The Regulatory Framework Relating to Financial Crime (18/80) Flashcards

1
Q

How does MAR define Market Manipulation?

A

• a person, or persons, acting in collaboration, to secure a dominant position over the supply of or
demand for a financial instrument
• buying or selling of financial instruments, at the opening or closing of the market, which has or is
likely to have the effect of misleading investors acting on the basis of the prices displayed
• the placing of orders to a trading venue, including the cancellation and/or modification, by any
available means of trading, including by electronic means, such as algorithmic and high-frequency
trading strategies having the effects referred to above or by:
• making it more difficult for other persons to identify genuine orders on a trading system of the
trading venue
• creating or being likely to create a false or misleading signal about the supply of, or demand for,
or price of, a financial instrument
• taking advantage of occasional or regular access to electronic media by voicing an opinion about
a financial instrument (while having a position in that financial instrument) and profiting from the
impact of the price of that instrument without having disclosed the conflict of interest to the public
in a proper and effective way.

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2
Q

Does MAR only apply to executed trades?

A

No. MAR also applies to unexecuted orders and requests for quotes (RFQs).

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3
Q

What is the Government-Linked Exemption from MAR?

A
MAR does not apply to transactions, order or behaviours that are carried in the pursuit of monetary,
exchange rate or public debt management policy by agencies of EU member states and/or members of
the ESCB (ie, Bank of England (BoE), Debt Management Office (DMO)).
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4
Q

What is the Buy-back or Stabilisation Exemption from MAR?

A

The prohibitions in MAR Article 14 (prohibition of insider dealing and of unlawful disclosure of insider
information) and Article 15 (prohibition of market manipulation) do not apply to trading in own shares
in buy-back programmes where:

a. the full details of the programme are disclosed prior to the start of trading
b. trades are reported as being part of the buy-back programme to the competent authority of the
trading venue in accordance with paragraph 3 and subsequently disclosed to the public
c. adequate limits with regard to price and volume are complied with, and
d. it is carried out in accordance with the objectives referred to below.

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5
Q

What obligations does MAR place on Market Soundings?

A

• obtain the consent of the person receiving the market sounding to receive the inside information
• inform the person receiving the market sounding that they are prohibited from using that
information, or attempting to use that information, by acquiring or disposing of financial instruments
relating to that information, as well as cancelling or amending an existing order that is in the market
• inform the person receiving the market sounding that by agreeing to receive the information they
are obliged to keep the information confidential
• maintain a record of all information given
• maintain a record of recipients who did not consent to being provided with the sounding
• advise the recipients of the sounding when the information provided ceases to be considered as
‘inside information’.

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6
Q

Where an Investment Recomendation is captured under MAR, what confirmation must be given to clients?

A
  1. facts are clearly distinguished from interpretations, estimates, opinions and other types of nonfactual
    information
  2. all substantially material sources of information are clearly and prominently indicated
  3. all projections, forecasts and price targets are clearly and prominently labelled as such, and the
    material assumptions made in producing or using them are indicated
  4. the date and time when the production of the recommendation is completed are clearly and
    prominently indicated
  5. a summary of any basis of valuation or methodology and the underlying assumptions used to either
    evaluate a financial instrument or an issuer, or to set a price target for a financial instrument, as
    well as an indication and a summary of any changes in the valuation, methodology or underlying
    assumptions
  6. the meaning of any recommendation made, such as the recommendations to ‘buy’, ‘sell’ or ‘hold’ and
    the length of time of the investment to which the recommendation relates are adequately explained
    and any appropriate risk warning, which shall include a sensitivity analysis of the assumptions, is
    indicated
  7. a reference to the planned frequency of updates to the recommendation
  8. an indication of the relevant date and time for any price of financial instruments mentioned in the
    recommendation
  9. where a recommendation differs from any of their previous recommendations concerning the same
    financial instrument or issue that has been disseminated during the preceding 12-month period, the
    change(s) and the date of that previous recommendation are indicated, and
  10. a list of all recommendations of any financial instrument or issuer that were disseminated during
    the preceding 12-month period, containing for each recommendation: the date of dissemination,
    the identity of the natural person(s), the price target and the relevant market price at the time of
    dissemination, the direction of the recommendation and the validity time period of the price target
    or of the recommendation.
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7
Q

What is an Investment Recomendation under MAR?

A

An ‘investment recommendation’ is a proposal or strategy provided by a firm to individuals or other firms (in particular fund managers, wealth managers) on financial instruments or a range of financial instruments (ie, not distributed) as is in relation to short term trading ideas and scenarios.

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8
Q

What disclosure requirements apply to an Analyst who has a net long/short position?

A

they own a net long or short position exceeding the threshold of 0.5% of the total issued share capital of the issuer, a statement to that effect specifying whether the net position is long or short

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9
Q

What is the threshold for disclosure if a research issuer holds equity in the subject?

A

5%

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10
Q

Is Inisder Dealing a criminal offense?

A

Yes, under the Criminal Justice Act

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11
Q

What are the 3 ways Insider Trading could be committed?

A
  • dealing in the security
  • encouraging another to do so, and
  • disclosing inside information to another.
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12
Q

How does the Crminal Justicer Act define Inside Information?

A

Information which:

• relates to financial instruments that are traded on, admitted to trade on or a request to admit to
trading, has been made, on an EEA regulated market, MTF or OTF
• is specific or precise
• has not been made public, and
• is price-sensitive (ie, if it were made public, would be likely to have a significant effect on the price
of any securities).

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13
Q

How is “Public” defined for Inside Information?

A

• published in accordance with the rules of a Regulated Market, MTF or OTF to inform investors (eg,
a UK-listed company making an announcement through a regulated information service (RIS)), or
• contained within records open to the public (eg, a new shareholding that is reflected in the
company’s Register of Shareholders), or
• can be readily acquired by those likely to deal in securities to which the information relates, or
• about securities of an issuer to which it relates.

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14
Q

Can a company commit Insider Trading?

A

No - only individuals. However, by arranging for

a company to deal, an individual could commit the offence of encouraging it to do so.

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15
Q

What are the 3 offense relating to Misleading statements?

A
  • making misleading statements
  • creating false or misleading impressions
  • making misleading statements in relation to benchmarks
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16
Q

What are the possible defenses to a charge of misleading the market?

A

• The first is that the person reasonably believed that their act or conduct would not create an
impression that was false or misleading.
• The second relates to actions, statements or forecasts that might be made in conformity with the
price stabilisation rules of the FCA. These allow market participants, such as investment banks,
to support the price of a new issue of securities for their clients, with the aim of preventing the
market from being excessively volatile. The rules themselves require certain disclosures to investors
considering investing in the stabilised securities, and restrict the support operation to a particular
period.
• The third defence is that the actions, statements or forecasts were made in conformity with the
control of information rules of the FCA. These rules relate to statements, actions or forecasts being
made on the basis of limited information. The remainder of the information may be known to the
firm, but it rests behind so-called Chinese walls, and is not known to the relevant individual.

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17
Q

What must be included in a Suspicious Transactions and Order Report (STOR)?

A

• identification of the person submitting the STOR, the capacity of the person submitting the STOR, in
particular when dealing on own account or executing orders on behalf of third parties’ description
of the order or transaction, including:
• the type of order and the type of trading, in particular block trades, and where the activity
occurred
• price and volume
• reasons for which the order or transaction is suspected to constitute insider dealing, market
manipulation or attempted insider dealing or market manipulation
• means of identifying any person involved in the order or transaction that could constitute insider
dealing, market manipulation or attempted insider dealing or market manipulation, including the
person who placed or executed the order and the person on whose behalf the order has been
placed or executed
• any other information and supporting documents which may be deemed relevant for the
competent authority for the purposes of detecting, investigating and enforcing insider dealing,
market manipulation and attempted insider dealing and market manipulation.

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18
Q

If an individual commits Market Abuse within a firm, is the firm liable?

A

If firms can demonstrate that they have good systems and controls and are complying with them, and an individual within the firm commits market abuse, the FCA will not pursue the firm in an enforcement action, just the individual.

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19
Q

What is the FCA’s penalty for Market Abuse?

A

The potential fine will be the greater of:
• a multiple of the profit made or loss avoided for their own benefit, or the benefit of other individuals
where they have been instrumental in achieving that benefit
• where the FCA assess the seriousness level 4 or 5, a fine of £100,000.

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20
Q

What requirement does MAR impose on Insider Lists?

A

Issuers and persons acting on their behalf are required to draw up a list of all persons who have access
to inside information, including where they are working for them under a contract of employment, or
otherwise performing tasks through which they have access to inside information, such as advisers,
accountants or credit rating agencies (insider list).

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21
Q

What securities are caught by Inisder Dealing Rules?

A
  • shares
  • debt securities (issued by a company or a public sector body)
  • warrants
  • depositary receipts
  • options (to acquire or dispose of securities)
  • futures (to acquire or dispose of securities), and
  • CFDs based on securities, interest rates or share indices.
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22
Q

What are the 4 defenses to a charge of Insider Dealing?

A

• No advantage was expected – ie, the defendant did not expect the dealing to result in a profit (or
the avoidance of a loss) due to information they possessed.
• The defendant believed the information had been widely disclosed – and they must have
believed this on reasonable grounds.
• They would have dealt anyway – regardless of the information (for example, because they were in
financial difficulties and would have had to sell their shares to meet their obligations).
• They did not expect any person to deal because of the disclosure – for the offence of disclosing
only.

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23
Q

Does the FCA have the ability to prosecute criminal offenses?

A

The FCA has powers under Sections 401 and 402 of FSMA to prosecute a range of criminal offences in
England, Wales and Northern Ireland. The FCA’s general policy is to pursue through the criminal justice
system all cases where criminal prosecution is appropriate.

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24
Q

What are examples of unlawful disclosure?

A

• disclosure of inside information by the director of an issuer to another person in a social context
• selective briefing of analysts by directors of issuers or others who are persons discharging
managerial responsibilities

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25
Q

What might indicate if trading behaviour is for legitimate reasons?

A

• if the person has a purpose behind the transaction to induce others to trade in, bid for or to position
or move the price of, a financial instrument
• if the person has another, illegitimate, reason behind the transactions, bid or order to trade, and
• if the transaction was executed in a particular way with the purpose of creating a false or misleading
impression.

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26
Q

Is Price Stabilisation allowed?

A

Price stabilisation may be carried out by relevant firms (market makers) if the relevant securities have
been admitted to trading on a regulated market, or a request for their admission to trading on such a
market has been made. Price stabilisation is normally only carried out for short periods of time.

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27
Q

How are Accepted Market practices determined?

A

Before establishing an accepted market practice, national competent authorities must notify the
European Securities and Markets Authority (ESMA) and the other competent authorities of its intention
to establish an accepted market practice and shall provide the details of that assessment made in
accordance with the criteria laid down. Such a notification shall be made at least three months before
the accepted market practice is intended to take effect within MAR.

28
Q

What might lead to a practice being acknowledged as Accepted?

A

• practice provides for a substantial level of transparency to the market
• practice has a positive impact on market liquidity and efficiency
• practice takes into account the trading mechanism of the relevant market and participants to react
properly and in a timely manner to the new market situation created by that practice
• practice creates risks for the integrity of, directly or indirectly, related markets, whether regulated or
not, in the relevant financial instrument within the EEA.

29
Q

What is the aim of the Disclosure and Transparency Rules?

A

The aim of the disclosure rules is to make provisions to ensure that information relating to publicly listed
securities is properly handled and disseminated.

30
Q

What is the threshold for personal transactions by Managers for disclosure?

A

EUR 5,000 per calendar year

31
Q

How soon must a Manager make disclosure of personal trades in the firm’s stock?

A

Within 3 days

32
Q

What is a Closed Period?

A

MAR includes a prohibition (subject to limited exceptions) on just PDMRs conducting any transactions on their own account or for the account of a third party during a ‘closed period’ of 30 calendar days
before the announcement of an interim financial report or year-end report which the company is
obliged to make public

33
Q

What is Money Laundering?

A
Money laundering (ML) is the process of turning dirty money (money derived from criminal activities)
into money which appears to be from legitimate origins.
34
Q

What are the 3 stages of Moeny Laundering?

A
  1. Placement – introduction of the money into the financial system; typically, this involves placing the
    criminally derived cash into a bank or building society account, a bureau de change or any other
    type of enterprise which can accept cash, such as, for example, a casino.
  2. Layering – this involves moving the money around in order to make it difficult for the authorities
    to link the placed funds with the ultimate beneficiary of the money. This might involve buying and
    selling foreign currencies, shares or bonds in rapid succession, investing in CISs, insurance-based
    investment products or moving the money from one country to another.
  3. Integration – at this final stage, the layering has been successful and the ultimate beneficiary
    appears to be holding legitimate funds (clean money/funds). The money is regarded as integrated
    into the legitimate financial system.
35
Q

What are the 5 offenses related to Money Laundering under the Proceeds of Crime Act (POCA)?

A
  1. Concealing
  2. Arrangements
  3. Acquisition, use and possession
  4. Failure to disclose
  5. Tipping off
36
Q

What is the punishment for Concealing, Arranging or Aquisition of illegal funds?

A

Up to 14 years of prison

37
Q

What is the punishment for Failure to Disclose or Tipping Off?

A

Up to 5 years in prison

38
Q

What was the new criminal offence introduced under 4MLD

A

Any individual who recklessly makes a statement in the
context of money laundering which is false or misleading commits an offence punishable by a fine and/ or up to two years’ imprisonment.

39
Q

What are the primary changes for 5MLD which came into effect in 2020?

A

• broadening access to information on beneficial ownership, improving transparency in the ownership
of companies and trusts
• addressing risks linked to prepaid cards and virtual currencies
• cooperation between financial intelligence units
• improved checks on transactions involving high-risk third countries.

40
Q

What does 5MLD impose for Cyptocurrencies?

A

In a bid to end the anonymity associated with virtual currencies, virtual currency exchange platforms
and custodian wallet providers will, like banks, have to apply customer due diligence controls, including
customer verification requirements.

41
Q

What are the 3 aspects of CDD?

A

• identify the customer/beneficial owner – obtain the name, address and date of birth; for nonpersonal
customers the beneficial owners must be identified
• obtain verification of the customer/beneficial owner identity – conduct additional checks to verify
the information
• obtain information about the intended nature of the business relationship.`

42
Q

What are examples of entities where simplified due diligence may apply?

A

• certain other regulated financial services firms
• listed companies
• beneficial owners of pooled accounts held by notaries or legal professionals
• UK public authorities
• community institutions
• certain products/arrangements when the risk of them being used for ML is inherently low: life
assurance, e-money products, pension funds and child trust funds (CTFs).

43
Q

In what circumstances is Enhanced Due Diligence required?

A

• any case identified by the firm under its risk assessment (or in information provided by the
supervisory authorities) where there is a high-risk of ML/TF
• any transaction with a person established in a high risk third country
• where the client has not been physically present for identification purposes
• in respect of a relation to correspondent banking relationships
• in respect of a business relationship or occasional transaction with a PEP, if the firm has determined
that a customer or potential customer is a PEP, or a family member or known close associate of a PEP
• in any case where a customer has provided false or stolen identification documents or information
on establishing a relationship
• in any case where a transaction is complex and unusually large or there is an unusual pattern of
transactions.

44
Q

What is the definition of a PEP?

A

‘an individual who is or has, at any time in the preceding year, been entrusted with a prominent public function, other than as a middle-ranking or more junior official. Under the definition of a PEP, firms
obligation to apply EDD measures to an individual ceases after they have left office for one year, or a
longer period if the firm considers that it might be appropriate – in order to address risks of ML/TF in
relation to that person

45
Q

How is a suspicion of money laundering escalated?

A

First to the MLRO. Then to the NCA.

46
Q

How does the MLRO differ from the Nominated Office?

A

MLRO is an FCA requirement. The Nominated Officer is requirement of the Money Laundering regulation. In practice, they are both usually the same inidividual.

47
Q

Does the FCA pursue people on an regulatory or criminal basis?

A

Both.

48
Q

Does a STOR replace a SAR?

A

No. They are different regimes, and submitting one does not remove the requirement to submit the other.

49
Q

What are the major differences bteween Money Laundering and Terrorist Financing?

A

• Often, only quite small sums of money are required to commit terrorist acts.
• If legitimate funds are used to fund terrorist activities, it is difficult to identify when the funds
become terrorist funds

50
Q

What are the 2 General Bribery offences in the Bribery Act?

A

The offering, promising or giving of a bribe (active
bribery)
The requesting, agreeing to receive or accepting of a bribe (passive bribery)

51
Q

What are the Commercial Bribery offenses in the Bribery Act?

A

Bribery of a foreign public official in order to obtain
or retain business or an advantage in the conduct of business

Failing to prevent bribery on behalf of a commercial organisation.

52
Q

What is the defence agianst Corporate Bribery?

A

It is a full defence for an organisation to prove that, despite a particular case of bribery, it nevertheless
had adequate procedures in place to prevent persons associated with it from bribing.

53
Q

What is the territorial scope of the Bribery Act?

A

UK Courts have jurisdiction over the offences
committed in the UK, but they also have jurisdiction over offences committed outside the UK if the
person committing them has a close connection with the UK by virtue of being a British national or
ordinarily resident in the UK, a body incorporated in the UK or a Scottish partnership.

However, Failing to prevent bribery on behalf of a commercial organisation is a charge without territorial restriction - if an organisation does buisness in the UK, it can be charged for its activities anywhere in the world

54
Q

What are the two types of case where a bribe may be said to have occured?

A

• Case 1 applies when P intends the advantage to bring about the improper performance by another
person of a relevant function or activity or to reward such improper performance.
• Case 2 applies when P knows or believes that the acceptance of the advantage offered, promised or
given in itself constitutes the improper performance of a relevant function or activity.

55
Q

What is a Section 6 Bribery offense?

A

Bribery of Foreign Public Officials

56
Q

What are the 6 principles to be taken into account when designing anti-bribery controls?

A

1) Proportionate procedures
2) Top-level commitment
3) Risk assessment
4) Due diligence
5) Communication
6) Monitoring and review

57
Q

What is the UK’s implementation of the GDPR?

A

UK Data Protection Act (DPA)

58
Q

What are the 6 Data Protection Principles under the DPA?

A

1) Processing must be lawful and fair
2) Purposes of processing must be specified, explicit and legitimate
3) personal data must be adequate, relevant and not excessive
4) personal data must be accurate and kept up to date
5) personal data must be kept for no longer than is necessary
6) personal data must be processed in a secure manner

59
Q

What is a Data Controller?

A

A data controller means a natural or legal person who alone or jointly with others determines the
purpose and means of the processing of personal data

60
Q

What is a Data Processor?

A

A data processor means a natural or legal person which processes personal data on behalf of a ‘data
controller’.

61
Q

What information must a Data Controller make available to data subjects?

A
  • the identity and contact details of the data controller and their data protection officer
  • the purpose for which their personal data is being processed
  • the existence of their right to exercise any of the below rights
  • the legal basis for the processing of their personal data, and
  • the retention period or criteria used to determine the retention period.
62
Q

What is the time period for a data breach notification?

A

72 hours

63
Q

What must a data breach notification include?

A

• a description of the nature of the data breach (eg, approximate numbers of affected data subjects,
the categories and approximate number of data records concerned)
• the name and contact details of a contact point from whom additional information can be obtained
• a description of the likely consequences of the breach, and
• a description of the measures taken by the controller to address the breach, including any measures
to mitigate the adverse effects.

64
Q

What are the potential fines under the GDPR?

A

Up to 4% of their annual worldwide turnover (or, if greater, €20,000,000) for breaches of certain provisions, and up to 2% (or, if greater €10,000,000) for other specified breaches.

65
Q

Can an employer limit its employees ability to Whistleblow through contractual means?

A

PIDA makes any clause or term in an agreement between a worker and their employer void if it precludes the worker from making a protected disclosure (sometimes known as blowing the whistle).

66
Q

What is a Proected Disclosure?

A

A protected disclosure is where information is revealed by a worker (in reasonable belief ) that shows
that one of the following has been, is being, or is likely to be committed:
• a criminal offence
• a failure to comply with any legal obligation
• a miscarriage of justice
• the putting of the health and safety of an individual in danger
• damage to the environment
• deliberate concealment of any of the above.

67
Q

What is the role of a Whistleblower Champion?

A

The whistleblower champion should have a level of authority and independence within the firm
and access to resources (including access to independent legal advice and training) and information
sufficient to enable them to carry out that responsibility. They do not need to have a day-to-day
operational role handling disclosures from whistleblowers.