The validity of a will and interpretation of the contents of a will/The distribution of testate, intestate, and partially intestate estates Flashcards

1
Q

There are three requirements for a valid will and codicil:

A

Testator MUST have testamentary capacity.
Testator have a general and specific intention to make the will.
Testator’s signature and the form of the will MUST comply with the required formalities.

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2
Q

Testamentary capacity:

A

the individual has at the time the will is executed:
Certain level of understanding which varies according to the complexity of the will itself

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3
Q

Banks v Goodfellow:

A

Understanding the nature of making a will and its effects.
Understanding the extent of the property of which they are disposing.
Being able to comprehend and appreciate the claims to which they ought to give effect.
Having no disorder of the mind that perverts their sense of right or prevents the exercise of their natural faculties in disposing of their property by will.
Is over the age of 18 years.

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4
Q

Testator MUST have capacity at the time of executing the will otherwise…

A

the will is void (subject to the rule in Parker v Felgate).

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5
Q

Rule in Parker v Felgate:

A

will can be valid if the testator has capacity when they give instructions for the will even if they lose capacity by the time the will is executed.

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6
Q

In these circumstances (Parker v Felgate) where the client has lost testamentary capacity between giving will instructions and executing the will, consider whether it’s still possible for the testator to make a valid will where:

A

They have testamentary capacity when they gave the will instructions.
They remember giving the earlier will instructions
They understand that the will they are going to sign has been prepared following those instructions.

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7
Q

Intention/duress and undue influence -
Testator MUST have:

A

General intention to make a will.
Specific intention to make this particular will (know the contents of the will and then approve them).

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8
Q

This presumption of knowledge and approval is satisfied if the testator has capacity when he executes the will UNLESS:

A

Testator is blind or illiterate or not personally signing
OR suspicious circumstances exist around the execution of the will.

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9
Q

Intention (knowledge and approval)…

A

can be vitiated by factors such as fraud (misleading the testator), duress/undue influence (coercion of the testator) or a failure to understand fully the disposition in the will (insufficient understanding).

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10
Q

Person wishing to challenge the will on the grounds of fraud or duress/undue influence MUST prove…

A

fraud, duress/undue influence, or a failure to understand fully the disposition in the will.
To prevent the will entering probate.

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11
Q

Formal requirements:

A

Will can be handwritten or typed.
Standard formalities for executing a will are under (s.9 WA 1837).

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12
Q

Standard formalities for executing a will are (s.9 WA 1837):
(4 elements)

A

Will must be in writing and the testator must sign it, or another person must sign it in their presence and at their direction.
MUST appear that the testator intended by their signature to give effect to the will.
Signature MUST be either made or acknowledged in the presence of at least two witnesses present at the same time.
Each witness MUST sign the will, or acknowledge their signature, in the presence of the testator (but not necessarily in the presence of any other witness).

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13
Q

All of the s.9 requirements must be complied with or…

A

the whole of the will, will be invalid.

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14
Q

Testator can sign a will by leaving a…

A

mark (e.g., thumb print) or directing another to sign on their behalf in their presence BUT electronic signatures AREN’T permitted.

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15
Q

For the purposes of presence when witnessing, this has been extended to include…

A

include video conference or other visual transmission AKA remote witnessing.

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16
Q

Will of a soldier, sailor or aviator on active military service, or any mariner or seaman at sea, DOESN’T have to meet the requirements of s.9.
These wills are called…

A

privileged wills.

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17
Q

An attestation clause is not strictly required BUT if there is an attestation clause (that has been validly executed), then this is…

A

strong evidence that the formalities for signing a will have been met (presumption of due execution).

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18
Q

Statutory requirement is for each witness to sign in the presence of…

A

the testator.

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19
Q

No requirements for each witness to…

A

be present at the time of the other’s signature.

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20
Q

No category of witness is excluded by statute but case law excludes…

A

a blind person and witnesses who are drunk or mentally unstable are unsuitable.

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21
Q

It’s also best practice to avoid…

A

family members (and any possible impression of bias), minors or those who CAN’T be easily traced.

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22
Q

Will CAN’T make a valid gift to:

A

Witness
Witness’s spouse (including same-sex spouse) or civil partner.
Beneficiary whose interest derives from any of these.

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23
Q

The validity of the will isn’t affected only that of…

A

the gift.

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24
Q

No statutory requirement for the date of execution to be on the face of the will, but it should…

A

be included to avoid uncertainty.

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25
Q

Solicitor drafting a will MUST ensure that the will is…

A

validly executed as they owe a duty of care to the testator and any prospective beneficiaries who can benefit under the will.

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26
Q

Necessary to identify who has the authority to deal with the deceased’s estate and…

A

obtain a grant of representation to administer the estate AKA PR.

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27
Q

Appointment of PR CAN be as:

A

Executor – where the deceased left a will appointing an executor.
Administrator – where there is a will but no executor willing or able to act or there is no will.

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28
Q

The appointment of executors: Deceased’s will CAN indicate who the executor is by -

A

Express appointment
Nomination
Appointment of partners in a firm Appointment as executor of a trust corporation

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29
Q

Express appointment?

A

that is the executor is named in the will as an executor.

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30
Q

Nomination?

A

where the will authorises an individual to name an executor.

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31
Q

Appointment of partners in a firm?

A

such as solicitors in a law firm or accountants in an accountancy practice (ensure will appoints partners acting at death rather than those at the time of the will and provide for the firm’s merger or change of name or incorporation).

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32
Q

Appointment as executor of a trust corporation?

A

often the trustee division of a bank or large charities.

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33
Q

Where there is no express appointment there CAN be…

A

an appointment according to the construction of the will

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34
Q

Where there is doubt about the construction of the will in terms of the appointment of an executor…

A

obtain guidance from a district judge or registrar before deciding who can apply for a grant of probate.

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35
Q

Advisable to appoint two executors to enable the…

A

proceeds of sale for any trust for land to be paid.

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36
Q

An executor can claim for… for their role BUT NOT

A

out-of-pocket expenses
remuneration

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37
Q

s.29 TA 2000?

A

payment of reasonable remuneration to a trustee (including PR) if they are acting in a professional capacity or a trust corporation.

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38
Q

An executor who doesn’t wish to become involved in the administration of the estate at all may?

A

renounce the right to probate.

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39
Q

To renounce, the executor MUST?

A

sign a written renunciation which is filed at the Probate Registry.

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40
Q

Executor MAY only renounce if he…

A

hasn’t accepted the role of executor or intermeddled with the estate.
Has accepted the role of executor, he MUST seek probate.

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41
Q

Power reserved can be granted where there is…

A

more than one executor appointed in the will and there is at least one other executor who is willing to apply for probate.

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42
Q

Additional executor CAN have power reserved to them which allows…

A

the executor to revive their right to a grant of probate in the estate at a later date and step in (should it be necessary).

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43
Q

Amendments include any alteration to the will, such as:
(4 elements)

A

Insertions in the text of the will OR between the lines of the will.
Additions at the end of the will.
Deletion of the text that can still be used.
Obliteration of text that can no longer be read.

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44
Q

There is no requirement for the testator to execute amendments that they make before executing the will itself, BUT there is a rebuttable presumption…

A

that the testator made any amendments to a will after execution UNLESS it can be proved that it was made before.

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45
Q

Probate registry will ask for evidence if…

A

the testator has not confirmed the amendments (except in some cases where there is evidence within the will itself).

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46
Q

If the testator and both witnesses initial amendments, the probate registry normally?

A

accepts that the testator made the amendments before execution.

47
Q

Good practice, to ensure all alterations and amendments before or…

A

after execution of the will, are witnessed and signed in accordance with s.21, WA 1837.

48
Q

Testator should make the amendments…

A

as clearly as possible in ink (including ballpoint).

49
Q

Wills written in pencil are assumed to be…

A

deliberative (not the final version) EVEN IF validly executed UNLESS there is evidence to the contrary.

50
Q

Enquiries are made on probate if amendments are not confirmed in one of the following ways:

A

Testator and both witnesses (s.21 WA 1837):
Executing the amendments in the same way as a will (follow formalities set out in s.9 WA 1837)
OR signing or adding their initial close to the amendments
OR signing or adding their initials close to a memorandum referring to the amendments.

51
Q

Testator re-executing will.
Testator making a…

A

codicil

52
Q

Minimum requirement is for the testator and both witnesses to add…

A

their initials close to the amendment.

53
Q

Testator confirms the amendments by?

A

re-executing the will, they should refer to the amendments to rebut the presumption that they made them after the re-execution.

54
Q

Should re-execute the will at the end of the will to avoid…

A

the suggestion that they added anything after the re-execution

55
Q

Re-execution doesn’t confirm amendments that are?

A

deliberative (that is, not final) UNLESS the amendments are expressly mentioned.

56
Q

Codicil?

A

document that amends or alters (rather than replaces) a previously executed will or codicil.

57
Q

Codicil allows a testator?

A

to change their will WITHOUT making an entirely new will.

58
Q

Supplemental document made after the will, is…

A

annexed to it, and is read in conjunction with the will.

59
Q

Codicil is convenient when…
and example?

A

the testator wants to make a small or straightforward amendment to their will (e.g., adding a new executor or a new legacy).

60
Q

The standard s.9 formalities for executing a codicil are the same as those for…

A

executing a will.

61
Q

Codicil normally confirms the will including…

A

any earlier codicils on the date of the codicil.

62
Q

Validly executed codicil refers to?

A

a will by date and confirms the contents of the will, can validate a will that wasn’t previously validly executed.

63
Q

Codicil can also validate amendments to a will that?

A

have not been validly confirmed in another way.

64
Q

Codicil can revoke an entire will or…

A

part of a will.

65
Q

Advisable for the codicil to state expressly?

A

what it’s revoking to avoid uncertainty about whether the testator intends to revoke it.

66
Q

Testator can revoke a will only by one of the following four ways:

A

Marrying or forming a civil partnership
Making a new will or a codicil
Making a written declaration executed in the same way as a will (according to s.9 formalities).
Destroying the will

67
Q

Revocation -
Marrying or forming a civil partnership?

A

revocation is automatic by operation of law EVEN IF not intended by the testator.
Exception to this rule is if the testator’s will shows that, at the time they made the will, they were expecting to marry or form the civil partnership with that named person AND they didn’t intend the marriage or civil partnership to revoke the will.

68
Q

Revocation -
Making a new will or a codicil?

A

a later will, or codicil operates to revoke any earlier will or codicil.
Latter will or codicil SHOULD have an express revocation clause revoking the prior will or codicil in full BUT if it doesn’t then it operates to impliedly revoke to the extent that they are inconsistent.

69
Q

Revocation -
Making a written declaration executed in the same way as a will?

A

according to s.9 formalities

70
Q

Revocation -
Destroying the will?

A

physical destruction with the intention to revoke is required, not merely symbolic such as crossing out of wording or writing revoked across the will is insufficient.
Accidental destruction doesn’t revoke a will.
Destruction of part CAN revoke only the part destroyed.
Destruction of a signature revokes the whole will.

71
Q

Effect of marriage of a testator:

A

Marriage or the formation of a civil partnership revokes a will UNLESS the will shows the contrary intention.

72
Q

Effect of divorce of a testator:

A

On divorce or at the end of a civil partnership (on a final (divorce or dissolution) order), will takes effect as if their former spouse or civil partner has died before them, UNLESS they express a contrary intention in the will.

73
Q

Effect of different types of gift:

A

Gift of personalty in a will is called a legacy.
Gift of land in a will is called a devise.
Legacy or devise in a will can be either:
General
Specific
Demonstrative

74
Q

General legacy?
Example?

A

a gift in a will that is not a gift of a particular asset in the estate but is to be paid for out of testator’s estate.

I give £100 to my neighbour.

75
Q

Specific legacy?
Example?

A

a gift of a particular asset(s) in a testator’s estate to one or more beneficiaries in a will.

I give all my jewellery to my niece.

76
Q

Demonstrative legacy?
Example?

A

a gift in a will that is not a gift of a particular asset in the estate but is a gift of a quantity or amount that is payable out of a separate fund or part of the testator’s property.

I give to my son £100,000 to be raised from the sale of my home.

77
Q

Gift in a will can fail for one of the following reasons:

A

Ademption
Lapse

78
Q

Ademption?

A

specific legacy will fail if the testator no longer owns the property at death.

79
Q

Lapse?

A

legacy in a will fails (legacy) where the intended beneficiary:
Has died before the testator.
Is the former spouse/civil partner and the marriage/civil partnership is later dissolved

80
Q

If the child of the testator died first
the legacy will?

A

be substituted automatically with a gift to the deceased child’s own children UNLESS the will provides for this not to happen (s.33 WA 1837).

81
Q

Legacy lapses?

A

property falls into residue.

82
Q

Abatement?

A

executors MUST pay the liabilities of the estate first over the paying of gifts:
Where the estate isn’t able to meet all the legacies, general legacies abate in equal proportions (before specific legacies).

83
Q

Demonstrative legacies DON’T…

A

abate with general legacies UNLESS the funds out of which the demonstrative legacies are to be paid is insufficient to pay them all.

84
Q

If the estate is unable to pay all its debts…

A

specific legacies abate amongst themselves, otherwise they don’t abate with general legacies.

85
Q

Divorce, dissolution, or annulment of marriage?

A

upon the divorce, dissolution, or annulment of marriage, any property or interest which is devised or bequeathed to the former spouse or civil partner shall pass as if the former spouse or civil partner has died (s.18A WA 1837).

86
Q

Forfeiture by unlawful killing:

A

beneficiary that has unlawfully killed the testator MUST forfeit their interest under the will or intestacy.
However, their forfeited entitlement is substituted automatically with a gift to their own children unless the will provides for this not to happen (s.33 WA 1837).

87
Q

Beneficiary witnesses will?

A

If a beneficiary or their spouse/civil partner acts as a witness, the gift to the beneficiary fails (s.15 WA 1837).
Will remains validly executed as a beneficiary can witness a will BUT CAN’T benefit under it if he/she witnesses the will.

88
Q

Intestate?

A

someone who has died without leaving a valid will or who has failed to dispose of their entire estate by will.

89
Q

Person CAN die intestate if they:

A

Didn’t make a will
Revoked a will that they have made.
Made an invalid will

90
Q

When someone died intestate the statutory rules that govern…

A

the admin and distribution of a person’s estate apply.
Rules are contained principally in parts 3 and 4 of the Admin of Estates Act 1925.

91
Q

s.46 of the AEA 1925 (intestacy):
total intestacy occurs when?

A

a person dies without leaving a valid will.

92
Q

Partial intestacy occurs when?

A

someone dies leaving a valid will BUT the will doesn’t dispose of their whole estate.

93
Q

Intestacy rules only apply to?

A

property that the deceased could have left by the will.

94
Q

Intestacy rules don’t apply to?
(4 elements)

A

Assets that the deceased held jointly with another party where the right of survivorship applies so that the assets pass to the survivor.
Assets held on trust for the deceased that pass under the terms of the trust on their death.
Nominated assets.
Life insurance policies taken out for the benefit of a name individual.
Pension benefits paid by the trustees of the pension fund at their discretion to members of the deceased’s family.

95
Q

For deaths on or after 1 October 2014:

A

where the intestate leaves a surviving spouse/civil partner and no issue, the spouse/civil partner inherits everything.

96
Q

Intestate is survived by their spouse/civil partner and issue the residuary estate is distributed as follows:
(5 elements)

A

Spouse/civil partner receives all personal chattels absolutely.
Spouse/civil partner receives a statutory legacy free of inheritance tax and costs plus gross interest from death until payment.
If the residuary estate is worth less than £270,000, the spouse or civil partner receives everything, and the issue receive nothing.
Rest of the residuary estate is divided into two halves.
The spouse/civil partner takes one half absolutely and the issue takes the other half on statutory trusts.

97
Q

Term issue includes?

A

all direct descendants of an individual including adopted children and illegitimate children but not stepchildren.

98
Q

Term spouse includes?

A

persons married or in civil partnership BUT NOT where the marriage or civil partnership has ended in divorce or dissolution.
Doesn’t include cohabitees.

99
Q

Surviving spouse/civil partner has the right to…

A

require the PRs to vest the matrimonial home in them, in full or partial satisfaction of their absolute interest in the intestate’s estate.

100
Q

Spouse/civil partner MUST give all the PRs…

A

written notice of their wish to exercise this right to the matrimonial home within 12 months of the grant.

101
Q

No surviving spouse/civil partner (or fails to survive the 28-day rule),
Residuary estate is divided in the following order:

A

Issue receives on statutory trusts, but if none.
Parents receive, equally if both alive, but if none
Brother and sisters of the whole blood (and their issue) receive on statutory trusts, but if none
Brothers and sisters of the half-blood (and their issue) receive on statutory trusts, but if none
Grandparents, equally if more than one, but if none
Uncles and Aunts of the whole blood receive on statutory trusts, but if none.
Uncles and Aunts of the half-blood receive on statutory trusts, but if none.
Bon Vacantia (estate passes to the crown, duchy of Lancaster or duke of cornwall).

102
Q

Apart from the spouse, parents and grandparents, each category of relatives takes the residuary estate subject to…

A

the statutory trusts.

103
Q

Trust establishes membership of a class of beneficiaries and…

A

the terms on which they take the residuary estate.

104
Q

The statutory trusts contain three main provisions:

A

Class of beneficiaries
Contingency
Substitution

105
Q

Statutory trusts:
Class of beneficiaries?

A

the residuary estate is held on trust in equal shares for relatives in the relevant category who are living at the time of the deceased’s death, including persons who are conceived BUT not born at the time of the deceased’s death.

106
Q

Statutory trusts:
contigency?

A

interests of beneficiaries are contingent on reaching 18 years old.

107
Q

Statutory trusts:
Substitution

A

if a member of the relevant category dies before the intestate leaving issue, the issue takes their deceased parent’s share, in equal shares if more than one, contingently on reaching 18 years or earlier marriage or civil partnership.

108
Q

Intestacy rules apply only to…

A

property that the testator has left by will.

109
Q

Intestacy rules don’t apply to the following property and will pass outside the estate:

A

Joint property
Life policies
Pension scheme benefits
Trust property

110
Q

Intestacy rules don’t apply to -
Joint property:

A

asset that the testator held jointly with another party where the right of survivorship applies.
When the joint owners hold an asset as joint tenants, on the death of one of the joint owners the asset passes to the surviving owner automatically, irrespective of the deceased owner’s will.

111
Q

Intestacy rules don’t apply to -
Life policies:

A

life insurance policies taken out for the benefit of a named individual.

112
Q

Intestacy rules don’t apply to -
Pension scheme benefits?

A

pension benefits paid by the trustee of the pension funds at their discretion to members of the deceased family.

113
Q

Intestacy rules don’t apply to -
Trust property:

A

assets held on trust for the deceased that pass under the terms of the trust on their death.