The Shoulder Flashcards

1
Q

What is the normal scapulohumeral rhythm?

A

2:1 humeral to scapular movement normally

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2
Q

What are the normal strength ratios of the shoulder?

A

IR:ER - 3 to 2 (IR is 50% stronger)
Add : Abd - 2 to 1 (adduction is 100% stronger)
Ext to flex: 5 to 4 (ext is 25% stronger than flex)

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3
Q

Which ligament limits ER with arm at the side and is usually contracted in shoulders with adhesive capsulitis?

A

Coracohumeral ligament (inserts into RC interval). Usually has to be released to regain full ER.

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4
Q

What is the RC interval?

A

Described by Neer as the capsular tissue interval between suscapularis and supraspinatus tendons. It is composed of parts of the supraspinatus and subscap tendons, the coracohumeral ligament, and the superior glenohumeral ligament. All of these structures contribute to stability by limiting inferior translation and ER when adducted, post translation when the arm is flexed

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5
Q

What are the 4 parts of the proximal humerus?

A

shaft, greater tuberosity, lesser tuberosity, articular or head segment. These corresponds to four ossification centers. The surgical neck is below the tuberosities, the anatomical neck is above. These 4 sections are common sites of fracture and are the basis of Neer’s classification of prox humerus fractures.

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6
Q

Describe the layers of the rotator cuff.

A

The rotator cuff has 5 layers at its superior portion at greater tubercle insertions.Variation in tissue properties/loads among these layers may contribute to RC tears.Basically layer 1 and 4 are coracohumeral ligaments, with layer 2 being the actual RC tendon and 3 being random orientation.fasicles. Layer 5 is the capsule itself.

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7
Q

Describe the anatomy of the supraspinatus tendon and its clinical significance.

A

Supraspinatus has 2 muscle bellies (ant and post). The anterior belly is larger and pulls through a smaller tendon area, meaning increase stress compared to posterior tendon. This is important during surgical repairs.

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8
Q

What does the long head of the biceps do?

A

Opinions vary. May contribute to anterior stability and help depress humeral head in the presence of large RC tear. Elbow flexion strength can dec by up to 30% and supination/abd up to 20% if a tear occurs due to loss of stabilizing function.

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9
Q

What is the labral origin of the bicep anchor?

A

40-60% of the origin is from the supraglenoid tubercle, while the remaining fibers originate from the glenoid labrum in various patterns.

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10
Q

What is the quadrangular space?

A

Antomic interval formed by the humeral shaft laterally, the long head of the triceps medially, the teres minor superiorly, and the teres major inferiorly. The axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery pass through here.

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11
Q

What is the triangular space?

A

An anatomic interval medial to the quadrangular space. Borders are formed by the long head of the triceps laterally, the teres minor superiorly, and the teres major inferiorly. The circumflex scapular artery (branch of scapular artery) passes through here.

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12
Q

How is the GHJ stability maintained?

A

Through both static and dynamic stabilizers. Statis structures include the capsule and ligaments and are normally lax during mid range, dec movement at extreme ranges. Dynamic is primarily the deltoid and RC and are more active at mid range.

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13
Q

What structure is the most important static restraint to anteiorr humeral translation in the 90-degree abd/ER position?

A

Anterior band of inferior glenohumeral ligament. This is the position most traumatic shoulder dislocations occur. The middle glenohumeral ligament is the restraint at mid range, while the superior ligament prevents excessive ER and inf translation with the arm by the side.

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14
Q

What is a Bankart lesion?

A

Detachment of the anchoring point of the anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament and middle glenohumeral ligament from the glenoid rim (also the labrum) This is a result of a truamatic anterior dislocation. This is the opposite of the HAGL lesion. This can be treated by suturing the ligament and the labrum back to the glenoid.

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15
Q

What is a HAGL lesion?

A

Uncommon. Avulsion of the humeral attachement of the glenohumeral ligament after dislocation. Opposite of Bankart lesion.

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16
Q

What is a Hill-Sachs lesion?

A

An impression fracture of the posterolateral margin of the humeral head caused by impaction on the rim of the glenoid during anterior shoulder dislocation.

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17
Q

What is the function of the clavicle?

A

Acts as a strut to inc biomechanical efficiency of axiohumeral muscles.

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18
Q

Subclavius.

A

O: first rib
I: inferior middle third of clavicle
N: Nerve to Subclavius (C5, C6)
A: stabilizes sternoclavicular joint.

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19
Q

What is the primary areterial supply to humeral head?

A

Anterior circumflex artery. It ascends via the bicipital groove along with the LHB tendon.

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20
Q

Describe the course of the suprascapular nerve/

A

Arises from the superior trunk of the brachial plexus (C5, C6). Courses posteriorly to the suprascapular notch along with the artery. The nerve travels through the suprascapular notch, under the transverse scapular ligament, while the artery goes above. Next it passes through the spinoglenoid notch below the spinoglenoid ligament.

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21
Q

What neurovascular structure is at greates risk during anterior shoulder surgery?

A

Axillary nerve. It travels posteriorly from the post cord of the brachial plexus to innervate the deltoid and teres minor. It, along with the posterior circumflex humeral artery, passes below the inferior border of the subscap and travels along the inferior genohumeral joint capsule.

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22
Q

Which nerve lies superficial in the posterior cervical triangle and is susceptible to injury?

A

Spinal Accessory nerve (CN XI), just below cervial fascia. The post cervical triangle is borderd by the SCM anteriorly, the trap posteriorly, and the clavicle inferioly. May be injured during cervical lymp node biopsy. Will result in drooping of the shoulder, pain, and weakness in arm elevation.

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23
Q

Which nerve causes classical medial scapular winging?

A

Long Thoracic nerve

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24
Q

Describe the course of the musculocutaneous nerve.

A

Terminal branch of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus (C5,6,7). Penetrates coracobrachiallis and sends off motor branches. Travels between brachialis and biceps brachii, inervating both. Sensry branches emerge between the brachialis and brachioradialis muscles and travels into the forearm as the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve.

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25
Q

Is the acromial attachment of the coracoacromial ligament and anterior deltoid preserved during arthroscopic acromioplasty?

A

No, typically it is released. The overlying deltoid insertion remains attached by a bridge of tissue composed of periosteum and deltoid tendon.

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26
Q

Describe the anatomy of the pec major tendon and associated nerves.

A

The pec major insertion is aprpox 2 inches wide with a broad undersurface and small anterior surface. The sternal head spirals posterior, the clavicular anterior. The medial pec nerve is inferior to the lat pec nerve insertion. The lateral pectoral nerve passes medial to the pec minor befor entering the pec major, whereas the medial pec nerve passes through or lateral to pec minor befor entering pec major.

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27
Q

What are the main stabilizers of the AC joint?

A

The AC ligament and joint capsule are primary constraints for posterior displacement and rotation. Conoid ligament constrains anterior/superior rotation and displacement. The trapezoid ligament constrians vertical and horizontal displacement.

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28
Q

What is the articular version of the proximal humerus?

A

Typically 30 degrees of retroversion.

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29
Q

What is the normal version/tilt of the glenoid?

A

Approx 8 degrees of retroversion relative to the scapula. Relative to the body, it is oriented anteriorly. Excessive retroversion may contribute to posterior instability, while upward facing glenoids may inc RC disease risk.

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30
Q

What are the three morphologic types of the acromion?

A
Bigliani classified 3 types.
Type 1 - Acromion is flat (17%)
Type II - Acromion is curved (43%)
Type III Acromion is hooked down (40%)
Out of patients c RC tears, 70% have type III, 27% have type II, and 3% have type I.  Types II and III impinge on RC tendons
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31
Q

Are types II and III acromia aquired or developmental?

A

Possibly aquiared. The hooks lie with in the coracoacromial ligament and may be traction spurs due to the humeral head pushing up on the arch.

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32
Q

Describe Neer’s RC pathology classification.

A

Stage 1: edema and hemorrhage; pt is less than 25 yo and have pain that resolves with rest. Reversible. Conservative Tx.
Stage 2: fibrosis and tendinitis. Patients typically 25-40 and have recurrent pain. Possibly consider SAD if conservative Tx fails.
Stage 3- Bone spur and tendon rupture. Pts typically older than 40 with history of progressive disability. RCR advised.
Stage 4- Pt typically older than 60. cuff tear arthropathy. RCR, TSA recommended

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33
Q

What is the coracoacromial arch and why is it important?

A

Formed by the coracoacromial ligament, it is the roof of the shoulder. Protects the subacromial bursa and RC tendons. Restricts excessive superior migration. With elevation and IR the greater tuberosity and RC tendons may compress against this.

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34
Q

What is a partial-thickness RC tear?

A

Naturally degenerates with increasing age, especially in 40s+. Degeneration begins deep within the tissue near the undersurface attachment of the tuberosity. Tears may also occur on the bursal side of the cuff near the insertion.

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35
Q

Do partial-thickness tears heal or progress to full-thickness tears?

A

Usually. Typically occurs because ruptured fibers can no longer sustain load so surrounding fibers have more stress. Disruption also disrupts local blood supply within the tendon. Disrupted fibers are exposed to joint fluid which has a lytic effect. If the tendon does heal, the scar tissue does not have the same tensile strength.

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36
Q

What is RC arthropathy?

A

With massive tearing, tendons slide off the humeral head. They then act as elevators and promote superior humeral head translation, causing excessive wear and degeneration. May lead to TSA or hemi-arthroplasty if it becomes severe enough.

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37
Q

When are acromioplasty and subacromial decompression required?

A

Typical patient is between 25-40 years old and has recurrent pain and failed conservative treatment. Some surgeons advocate retaining the coracoacromial ligament to preserve teh arch/superior migration.

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38
Q

What is the Mumford procedure?

A

An excision of the distal 2cm of the clavicle. Often used to allow greater RC decompression or to dec pain from AC dislocation.Distal stability of the scapula is maintained through the intact costoclavicular ligaments (conoid and trapezoid) since the AC joint no longer exists.

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39
Q

What are some primary RC exercises?

A

Supraspinatus: can be worked with prone Y’s
Teres minor: Prone ext with ER (T’s with thumbs up)
Subscapularis: IR can be performed any way.

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40
Q

What RC exercises result in the greatest EMG activity?

A

Sidelying ER results in greatest EMG activity of infraspinatus and Teres minor. Suprasinatus is greatest in prone Y’s with thumbs up, but this is an advanced exercise.

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41
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary RC impingement?

A

Primary (structural) is a mechanical impingement of RC below coracoacromial arch and results from overcrowding.
Secondary is due to space being decreased because of instability/poor control

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42
Q

What is posterior (internal) impingement?

A

Pinching of the infraspinatus adn supraspinatus between teh posterior superior aspect of genoid and the upper limb, when in the cocked position (Throwing position). Occurs on the undersurface rather than the bursal side. May be associated c ant instability.

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43
Q

What classification is used to describe the extent or size of RC tears?

A

AAOS: small tear is <5

Stage 3 is 5 cm +

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44
Q

Do full-thickness RC tears heal?

A

No. Primary healing is unlikely, but nonoperative management may result in functional and pain improvement.

45
Q

Describe typical protocols for RCR Tx.

A

The typical open RCR is followed by a short period of immobiliation (1-6 weeks depending on the size of the tear). Early PROM exercises(flex,abd, ER) including pendulum and pulleys begin within the first few post-op days. Surrounding joint ROM is inorporated. Submax isometrics may begin at 3-4 weeks. (perform in scapular plain if possible). Rythmic stabilization is incorporated. Isotonic exercises typically begin 4-6 weeks post op. Full ROM should be restored by 8-10 weeks.

46
Q

Describe the Neer impingement test.

A

Place one hand posteriorly over scapula and grasp elbow. Keeping scapula stabilized, pasively flex shoulder maximally. Shoulder pain and aprehension is a + sign, indicating supraspinatus or biceps tendon involvement.(greater tubercle hits acromion) (Sn: 89%, Sp: 25%)

47
Q

Describe the Hawkins-Kennedy Impingement Test.

A

Flex shoulder to 90 degrees and then IR the shoulder. Pain and aprehension is a +sign. (pushes supraspinatus tendon against the anterior coracoacromial arch. (Sn: 92%, Sp: 25%)

48
Q

Describe the Reverse Impingement Sign.

A

In the presence of painful arc or pain with ER, patient lies supine. Push the humeral head inferiorly while abductiong, ER shoulder. + for mechanical impingement if pain is decreased or abolished.

49
Q

Describe the cross-over impingement test.

A

Place one hand over the posterior aspect of the scapula and grasp patient’s elbow. Maximally adduct arm horizontally. Superior shoulder pain is AC joint pathology, anterior shoulder pain may be subscap, supraspinatus, or LHB. Posterior shoulder pain may be infraspinatus, teres minor, post joint capsule.(Sn: 82%, sp: 28%)

50
Q

Describe the supraspinatus or empty can test performed.

A

Stand with both shoulders abducted to 90* in the scapular plane and IR so that the thumbs point down. Apply resistance against abduction. Pain or weakness indicates tear of the supraspinatus or injury to the suprascapular nerve.

51
Q

Describe the drop arm test.

A

Passively plae involved shoulder in 90* of abduction and ask patient to slowly lower arm. A + sign is inability to slowly lower the arm or reproduction of pain, indicating RC tear.
(Sn: 8%, Sp: 97%)

52
Q

Describe the lift-off sign.

A

Stand with the back of the hand against the back pocket and lift away from the back. Inability to perform this may indicate subscap tear. May also reveal scapular instability. (Sn: 62%, Sp: 100%)

53
Q

Describe the drop sign.

A

Place patient’s arm in 90* of elbow flexion, 90* of abduction, and full ER (throwing position). Release the arm. A drop or lag indicates infraspinatus insufficiency. (Sn: 20%, Sp: 100%)

54
Q

Describe lag signs of the shoulder.

A

ER lag sign: place arm in 90* of elbow flex, 20* of shoulder elevation in scapular plane and full ER. Let go of wrist support while supporting elbow. + for supraspinatus or infraspinatus pathology if patient cannot maintain position. Lag is recorded to the nearst 5*. (Sn: 70%, Sp: 100%)

IR lag sign: Basically the lift off sign, but examiner passively lifts hand and supports elbow. When the wrist is released, a +sign is a drop Lag is recorded to the nearest 5*. (Sn: 97%, Sp: 96%)

55
Q

What are 3 of the most sensitive tests for RC pathology?

A

IR lag test (97%), Hawkin’s Kennedy Impingement Test (92%), Neer Impingement Test (89%)

56
Q

What are 3 of the most specific tests for RC patholgoy?

A

IR lag test, ER lag test, lift off sign (all 100%). Drop arm test is 97%

57
Q

How accurate is a clinical exam of the shoulder in predicting RC pathology?

A

Sensitivity is approx 91%, specificity is 75%. Data that assists is age of the patient >40, previous trauma.

58
Q

What clinical tests are most predictive for RC tear?

A

According to Murrel and Walton, 3 tests in a cluster are highly predictive: supraspinatus weakness, ER weakness, and impingement sign. If all are positive (or if 2 are positive and the patient is 60 or older), the individual had a 98% chance of having a tear. A positive drop arm test is just as good by itself. If none are positive, less than a 5% chance of a tear.

59
Q

What is the most accuratte immagin gstudy for diagnosing RC tears?

A

Ultrasonography (Sn: 98%, Sp: 91%). Comparable to surgical findings. MRIs are around 80% sensitive and 80-90% specific.

60
Q

What are the exptected outcomes of RCR at 1 and 5 years?

A

Facorable outcomes are acheived in 75-90% of patients according to research

61
Q

What is the best conservative PT intervention for shoulder (RC) pain?

A

Evidence shows exercise is effective short term and long term, but that exercise and nonthrust mobilization (post/inf glides) are more effective than exercise alone.

62
Q

What is the most common nerve injury after anterior shoulder dislocation?

A

Axillary nerve (30%), most commonly traction neurapraxia

63
Q

Why is posterior shoulder dislocation more likely than anterior following electric shock or convulsive seizures?

A

Because the adductors, IR, and extesnors are stronger and cause this pull.

64
Q

What does the acronym TUBS mean?

A

Related to shoulder dislocation

T-traumatic onset
U - unidirectiona; (anterior)
B - Bankart lesion
S- Surgery (success rate with nonoperative Tx iss less than 20%)

65
Q

What is meant by the acronym AMBRI?

A

Related to shoulder dislocation

A- atraumatic onset
M- multidirectional
B - bilateral
R - rehab is successful in 80%
I - inferior capsular shift is the Tx of choice if conservative Tx fails.
66
Q

What is meant by the acronym ALPSA?

A

Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion. Often accompanies an anterior dislocation and is characterized by the labrum and periosteal sleeve of the anterior glenoid being avulsed and displaced medially. This is a variant of a Bankhart lesion.

67
Q

What is meant by the acronym HAGL?

A

Humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament, usually caused by a traumatic dislocation into hyperabduction

68
Q

Describe the load-shift test.

A

Allows evaluation of glenohumeral translation. Compression is applied to the humeral head and anterior and posterior forces are applied. The direction and degree of translation is recorded.
(Sn: 83%, Sp: 100% under anesthesia)

69
Q

Describe the anterior release test.

A

Patient is supine with arm in throwing position (90 abd, 90 ER), also known as the apprehension position. A posterior directed force is applied to the humeral head and then released. If apprehension is experienced, the test is positive.
(Sn: 92%, Sp: 89%)

70
Q

How is glenohumeral joint laxity graded?

A

Ant translation up to 25% is considered normal.
Grade 1: humeral head moves to the edge of glenoid rim (up to 50% translation)
Grade 2: HH moves over edge of glenoid rim but reduces with pressure. Clinically this is subluxation. (more than 50% translation)
Grade 3: dislocation

71
Q

Describe the Hill-Sachs lesion and reverse Hill-Sachs:

A

Hill-Sachs lesion is a compression fracture of posterior lateral humeral head due to impact of humeral head on anterior inferior glenoid rim during anterior dislocation. A reverse occurs with posterior dislocation (anterior medial humeral head)

72
Q

Are dislocations recurrent?

A

Patients under 20 have a recurrence rate up to 20%. If you dislocate more than once in young patients, the chance of frequent recurrence goes to almost 100%.

73
Q

What is the PT Tx for anterior dislocation?

A

ROM exercises (avoid abduction and ER), strengthening of scapular and shoulder muscles (scapula first)

74
Q

What is a SLAP lesion?

A

Superior labral anterior to posterior lesion, usually resulting from a downward force on a supinated outstretched UE or falling on the lateral shoulder. Usually leads to popping and sliding.

75
Q

What are the special tests to evaluate SLAP lesions?

A

O’Brien test: arm is flexed to 90* with full IR and horizontal adduction.The patient tries to resist a forward force at the wrist. Pain indicates a positive test
SLAP test: Arm is extended, supinated, and abducted to 90 degrees. Push down at the wrist while using thumb of opposite hand to shift humeral head in opposite direction.
Load-shift test: Thumb is used to push the humeral head superiorly and anteriorly while the arm is in the throwing position

76
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary adhesive capsulitis?

A

Primary is insidious onset, whereas after trauma or an inciting event it is called secondary.

77
Q

Describe the natural resolution of adhesive capsulitis.

A

Early painful stage is characterized by diffuse pain and restricted movement due to pain (freezing). Last 2-9 months.
Stiffening stage is progressive loss of ROM and function (lasts 4-12 months)
Recovery stage lasts 5-24 months and is gradual increases in ROM and dec pain.
Time to resolution is usually 1-3 years.

78
Q

What PT Txs are beneficial for adhesive capsulitis?

A

Home stretching is helpful (90% had positive outcomes). Exercise is more helpful than modalities, NSAIDs, or steroids. Mobilization is helpful.

79
Q

Describe the typical TSA patient and why do patients get them?

A

Usually 55-70 years old. OA, AVN, RC arthropathy with subsequent dysfunction are indications.

80
Q

What is the difference between the types of TSAs?

A

Constrained TSA: uses a ball and socket design; reduces total humeral motion.
Unconstrained TSA: closest to normal GHJ anatomy
Reverse: places ball component on glenoid side and socket on humeral sign (advantageous for patients with deficient cuff because it places deltoid in better position.

81
Q

What is the difference between hemiarthroplasty and TSA?

A

Hemi is a replacement of the humeral component and is indicated when glenoid is intact. Surgery of choice if physical demands are high after surgery. TSA appears to be better in most cases

82
Q

What are post-op goals of TSA?

A

Primary is to relieve pain. Secondary is to restore function/ROM. Active elevation typically increases 50 degrees while ER improves 30 degrees. Non impact sports such as swimming and bowling are possible following surgery.

83
Q

Is all passive elevation the same?

A

No. PROM or AAROM in supine position results in less EMG activity than passive elevation in sitting or standing with pulleys or canes.

84
Q

What is the Neer-phased rehab program?

A

Neer describes 3 phases of rehab following TSA or RCRs:
Phase I: PROM exercises and AAROM such as pulleys, canes, and tabletops.
Phase II: active motions
Phase III: restrictive exercises

85
Q

What are standard precautions following TSA?

A

Self-transfers and ambulation with crutches should be avoided until adequate strength is regained (approx 6 months). Patients may need to progress slowly.

86
Q

What are the typical mechanisms of ACJ injuries?

A

direct force to the tip of the shoulder with the arm adducted (acromion is driven inferiorly). A secondary mechanism is falling on an outstretched hand, causing the humeral head to hit the acromion. AKA shoulder separation

87
Q

What are the ligaments of the shoulder AC joint?

A

3 major: conoid, trapezoid, and AC ligaments. (conoid and trapezoid ligaments are referred to as the coracoclavicular ligament). The AC ligaments (superior and inferior) control horizontal movement. Vertical stability is controlled by the coracoclavicular ligament, with the conoid lying medially and trapezoid lying laterally

88
Q

Describe the acute presentation of AC injury.

A

The patient typically cradles the involved arm. AC joints are classified as type I-VI (unlike other ligaments because it is multiple ligaments).
Type I: sprain of AC ligaments (mild to mod pain, pain free ROM)
Type II: complete disruption of AC ligaments, sprain of CC (Mod to severe pain at both AC joint and CC interspace, limited function
Type III: complete disruption of AC and CC ligaments (high-riding clavicle, exquisite pain)
Types IV-VI: extreme drooping of involved UE, severe pain. requires surgery

89
Q

Describe treatment of AC injuries.

A

Type I: ice, activity as tolerated. Possible use of donut under pads. It’s important to use a donut pad on both sides for normal shoulder pad use
Type II: sling as needed, ice, ROM as tolerated (passive first to minimize activation of deltoid and trap) strengthening exercises, return to activity 2-3 weeks after injury
Type III: Most is non-op. Tx is much like second degree injury but with greater reliance on immobilizing support. A residual step deformity remains.
Long term consequences are a possible step deformity that has no symptomatic consequence.

90
Q

What is the typical mechanism of SC injury?

A

Relatively rare, but usually sustained via indirect contact such as lying on your side and being forced to roll over the shoulder. Also a direct force to the clavicle

91
Q

What ligaments support and control the SC joint?

A

The costoclavicular ligament, the interclavicular ligament

92
Q

What muscular force couples act on the scapula during arm elevation?

A

Upper rotation: Upper trap, serratus anterior, lower traps

93
Q

What is SICK scapula syndrome?

A

Scapular malposition, Inferior medial border prominence, Coracoid pain, and dysKineisias. Associated with overuse syndrome and fatigue

94
Q

What scapular muscles should be targeted for rehab?

A

Focus on rhomboid major and minor, Upper/middle/lower trap muscles, SA, and RC muscles.

Push up plus activates SA effectively, prone flexion overhead activates upper and middle trap

95
Q

Define snapping scapula.

A

Attributed to friction between the mobile scapula and attached soft tissues. A general friction sound is nonpathalogic. Sounds associated with pain are thought to be pathologic. Tx with strengthening to scapular muscles

96
Q

How are clavicle fractures classified?

A

According to location. Middle third are most common (80%).

97
Q

What nerve is most frequently injured with a fracture of the clavicle?

A

Ulnar nerve, as it passes between the first rib and fractured clavicle.

98
Q

When should shoulder motion be initiated in closed treatment of clavicular fracture?

A

Usually require 6 weeks of immobilization for union to occur. Surrounding joints should be used immediately.

99
Q

What are the most commonly injured nerves during proximal humerus fracture?

A

The axillary and suprascapular nerves. Remember, the radial nerve is injured in humeral shaft fractures. Usually all of these injuries heal on their own.

100
Q

What is the conservative treatment of proximal humerus fractures?

A

Early ROM is critical. Surrounding joints are mobilized immediately, pendulum exercises are initiated as soon as tolerable for stable one part fractures. Once the fractured segment is shown to move as one unit with gentle ROM exercises, PROM is initiated. Early stability is usually noted at 2-3 weeks.

101
Q

How is the spinal accessory nerve usually injured?

A

tumor, surgical procedures in the posterior triangle, and stretch/whiplash injuries.
Typically present with a drooping shoulder girdle, winging of the scapula that is produced during abduction (SA winging usually is noticeable in flexion).

102
Q

What are common sites of entrapment of the suprascapular nerve?

A

Below the transverse scapular ligament, causing supraspinatus and infraspinatus weakness. Under the spinoglenoid ligament, causing weakness to the infraspinatus only.

103
Q

What nerve is most commonly injured after anterior shoulder dislocation?

A

Axillary nerve

104
Q

What is rucksack palsy?

A

Injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus or long thoracic nerve. Originally associated with soldiers in Vietnam who carried their packs or rucksacks loaded with ammunition.

105
Q

What is thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

compression of the neurovascular structure between the neck and axilla.

106
Q

Describe the various tests used to evaluate patients with TOS.

A

Adson maneuver - palpate radial pulse in abducted and extended arm. Extend and ER arm as patient rotates head toward examiner and takes a deep breath. An absent pulse suggests compressed subclavian artery.
Allen test - same as adson’s test except arm is abducted to 90* and elbow is flexed to 90*. Patient turns their head away.
Roos test: holds both arms in allen test position and rapidly open and close fingers for 3 minutes.
Wright test: hyperabduct arm above head to determine compression between the first rib and the clavicle

107
Q

How many tests should be performed in the TOS clinical exam?

A

One way to decrease the false-positive tests is to perform 3 tests If 3 or more are performed, the false positive falls to 2%. Even with this cluster, sensitivity ad specificity are 72% and 53%

108
Q

Describe the clinical findings of a patient with Pancoast’s tumor.

A

May compromise the C8-T1 nerve roots via compression from the apex of the lungs. Presenting symptoms are sensory changes in the medial forearm and hand (4th and 5th digits). Other signs may include intrinsic muscle wasting and night pain.

109
Q

What is Horner Syndrome?

A

Ipsilateral involvement of the sympathetic chain fibers, causing sunken eyeball, ptosis, miosis (contraction of the pupil), anhydrosis, and flushing of the face