The Knee Flashcards

1
Q

What is a plica?

A

During embryonic development, the knee is divided into 3 separate compartments by membranes. These are resorbed and the knee becomes a single chamber. If they are incompletely absorbed, various degrees of tissue remain and are called synovial plicae. The mediopatellar plica is the most frequently cited cause of plica syndrome. It lies on the medial wall of the joint, originating suprapatellarly and coursing obliquely down to insert on the infrapatellar pad.

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2
Q

Describe the symptoms of an irritated plica.

A

The exact symptoms will be determinedby the location. THe most common symptom is pain on the medial side of the knee. It can cause discomfort with prolonged sitting (moviegoer’s sign”

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3
Q

Describe patella-trochlear groove contact as the knee moves from full extension to full flexion.

A

During the initial 20 degrees of knee flexion there is no contact between the patella and femur. From 20-45 degrees the distal third of the patella makes contact with the uppermost part of femoral condyles (initial contact between lateral patellar facet and lateral femoral condyle). From 45-90 degrees the middle third contacts the femur. At 90 degrees, the proximal potion of the patella makes contact. At full flexion, the odd facets of the patella make contact.

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4
Q

What is patella baja?

A

A low position of the patella, possibly caused by adhesions following disruption of the infrapatellar bursa. This disruption may occur during harvesting of the central third of the patella tendon for reconstruction of the ACL, or other surgery in this area

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5
Q

Describe the “lateral blow-out” sign of the knee.

A

The anterior lateral portion is thin. When swelling is present in the knee, this area bulges out, especially when the knee is flexed.

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6
Q

Discuss the role of the posterior oblique ligament?

A

It is the predominant ligamentous structure on the posterior medial corner of the knee. Attaches to the adductor tubercle of the femur and distal to tibia and posterior joint capsule, and moves laterally and proximal to lateral gastroc insertion. The main role of the ligament is to control anterior medial rotary instability and resists valgus loads when the knee moves into full extension. When an athlete makes a side step cut, the POL helps keep the pivot leg from opening in valgus. May act in synergy with the semimembranosus. Prevents excessive tibial ER and femoral IR. Considered part of the MCL complex, along with superficial and deep portions of the MCL.

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7
Q

What important function does the arcuate complex provide?

A

Similar to the POL. The arcuate complex is the posterior one third of lateral supporting structures including the LCL, arcuate ligament (y shaped from the fibular head moving proximal), and the extension of the popliteus. It helps to control IR of the femur or ER of the tibia

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8
Q

How does the anatomic arrangement of the ACL dictate its function?

A

IR of the tibia causes the ACL to tighten. The anteromedial bundle is more taut in flexion, the posterolateral band is more taut in extension. This allows the ACl to control the pivot shift through the complete knee ROM.

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9
Q

What is the function of the PCL?

A

IR of the tibia causes the ACL to tighten. It resists posterior movement of the tibia on the femur. Has 3 bundles. The posteromedial bundle is most taut in full extension.

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10
Q

What is the function of the IT band?

A

Inserts at Gerdy’s tubercle. It changes its function from extensor to flexor as the knee approaches 30 degrees flexion (inversion of muscle action). A portion of the iliotibial tract has attachments into the linea aspera to prevent the pivot-shift

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11
Q

How does the ITB affect the pivot-shift test of the knee?

A

As the knee flexes, the ITB shifts posteriorly. Normally the ACL and middle LCL prevent the shift, but in their absence the ITB allows the tibia to move posteriorly

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12
Q

Describe anatomic reasons for patellar instability.

A

A high Q angle predisposes the lateral subluxation of the patella. A loose retinaculum, patella alta, and a weak or dysplastic VMO can cause subluxation.

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13
Q

Describe how patella alta can lead to patellar tendinitis.

A

When a person decelerates, the knee is flexed and the patella should be in the trochlear groove. If patella alta is present, the patella may not be in the groove and inc stress on the patellar tendon.

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14
Q

Describe the arterial blood vessels of the knee.

A

Branches of the popliteal artery split and form a genicular anastamosis composed of the superior medial and lateral genicular arteries and the inferior medial and lateral genicular arteries. These combine to give the ACL a plentiful blood supply such that a tear leads to hemarthrosis. The middle genicular artery supplies the PCL.

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15
Q

Do the cruciate ligaments really cross?

A

Yes and they twist during knee flexion, extension, and IR

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16
Q

Describe the alignment of the femur and tibia during WB?

A

The WB line is normally slightly toward the medial knee, such that the knee is opened laterally. If this aligment is altered, tibial varum (angle greater than 170 degrees) or tibial valgum (angle less than 170*) can occur.

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17
Q

Are there differences between female and male knee joint anatomy and biomechanics?

A

No, but females tend to have a wider pelvis, greater femoral anteversion, more frequent coxa varus, and more tibial torsion (greater Q angle)

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18
Q

What is the normal amount of tibial torsion and how is it measured?

A

Measured by having the patient sit with the knee flexed to 90 degrees over the edge of a table. Visualize a line between the malleoli and look down at the top of the knee. The normal angle is 12 to 15 degrees of ER.

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19
Q

Which meniscus is most commonly injured and why?

A

medial meniscus. It is adhered to the MCL, greater WB through the medial compartment leads to more degeneration with age.

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20
Q

What is the Q-angle?

A

Measured by extending a line through the center of the patella to the ASIS and the center of the patella through the tibial tubercle. The normal value is 13 to 18 degrees. (Men tend to have less of an angle). Increases in the q angle are associated with femoral anteversion, tibial ER, genu valgum, subtalar hyperpronation

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21
Q

What anatomic structures encourage lateral tracking of the patella?

A

dysplastic patella, patella alta, or a shallow intercondylar groove can contribute to lateral tracking of the patella

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22
Q

How is chondromalacia classified (very general)?

A

There are 4 types based on arthroscopic appearance.

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23
Q

How is PF pain classified?

A

Several ways (merchant, Holmes and clancy, Wilk). Wilk described it as instability, tension (overload of muscle), friction, and compression of the joint.

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24
Q

What is lateral pressure syndrome?

A

Caused by a tight lateral retinaculum that pulls and tilts the patella laterally, increasing pressure on its lateral facet. Tx includes stretching the lateral retinaculum, medial glides and tilts, and stretching of the distal IT band. Quad strengthening or patellar taping may also be used.

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25
Q

Define bipartite patella?

A

An intact ossification center usually at the superolateral pole. Radiographs may be mistaken for a fracture.

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26
Q

What are the names of the “diseases” affecting the patella tendon?

A

Patella tendon: Osgood-Schlatter disease is apophysitis of the tibial tubercle

Quad tendon: Sinding-Larsen_Johansson disease is apophysitis of the distal pole of the patella

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27
Q

Can a leg length discrepancy contribute to PF pain?

A

The lengthened leg may cause subtalar pronation, genu valgus, walking with a partially flexed knee.

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28
Q

What tissues around the PF joint cause pain?

A

Articular cartialge is aneural. If the cartilage is missing, stress gets transmitted to subchondral bone which is highly innervated and is thought to be the source of pain.

29
Q

Define Hoffa’s disease.

A

fat pad syndrome, manifesting as pain and swelling of the infrapatellar fat pad from direct trauma to the anterior knee.

30
Q

Describe the mechanism for pain stemming from the medial plica.

A

A crescent-shaped synovial fold that may be injured with a direct blow to the knee or through overuse injuries such as repeated flexing. Inflammation and edema can lead to stiffening and contracture. Diagnosed by pain with prolonged flexion or activities with repetitive flexion. Tenderness is located one finger’s breadth medial to the patella.

31
Q

Define housemaid’s knee.

A

prepatellar bursitis, occuring when the bursa is subjected to blunt trauma or repetitive microtrauma over the anterior knee (kneeling)

32
Q

Can hip weakness contribute to PF pain?

A

From initial contact to mid-stance, the hip IR. The ER must control this motion eccentrically, but if they are weak they may not decelerate effectively, causing excessive hip IR which functionally increases the Q angle.
Hip extension weakness can also contribute to PF pain because hip extensors normally decelerate the swing leg. If these muscles are weak, the quads contract more, creating grater joint force which may be a problem in the presence of abnormal alignment

33
Q

What criteria is used to assess patellar instability?

A

Dynamic technique: observe patellar tracking from approx 30 degrees of flexion to complete extension. Look for the inverted J sign.

34
Q

Can the VMO be strengthened in isolation?

A

Many studies do not support the concept of selective recruitment of the VMO over the vasus lateralis.

35
Q

Can taping help treat PF pain?

A

Inconclusive. It may assist with prolonged passive stretching of the retinacular tissues

36
Q

Is bracing beneficial with PF pain?

A

More likely to be beneficial in patients with patellar instability than in those with compression syndromes

37
Q

Describe the anatomy of the meniscus?

A

The collagen fibers are oriented circumferentially to help transmit compressive loads. They are attached to the tibia at their anterior and posterior horns. The medial meniscus is more C-shaped while the lateral is more O-shaped.

38
Q

What structures attach to the medial meniscus?

A

The joint capsule, deep MCL, coronary ligament of the patella, meniscopatellar fibers from the lateral border, and the semimembranosus tendon

39
Q

Do the menisci move with knee joint motion?

A

Yes. The lateral is more mobile because of a slacker coronary ligament and it doesn’t attach to the LCL. The menisci move posteriorly with knee flexion and anteriorly with extension. ER of the tibia is accompanied by ant translation of the lateral meniscus and posterior translation of the medial meniscus.

40
Q

What is the most common mechanism of meniscal injury?

A

A turning or twisting maneuver of the leg in WB, often associated with ligamentous injury if acute. May also become injured during squatting due to excessive compression of the posterior born and anterior translation of the meniscus

41
Q

Describe the clinical test for a meniscal tear.

A

The McMurray Test is the classic test. Pt lies supine with the knee in full flexion. The tibia is rotated internally (lateral meniscus) and externally (medial meniscus), while valgus stress is applied and the knee is extended. A positive is a painful pop over the joint line. (sn: 26%, sp: 94%).
Other tests are the joint line tenderness test (sensitive), and the Apley Test (specific test), both about 80%.

42
Q

Describe the Steinmann point tenderness test.

A

Pt is sitting with the knee flexed. A tender point along the medial or lateral joint line is located, the knee is either flexed or exteneded a few degrees and the joint line is palpated again. If the knee is extended, the tenderness moves anteriorly, if the knee is flexed, the tenderness moves posteriorly

43
Q

What is the usual time frame for return to function after partial meniscectomy?

A

Usually 2-6 weeks are required before return to function.

44
Q

Describe rehab after meniscal repair?

A

3-6 months for repair (WBAT, bracing) vs 2-6 weeks for meniscectomy

45
Q

Which structures of the knee can be injured during side step cutting maneuvers?

A

MCL, ACL, pressure on lateral meniscus

46
Q

How might an occult osteochondral lesion be associated with an ACL rupture and where is it commonly found?

A

80% have associated lesions. Lateral femoral condle or posterolateral tibial plateau. A significant percentage of patients who have immediate ACl reconstruction develop degenerative changes within the next 5 to 10 years.

47
Q

Does research support the use of bone-patellar tendon-bone graft vs HS tendon graft for ACL reconstruction?

A

BPTB grafts have more normal movement, fewer incidences of reinjury, and less chance of flexion loss. HT grafts have fewer incidences of PF crepitu, less kneeling pain, and fewer extension losses). Many believe that the HT graft has all of the benefits of the BPTB graft and none of the disadvantages.

48
Q

What is the effectiveness of ACL prevention programs for female athletes?

A

some studies show 75-85% decrease in injury.

49
Q

Define anteromedial rotary instability.

A

Classic mechanism is the football clip with the knee flexed and forced into valgus while the tibia ER. Structures involved are the MCL, posterior oblique ligament, and the ACL.
Lachman, anterior drawer, and valgus stress test are positive.

50
Q

Define anterolateral insability.

A

Caused by noncontact deceleration on a panted foot. The slightly flexed knee is forced into varus.

51
Q

Define posterolateral rotary instability.

A

Caused by an extension force on a slightly flexed knee with the foot planted. The structures involved in PLRI involves the LCL, posterior oblique ligament, and popliteus tendon, arcuate complex.

52
Q

Define posteromedial rotary instability.

A

Doesn’t exist. IR of the tibia would be the mechanism which causes ACL and PCL damage. If the posteromedial corner is damaged, the ligaments either prevent instability or are torn and are straight instability.

53
Q

How accurate are clinical exams for ACL injury?

A

Lachman’s test is 95% sensitive (dec with larger thights).

54
Q

In open-chain extension, where does maximal stress fall on the ACL?

A

20-45 degrees. from 0-20 more of the force is on compression.

55
Q

How accurate is MRI in detecting ACL injury?

A

90% accurate for an acute rupture <24 hours. Less accurate than a physical exam.

56
Q

What is the most commonly used graft for PCL construction?

A

Achilles tendon allograft

57
Q

Describe the treatment for MCL injuries?

A

Grade 1 and 2 are treated nonsurgically with immobilization for 48 hours followed by gentle ROM and exercise progression as tolerated. Grade 3 is treated the same but surgery may be necessary.

58
Q

What should be considered when evaluating ligament stress tests in adolescents?

A

The ligament may be stronger than the epiphyseal plate.

59
Q

Is the patella typically resurfaced at the time of TKA?

A

Most surgeons advocate resurfacing the patella, especially in the presence of patellar chondromalacia, RA, and obesity

60
Q

What type of patient should use CPM following TKA?

A

Many patients willr egain flexion quicker, but there is no long term difference. CPM may actually cause increased postop blood loss and it doesn’t help prevent DVT.

61
Q

What is the WB status of most patients following TKA?

A

Most are placed with cement fixation. It is stable immediately, allowing most patients to bear weight as tolerated.

62
Q

What are common TKA ROM goals?

A

110* will cover most functional activities,, up to ascending up stairs

63
Q

How do you know when a patient is ready to be weaned from the knee immobilizer or brace?

A

The ability to perform a SLR with no extensor lag

64
Q

Can a patient kneel after TKA?

A

yes, but they need about 115 degrees of knee flexion

65
Q

Describe the course of conservative treatment for patellar fractures.

A

Aspiration hematoma and full extension in a brace. Quad sets and SLR with return to WBAT. Gradual progression of active knee ROM and strengthening after cast removal. Progression of closed chain exercises after 6 weeks.

66
Q

By what mechanism does tenson-banding technique stabilize patellar fractures?

A

The wires are placed in such a fashion that that increased quad tension during flexion increases compression of fragments

67
Q

At what age does a quad tendon rupture typically occur?

A

Usually in patients older than 40 years. Treated with knee immobilization in full extension for 6 weeks followed by 6 months of rehab.

68
Q

At what age does patellar tendon rupture typically occur?

A

Younger than age 40