dynamics?

A

Working Group

Basic Assumption Group

188
Q

What is the working group?

A

Works well and gets job done

189
Q

What is the basic assumption group?

A

Acts out primitive fantasies

Prevents things from getting done

190
Q

What is dependency in group dynamics?

A

Group turns to leader to protect them from anxiety

191
Q

What is fight-flight in group dynamics?

A

Group acts as if there is an enemy who must be attacked or avoided.

192
Q

What is Pairing in group dynamics?

A

Group acts as if answer lies in pairing of two members.

193
Q

Hz of Sigma?

194
Q

Where is Sigma wave found?

A

Frontal and central regions

195
Q

Another name for Sigma wave?

A

Sleep spindle

196
Q

Hz of Gamma wave?

197
Q

When do you see Gamma waves?

A

Meditation

198
Q

Which Dopamine receptors are referred to as D1 like?

199
Q

What do D1 like receptors do?

A

Activate adenylate cyclase, increase cAMP

200
Q

Which receptors are D2 like?

201
Q

What do D2 like receptors do?

A

Inhibits adenylate cyclase and therefore inhibits formation of cAMP

202
Q

Spastic speech

A

Increased nasality
Stained, hoarse voice
Slow, imprecise articulation
Explosive, forceful

203
Q

Flaccid speech

A

Breathy, nasal voice

Imprecise consonants

204
Q

Diseases which would give flaccid speech

A

Myasthenia Gravis

205
Q

Hypokinetic speech

A

Breathy monotone
Quiet, reduced articulation
Fast, imprecise

206
Q

Diseases which would give hypokinetic speech

A

Parkinsons

207
Q

Hyperkinetic speech

A

Strained hoarseness

Voice arrests

208
Q

Diseases causing hyperkinetic speech

A

Huntingtons
Sydenham’s chorea
Tardive Dyskinesia

209
Q

Ataxic speech

A

Rapid
Monopitched
Slurred

210
Q

Thurstone’s argument for intelligence?

A

Inteligence arises from 7 factors:

Word fluency
Verbal comprehension
Spatial visualization
Number facility
Associative memory
Reasoning
Perceptual speed
211
Q

Connections of Basal Ganglia

A

Cortex -> Striatum -> Internal segment of globus pallidus -> thalamus -> cortex

212
Q

What does Wahnstimmung mean?

A

Delusional Mood?

213
Q

What is the structural model?

A

Id
Ego
Superego

214
Q

Risk factors for agranulocytosis

A

Asian
African
Female
Old Age

MRCPsych Part A big (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions