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Cessna 172/PPL > Theorique PPL > Flashcards

Theorique PPL Flashcards

1
Q

An aeroplane’s wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depends upon the :
- Angle of bank
- True airspeed
- Angle of attack
- Rate of turn

A

Angle of attack

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2
Q

Which is true with respect to changing the angle of attack?
- An increase in angle of attack will increase drag
- An increase in angle of attack will decrease in drag
- A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure bellow the wing and decrease drag
- An increase in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing and increase drag

A

An increase in angle of attack will increase drag

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3
Q

During a level turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank, varying the rate of turn by changing the airspeed the load factor would :
- Vary the depending upon the resultant lift vector
- Vary depending upon speed
- Remain constant
- Do none of the above

A

Remain constant

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4
Q

During flight with a zero degree of angle of attack the pressure along the upper surface of an asymmetrical wing would be:
- Less than the atmospheric pressure
- Greater than the atmospheric pressure
- Equal to the atmospheric pressure
- None of the above

A

Less than the atmospherical pressure

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5
Q

For a given angle of bank in an aeroplane, the load factor imposed in a coordinated constant-altitude turn is :
- Greater than in straight and level flight, and the stall speed increases.
- Greater than in straight and level flight, and the stall speed decreases
- Varied with the rate of turn
- None of the above

A

Greater than in straight and level flight, and the stall speed increases

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6
Q

The action necessary to make an aeroplane turn is to :
- Provide a centripetal force that overcomes the weight by banking the wing
- Produce horizontal component of lift, known as centripetal force, by banking the wing
- Produce horizontal component of lift, known as centrifugal force by banking the wing
- Provide a centrifugal force that overcomes the weight by banking the wing

A

Produce horizontal component of lift, known as centripetal force, by banking the wing

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7
Q

The relationship of the forces acting on an aircraft in a constant-power constant airspeed descent means that the :
- Weight is greater than lift
- Thrust is equal to drag and lift is less than weight
- Thrust is greater than drag and weight is greater than lift
- Sum of the horizontal forces and vertical forces are zero

A

Sum of the horizontal forces and vertical forces are zero

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8
Q

Regarding the forces acting on an aeroplane in a steady state climb that :
- The sum of all upward forces is equal to the sum of all downward forces
- The sum of all upward forces is more than the sum of all downward forces
- The sum of all forward forces is greater than the sum of all rearward forces
- None of the above is correct

A

The sum of all upward forces is equal to the sum of all downward forces

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9
Q

The critical angle of attack at which a given aeroplane wing stalls is dependent on the :
- Gross weight, design of the wing and critical surface contamination
- Design of the wing and critical surface contamination
- Attitude and true airspeed
- Critical surface contamination and gross weight

A

Design of the wing and critical surface contamination

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10
Q

When considering the forces acting upon an aeroplane in straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, which is correct?
- Lift always acts perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the wing and is greater than weight
- Weight always acts vertically toward the center of the Earth
- Thrust always acts forward parallel to the relative wind and is greater than drag
- None of the above

A

Weight always acts vertically toward the center of the Earth

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11
Q

An aeroplane has greater longitudinal stability when the :
- Wings have a high angle of incidence
- Wings have a high dihedral angle
- Center of pressure is forward the center of gravity
- Center of gravity is well forward of the center of pressure

A

Center of gravity is well forward of the center of pressure

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12
Q

Considering a flight in turbulent conditions, the effect that a decrease in the aeroplane’s gross weight will have is that :
- A lesser angle of attack will be required to stall the wing
- A greater angler of attack will be required to stall the wing
- The manoeuvring speed will be higher
- The manoeuvring speed will be lower

A

The manoeuvring speed will be lower

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13
Q

Describe dynamic longitudinal stability :
- Motion about the longitudinal axis
- Motion about the lateral axis
- Motion about the vertical axis
- All of the above

A

Motion about the lateral axis

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14
Q

In the northern hemisphere the magnetic compass will initially indicate a turn toward the east if the aircraft :

Enters a left turn from a northerly heading
Accelerates while on a northerly heading
Decelerates while on a southerly heading
Enters a right turn from a northerly heading

A

Enters a left turn from a northerly heading

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15
Q

The angular difference between the true North Pole and the magnetic North Pole is called
Variation
Magnetic field
Agonic difference
Deviation

A

Variation

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16
Q

What important limiting speed is not marked on the airspeed indicator?
Maximum structural cruising speed
Maximum flaps extended speed
Never exceed speed
Manoeuvring speed

A

Manoeuvring speed

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17
Q

Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is the :
Indicated airspeed corrected for installation and instrument errors
Actual speed of an aircraft over the ground
Airspeed corrected for altitude and nonstandard temperature
Airspeed read directly from the airspeed indicator

A

Indicated airspeed corrected for installation and instrument errors.

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18
Q

True airspeed (TAS) is the :
Actual speed of an aircraft over the ground
Airspeed read directly from the airspeed indicator
Indicated airspeed corrected for installation and instrument errors
Calibrated airspeed corrected for altitude and nonstandard temperature

A

Calibrated airspeed corrected for altitude and nonstandard temperature

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19
Q

A common cause of a surface-based inversion is the :
Passage of a warm air mass over a cool surface
Rapid lifting of warm moist air as it moves up a mountain slope
Lifting of air along a cold front
Radiation cooling from the surface on clear nights

A

Radiation cooling from the surface on clear nights

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20
Q

Temperature inversion exists when the temperature of the air increases with an increase in altitude. True or False?

A

True

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21
Q

Cloud, fog, or dew will always form when :
Smoke is present
Water vapor is present
Water vapor condenses
Relative humidity reaches 100%

A

Water vapor condenses

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22
Q

Density altitude can be obtained by dialing in 29.92 in Hg on the altimeter sub-scale. True or False?

A

False

The density altitude is the air density given as a height above mean sea level.

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23
Q

Frost will form when the surface of the aircraft is at or below the dew point of the adjacent air and when :
The dew point temperature is colder than freezing
Dew is on the aircraft
The relative humidity is high
Light rain is falling

A

The dew point temperature is colder than freezing

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24
Q

If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate :

Lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
The actual altitude above the sea level.
Higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
None of the above.

A

Higher than the actual altitude above the sea level.

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25
Q

If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of higher pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate :

Lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
The actual altitude above the sea level.
Higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
None of the above.

A

Lower than the actual altitude above sea level.

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26
Q

Pressure altitude can be obtained by dialing 29.92 Hg on the altimeter’s sub-scale. True or False?

A

True

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27
Q

The condition associated with the formation of a temperature inversion is :

The vertical mixing of air
Stable air
Warming from below
Cumuliform clouds

A

Stable air

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28
Q

A factor that affects the stability of air would be the :

Lifting action of the atmosphere
Pressure
Temperature
Relative humidity

A

Lifting action of the atmosphere

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29
Q

The weather conditions associated with stable air include :

Wide areas of layer clouds with little or no turbulence
Clouds with extensive vertical development
Moderate to heavy turbulence in and near cumuloform clouds
Showery precipitation

A

Wide areas of layer clouds with little or no turbulence.

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30
Q

What conditions would you expect to encounter when a low-level temperature inversion exists and the relative humidity is high?

Rain showers, good visibility and lights to moderate turbulence
Several thick layers of clouds extending to middle altitudes
Strong vertical air movement in clear air
Smooth air, but poor visivility due to haze, fog or stratus clouds

A

Smooth air, but poor visibility due to haze, fog, or stratus clouds.

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31
Q

Station pressure is the same as the altimeter setting. True or False?

A

False

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32
Q

An aircraft will likely experience a greater degree of turbelence when flying :

Towards a mountain on the leeward side
Towards a mountain on the windward side
Away from a mountain ridge on the leeward side
Well above the peaks

A

Away from a mountain ridge on the leeward side

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33
Q

It is advisable to configure an aeroplane for turbulence penetration speed when flying over :

The leeward side of a mountain
The gradual down-slope on the windward side of the mountain
The gradual up-slope on the windward side of the mountain
At high altitude over mountainous terrain

A

On the leeward side of a mountain

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34
Q

The pressure gradient force and the Coriolis force become more balanced when :

Further from the surface
The two forces are parallel
Close to the surface
They work in the same direction

A

Further from the surface

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35
Q

The wind blows parallel to the isobars at approximatly … above the ground.

900 feet
6000 feet
900 m
6000 m

A

900 meters

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36
Q

The surface friction has an effect on the direction of the wind. Over the Ocean there is less friction so the wind tends to blow :

Perpendicular to the isobars
Lighter than over the land
At a greater angle to the isobars
More parallel to the isobars

A

More parallel to the isobars

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37
Q

Explain Buy’s Ballot law

A

In the northern hemisphere, with the back in the wind the low pressure system will be on the left.

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38
Q

Locate the polar cell, the ferrell cell and the hadley’s cell in the tricellular model. What direction does the wind come from in each.

A

Polar is in between 90 and 60 deg, Ferrell is between 60 and 30 deg and Hadley’s cell is between 30 deg and the equator.
Polar Anticlockwise, Ferrell Clockwise, Hadley Anticlockwise.

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39
Q

What is the standard for midday winds in the northern hemisphere?

A

Midday winds veer (clockwise) and increase during a climb

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40
Q

What is the difference between anabatic and katabatic winds?

A

Anabatic is during the day upward hills
Katabatic is at night flowing down in a valley.

41
Q

How fast are the jet stream?

A

60 kts

42
Q

Steam fog is the result of :

The saturation of dry air as it blows warm water
Warm moist air condensing over cold ocean waters
A sea breeze following a clear night
Dry warm air blowing over cool water

A

The saturation of dry air as it blows over warm water.

43
Q

Chop is slight rapid and rythmic bumps with changes in altitude or attitude, True or False?

A

False, altitude and attitude do not change.

44
Q

An air mass source region is an area characterized by :

Semi permanent or permanent low pressure areas
Frequent frontal activity
Strong westerly winds in a mid-latitude region
large areas with uniform terrain and temperature

A

Large areas with uniform terrains and temperature

45
Q

Cloud names containing the suffix nimbus identifies as

towering cumulus clouds with lightning
clouds that produce precipitation
Clouds with vertical development
clouds that occur at low altitudes

A

clouds that produce precipitation

46
Q

Clouds are classified into four families based on :

Their height and vertical development
Whether they contain cumulus or stratus clouds
Their source region
Their shape and composition

A

Their height and vertical development

47
Q

A requirement for all types of fog to form is

An inversion
A falling dew point
A calm wind
High relative humidity

A

High relative humidity

48
Q

The cloud type that suggest vertical currents and bumpy flying conditions at lower altitudes are known as :

Numbus
Cumulus
Stratus
Rotor

A

Cumulus

49
Q

Upslope fog is formed by

A light easterly wind in the prairies
Cool dry air moving over warm water
A calm clear night with calm to very light wind
Warm moist air moving over a cooler surface

A

A light easterly wind in the prairies

50
Q

When flying low over hilly terrain, ridges, or montain ranges the greatest turbulence will be encounted

On the windward side when flying into the wind
On the leeward side when flying with the wind
On the leeward side when flying into the wind
During all of the above

A

On the leeward side when flying with the wind

51
Q

Upper level charts are issued based on

The altitude above ground level
Constant pressure levels
Altitude above sea level
Density altitude

A

Constant pressure levels

52
Q

During radio communications the pilot addresses the FIC as :

A

RADIO

53
Q

Which is one of the four main FISE frequencies
123.2
126.7
123.0
123.55

A

123.55

54
Q

For a long range flight it would be best to contact :
AWBS
FSS
AWIS
TCAS

A

AWBS (Aviation Weather Briefing Service)

55
Q

Is the ceiling reported in METAR above sea level or above ground level?

A

AGL

56
Q

Non Convective clouds abbreviations
LCA
PTCHY
XTNSV

A

Local 25% or less
Patchy 26-50%
Extensive Greater than 50%

57
Q

GFA colours meaning

Continuous green border line
Dashed green border line
Dashed orange border line
Continuous red border line
Dashed red border line

A

Area of continuous precipitation
Intermittent or showery precipitation
Obscuring phenomena other than precipitation
Area of continuous freezing precipitation
Area of intermittent freezing precipitation

58
Q

GFA is valid for altitude below

A

24 000 ft

59
Q

Freezing level on a GFA is measured in feet (agl or asl) and is indicated by a contour line at every (1000, 1500, 2000, 2500) feet

A

ASL , 2500 ft

60
Q

What is the GFA symbol and colour for a Trough? A trowal?

A

Trough : Purple dashed line
Trowal : Blue dashed line with red 45 deg lines

61
Q

Upper level charts are issued based on?

Altitude above ground level
Constant pressure levels.
Altitude above sea level.
Density altitude.

A

Constant pressure levels.

62
Q

Constant pressure levels charts numbers
850 hPa : ?
700 hPa : ?
500 hPa : ?
250 hPa : ?

A

850 hPa : 5000 ASL
700 hPa : 10 000 ASL
500 hPa : 18 000 ASL
250 hPa : 34 000 ASL

63
Q

METARs tell us the weather :

Expected only on the hour, every hour.
Observed at any time in the last hour.
Observed every 6 hours.
Observed at a specific time and location.

A

Observed at a specific time and location.

64
Q

How long is a GFA valid for?

A

0000h, 0600h, 1200h, 1800h, 2400h

65
Q

SIGMETs are published to inform which kind of aircraft?

A

All aircrafts

66
Q

To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft the pilot should refer to the :

METAR
GFA
TAF
FD

A

GFA

67
Q

From which primary source should information be obtained regarding expected weather at the ETA if the destination has no TAF?

Low-Level Prognostic Chart.
Radar.
GFA
Weather depication Chart

A

GFA

68
Q

How long is a GFA valid for, for a VFR flight?

18h
24h
12h
6h

A

IFR outlook text forecast found on the +12h even though a GFA is issued every 6h.

69
Q

When the term light and variable is used in reference to a winds aloft forecast, the coded group and wind speed are :

9999 and less than 10 KT
0000 and less than 3 KT
9900 and less than 5 KT

A

9900 and less than 5 KT.

70
Q

When holding short of the runway without a hold short line the pilot must hold short at ____ ft from the line.

A

at 200 ft from the line.

71
Q

An airport is ______

A certified aerodrome
A registered aerodrome
An aerodrome with a control tower
AN aerodrome with paved runwaya

A

A certified aerodrome.

72
Q

Cruising altitude in Southern Domestic Airspace are based on the

True track
Magnetic Heading
Magnetic Track
True Heading

A

Magnetic track

73
Q

Day VFR fixed-wing aircraft should have what minimum fuel requirement?

A

Destination aerodrome + 30 mins at cruising speed

74
Q

To walk, stand, drive or park a vehicule on the movement area of an aerodrome a person would need to get permission from the :

ATC
Aerodrome operator
FSS, ATC or aerodrome operator
FSS

A

FSS, ATC or aerodrome operator

75
Q

Takeoff can be conducted if ice is present on the tail : Vrai ou Faux

A

Faux

76
Q

A pilot has not flown in 3 years, to get current the pilot should

do a solo flight of 5 takeoffs and landings
write a PSTAR
Complete a training program or PPC
Request for a currency extension from TC

A

Complete a training program or PPC

77
Q

The minimum equipment needed in an aeroplane for a pilot to request special VFR is a

Two-way communication radio
Mode C transponder
GPS and two way communication radio
Mode C transponder and two-way communications

A

Two-way communication radio

78
Q

While overtaking another aircraft in flight, overtake from

Below and under the other aircraft
The left or port side of the other aircraft
Above and over the other aircraft
The right or starboard side of the other aircraft

A

The right or starboard side of the other aircraft

79
Q

Entering class F airspace is stricly prohibited by all VFR aircraft

True or false

A

False

80
Q

The distance from could that shall be maintained when flying VFR in controlled airspace is at least

1/2 mile horizontally
500 feet vertically and 2000 feet horizontally
1000 feet horizontally
500 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally

A

500 feet vertically and 1 mile horizontally

81
Q

An operable transponder with mode C encoding is required when

Operating in all class G airspace
Operating in all class E airspace
Indicated by the map or CFS
Operating in all class D airspace

A

Indicated by the map or CFS

82
Q

The required minimum for a VFR flight in uncontrolled airspace at 5000 AGL is :

1 mile visibility, 2000 ft horizontally and 500 ft vertically from clouds.
2 miles visibility and clear of clouds
3 miles visibility, 1 mile horizontally and 500 ft vertically from clouds, and 500 ft AGL
3 miles visibility, 1 mile horizontally and 500 ft vertically from clouds

A

1 mile visibility, 2000 ft horizontally and 500 ft vertically from cloud.

83
Q

In a Class E control zone without an operational FSS the minimum VFR weather requirements would be :

-1 mile visibility and clear of clouds
-CAVOK
- 3 miles visibility and a ceiling of 1000 ft AGL or higher
-2 miles visibility and clear of clouds

A

3 miles visibility and a ceiling of 1000 ft AGL or higher

84
Q

A flight within the ADIZ must be within … NM of the purposed route and within … minutes of the ETA

-20, +/- 5
-5, +/- 10
-10, +/- 10
-10, +/- 5

A

-20, +/- 5

85
Q

Which among the following is true regarding wild life strike in aviation?

-Avoid flying at low altitude
-Avoid a flight when animals or birds have been present within 3 hours of the start of operations
-Reduce speed of the aircraft when flying in the vicinity of wild life
-Familiarize yourself with bird/mammals impact report forms, and be sure to file a report in case of accidental contact with a wild animal

A

Familiarize yourself with bird/mammals impact report forms, and be sure to file a report in case of accidental contact with a wild animal

86
Q

While the ESCAT plan is in effect the PIC shall obtain approval before takeoff from :

ATC
FSS only
area control center manager
ATC or FSS

A

ATC or FSS

87
Q

When the PIC orders the seat belts to be fastened an infant passenger for which no child restraint system is provided shall :

-held in the arms of an adult person whose safety belt shall be fastened
-fasten the safety belt around the infant and passenger
-have a safety belt securing the infant
-do any of the above

A

held in the arms of an adult person whose safety belt shall be fastened

88
Q

For a 45 mins flight in an unpressurized aircraft at a cabin pressure altitude of 12 000 ft ASL with one pilot and two passengers on board requires the minimum oxygen of :

-45 mins for the pilot and for one passenger
-45 mins for the pilot and for all passengers
-15 mins for the pilot and for one passenger
-15 mins for the pilot and for all passenger

A

-15 mins for the pilot and for one passenger

89
Q

Donner le magnetic heading considérant une déclinaison magnétique de 004 west sachant que le true heading est de 110T?

A

114

90
Q

Quel type de ligne pour la distance la plus courte entre deux points géographique?

Rhumb line
Agonic line
Latitude
Great Circle

A

Great circle

91
Q

One inch on a VNC represents :

7SM
8SM
7KM
8KM

A

8 SM

92
Q

Updated VFR chart is found in the

AIM
CFS
CARs
Reissued 56 days

A

CFS

93
Q

It is not correct regarding VORs that

-Electrical storms may interfere with the normal operation
-Track accuracy is plus or minus 1 degree
-The frequency range is between 112.000 and 117.95 MHz
-Reception is line of sight

A

Electrical storms may interfere with the normal operation

94
Q

A DF steer provides directional assistance to a pilot by using

-Primary radar coverage
-The radio signal transmitted by the aircraft
-Bearing information found from the VOR
-Secondary radar coverage

A

The radio signal transmitted by the aircraft

95
Q

To receive a VOR station far away the aircraft needs to be at a certain altitude. What is the rule to determine that altitude?

A

Altitude AGL = (distance/1.25)^2

96
Q

It is incorrect regarding radio wave propagation that

-Sky waves are able to travel beyond the distance of ground waves
-LF/MF waves utilize ground waves but not sky waves
- HF radio utilizes sky and ground waves
- At night sky waves travel farther than during the day

A

LF/MF waves utilize ground waves but not sky waves

97
Q

A transponder works by

-Generating a reply signal
-Using ground equipment
-The reply signal being computed into distance and direction, and altitude when using a mode C
-All of the above

A

All of the above

98
Q

When an aircraft is assigned a transponder code by ATC and is now leaving controller airspace the pilot should

-Adjust their transponder to code 1200
-keep the transponder on the code assigned by atc
-Adjust their transponder to code 1000
-Request ATC for a new transponder code

A

Keep the transponder on the code assigned by ATC

99
Q
A

Cessna 172/PPL (4 decks)

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