The ''Ologies'' Flashcards by Jacy Lauzon

Paired serology (2 samples, 2-4 weeks apart) typically documents rising plasma levels of _________ as a confirmatory test for many infectious diseases. Choices: IgA, IgM or IgG.

IgG

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the term that describes the presence of band neutrophils in the circulation as a consequence of increased tissue demand for neutrophils?

Left shift. (Virage à gauche). A left shift indicates a decreased granulocyte reserve and usually denotes a tissue demand for neutrophils. In severe situations, they may be followed by neutrophilic metamyelocytes.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Adenocarcinoma of which organ as been associated with a paraneoplasic alopecia in cats?

The pancreas. The glistening appearance of the skin is responsible for the colloquial term for this disorder: ‘‘shiny cat disease’’.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which adverse effect involving the urinary tract can the antineoplastic drug cyclophosphamide cause?

Sterile hemorrhagic cystitis, caused by the drug metabolite acrolein.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

There are at least 4 indications for the use of antimicrobial combinations instead of antibiotic monotherapy. Name 2.

1) Superior efficacy in serious infections
2) Polymicrobial infections/broad-spectrum coverage
3) Prevention of emergence of resistance to 1 drug
4) Lower risk of toxicity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which hematological changes are typical for acute disease associated with Ehrlichia canis infection?

Variable degrees of thrombocytopenia +/- leukopenia +/- anemia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which condition is said to be present in a patient with jugular venous distension, pleural effusion, hepatomegaly, and ascites?

Right-sided congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Portosystemic shunts in dogs can be associated with which change in erythrocytes: Heinz bodies, basophilic stippling, or microcytosis?

Microcytosis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the basis for resistance to beta-lactam antibodies such as ampicillin or penicillin in some strains of Staphylococcus?

Plasmid-encoded beta-lactamase

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which organ systems are affected in aminoglycoside toxicity?

Renal and auditory (inner ear)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the causative agent of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis (IBK, ‘‘pinkeye’’), the most common ocular disease of cattle?

Moraxella bovis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Cardiac muscle is derived from which embryonic cell line?

Neural crest

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During mammalian embryonic development, T lymphocytes originate from the bone marrow, but then proceed to which organ for final differentiation?

Thymus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Atrophic rhinitis in pigs has 2 causative agents. What are they?

Pasteurella Multocida and Bordetella Bronchiseptica

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the causative agent of proliferative enteritis of swine?

Lawsonia intracellularis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Other than gastrointestinal and adrenal effects, ketoconazole is recognized to have toxic potential involving which important organ?

Liver (and less commonly it can also affect the bone marrow)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

If a blood vessel’s radius doubles, by how much will flow increase if all other parameters (pressure difference between ends of the vessel, viscosity, etc.) remain the same?

16-fold (Poiseuille’s law). Flow increases to the fourth power of increase in radius.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the antidote for organophosphate insecticide intoxication?

Atropine and/or pralidoxime (2-PAM)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the main effect of angiotensin II on the peripheral arterioles?

Vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In which type of cell death are cellular shrinkage and condensed chromatin initial features?

Apoptosis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Name 3 effects of atropine.

Increased heart rate (tachycardia)
Dilated pupils (mydriasis)
Decreased salivation (xerostomia)
Decreased gastrointestinal motility
Decreased lacrimation
decreased vomiting
decreased urination

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are the site of action, and the effect, of Clostridium botulinum toxin?

The toxin prevents the presynaptic release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. The result is a flaccid paralysis, as well as autonomic nervous system disturbances.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Horses that ingest plants containing pyrrolizidine alkaloids may develop toxicosis involving which organ system?

Hepatobiliary

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A dog with pulmonary lesions also has extensive periosteal reaction and proliferation of both humeri. What is this condition called?

Hypertrophic osteopathy (formerly called hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy, or Marie’s disease)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which gene mutation is responsible for susceptibility to ivermectin toxicosis in Collies?

MDR-1 gene (multiple drug resistance gene, which codes for P-glycoprotein)

What are the components of feline ''triaditis''?

Cholangiohepatitis, pancreatitis, and inflammatory bowel disease.

What is the causative agent of swine dysentery?

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) classically is an adverse effect caused by antimicrobial drugs of which type?

Sulfa drugs (e.g. trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole (TMS))

Except in a standing animal, the crossed extensor reflex is considered abnormal. Is it a sign of upper or lower motor neuron disease?

Upper motor neuron disease

What is the vector for bluetongue virus?

Culicoides spp. (midges, ''no-see-ums'')

An adult dog has peritoneal effusion; centesis reveals a thick opaque white fluid with metacestodes evident microscopically. What is the causative organism?

Mesocestoides spp.

Name 2 classes of antibiotics that have superior penetration of prostatic tissue.

Fluoroquinolones, potentiated sulfas; +/- macrolide (erythromycin), +/- lincosamide (clindamycin), +/- chloramphenicol

Muscle contraction occurs due to calcium release into the sarcoplasm, where calcium binds with _________, allowing the connection of actin to myosin.

Troponin/tropomyosin complex (specifically troponin C)

Taylorella equigenitalis causes which disease?

Contagious equine metritis (CEM)

The cervical intumescence, which is the origin of the lower motor neurons for the thoracic limbs, contains which spinal cord segments?

C6-T2

Infarction of tissues is characterized by which type of necrosis?

Coagulation necrosis

What is the main hormone that increases phosphaturia?

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

What is the major source of exposure to Brucella abortus in cattle and B. melitensis in sheep and goats?

Aborted fetuses, the placenta, and post-abortion uterine fluids

What is the mechanism of toxicity of strychnine?

It interferes with the release of glycine from the interneurons in the central nervous system

In dogs, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is most commonly associated with infections of which 3 organ systems?

Ears (otitis externa), lower urinary tract (cystitis), and skin (pyoderma)

What is the causative agent of ''glanders'' in horses?

Burkholderia mallei

Chagas' disease is caused by which protozoal parasite, carried by which vector?

Trypanosoma cruzi, transmitted by triatomin bugs (genera Triatoma, Rhodinus, and Panstrongylus)

A normally-hydrated dog with a right-to-left shunting ventricular septal defect also has a high hematocrit, a low pCO2 and a high erythropoietin level. What type of erythrocytosis is this: A) Relative B) Absolute primary C) Absolute secondary

C) Absolute secondary

This syndrome is characterized by defective collagen synthesis resulting in abnormal skin extensibility and fragility.

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

Which bacterium is involved in most purulent infections of traumatic or opportunistic origin in cattle?

Arcanobacterium pyogenes

Pacheco's disease is caused by a virus of which class?

Herpesvirus

What is the reversal agent for medetomidine?

Atipamezole

By which mechanism do fluoroquinolones exert their antibacterial action? Does this result in a bacteriostatic or bactericidal effect?

Inhibition of DNA gyrase (bacterial topoisomerase-II). This inhibition is bactericidal.

Parathyroid hormone increases serum calcium levels by acting on which organ systems?

Gastrointestinal (increased calcium absorption), renal (decreased calcium exertion), bone (increased osteoclastic activity)

Under aerobic conditions, pyruvate is degraded to acetyl CoA in the mitochondrion. To what molecule is pyruvate converted instead (in the cytosol) under anaerobic conditions?

Lactate

What is the best-recognized potential side effect of administering fluoroquinolones to growing animals?

Cartilage damage

A patient's cerebrospinal fluid shows 20-50 white blood cells (WBCs)/microliter and 20-50 red blood cells (RBCs)/microliter. Are the WBCs due to central nervous system inflammation or blood contamination from the procedure?

Inflammation. If the WBCs were from contamination by circulating blood, there would be 1000 times more RBC than WBC (as shown on a CBC, for example, where the WBC value is reported in thousands and the RBC value in millions).

Upper motor neuron signs in both the thoracic and pelvic limbs localize a neurological lesion to which segments of the spinal cord?

C1-C5

Which molecule in the blood generates the greatest colloid oncotic pressure and is therefore the most important in maintaining fluid balance between intravascular and interstitial spaces?

Albumin (Approx. 80% of oncotic pull, the remainder coming mostly from fibrinogen and globulins)

Are mammary tumors more likely to be malignant in a dog or a cat?

In a cat, where 85-93% of feline mammary tumors are malignant, compared with 41-53% of canine mammary tumors.

Which effect does acidosis have on ionized calcium concentrations?

Mild increase. Acidosis decreases plasma-protein-binding affinity for calcium, creating a mild physiologic hypercalcemia. Alkalosis has the opposite effect.

What are the function and mechanism of action of cyclosporine?

Immune suppressant; T-cell inhibition

Which poorly staining coiled spiral organisms require darkfield or phase contrast microscopy for visualization?

Leptospirae and borreliae

Glucocorticoid-induced hepatocellular degeneration is a specific disorder characterized by an excessive hepatic accumulation of ____________.

Glycogen

Atenolol is a beta-1 selective antagonist drug. Therefore, where in the body is its targeted site of action?

The heart

Which domestic ungulate species does not develop clinical disease due to foot and mouth disease virus?

The horse

Which drug can be given to reverse the effects if opioids?

Naloxone; butorphanol also has mixed agonist-antagonist properties

Which 2 toxins produced by Bacillus anthracis are the most important in the production of the disease?

Lethal toxin and edema toxin

Which class of bacteria is grouped by Lancefield serologic classification?

Streptococci

The migrating larvae of this parasite can cause thrombosis of mesenteric arteries in horses.

Strongylus vulgaris

Which mechanism of skin disease of small animals is typically responsible for lesions on the nasal planum, pinnae, and foot pads?

Immune-mediated skin disease

With respiratory sinus arrhythmia, does the heart rate decrease or increase during expiration?

It decreases (greater intrathoracic pressure during expiration = increase pressure on vagus = slower heart rate)

Why does metabolic alkalosis predispose cows to subclinical hypocalcemia and milk fever?

Metabolic alkalosis blunts the response to parathyroid hormone (PTH)

Which coagulation test is first to be abnormal in anticoagulant rodenticide toxicosis in dogs or cats?

PT (Prothrombin time, also called one-step prothrombin time (OSPT)). Some have suggested that serum PIVKA levels may be similar or superior, but this controversial point remains unresolved.

What are 2 common infectious etiologic agents that cause ''shipping fever'' in cattle?

Possible answers include: Mannheimia haemolytica, bovine herpesvirus 1, bovine respiratory syncitial virus, bovine parainfluenza virus 3, and Mycoplasma spp.

Which viral etiologic agent is associated with pneumonia, mastitis, arthritis and wasting in sheep?

Maedi-Visna virus (Retroviridae)

Which gross hepatic lesions are expected secondary to right heart failure?

Hepatomegaly, rounding of liver margins, and characteristically a ''nutmeg liver'' appearance on cut section

White focal plaques on the cotyledons of sheep and goats are suggestive of which abortifacient agent?

Toxoplasma Gondii

During a neurological examination, what does a normal panniculus reflex indicate?

Integrity of the spinal cord between the site of stimulation and the C8-T1 spinal cord segment

Which adverse effect can be caused by raisin ingestion in dogs, lily ingestion in cats, or acute rhabdomyolysis in horses?

Acute renal failure

Intestinal ulceration is common in severe mast cell neoplasia. Which substance do mast cells secrete that binds to parietal cells, and which substance do the parietal cells then secrete?

Histamine, Hydrochloric acid

The causative agent of Lyme disease is?

Borrelia Burgdorferi

Are leptospirae G+ or G- bacteria?

G-

What is the key feature of all cell types primarily targeted by the parvoviruses?

Mitotically active cells (e.g. erythrocytes, blood cell precursors in the marrow)

An active, roaming dog develops acute liver failure 6 hours after swimming in stagnant water. What is the likely cause?

Blue-green algae (cyanobacteria) toxicosis

Which will produce fewer false-negative results: A test with high specificity, or a test with high sensitivity?

High sensitivity. 100% sensitivity catches all the truly positive cases (usually plus a few false positives); 100% specificity ensures that all positive results are truly positive (usually at the expense of having missed some real positives (false negatives)). Therefore, a high sensitivity test is ideal for screening, and a high specificity test is ideal for confirmation.

Cell-mediated immune rejection of a transplanted organ is an example of which type of hypersensitivity?

Type IV

Ingestion of tall grass by cattle can cause toxicosis manifesting as lameness and ultimately dry necrosis of extremities. Which type of grass is responsible for this disorder?

Fescue

What are the 3 methods of reducing radiation exposure from external radiation sources?

1) Increasing distance from the source 2) Time: Reducing duration of exposure 3) Shielding: Use of protective barriers

Streptococci are divided into 3 types based on hemolysis patterns when grown on blood agar plates (alpha-, beta-, and gamma-hemolytic). In which of these 3 categories are most of the pathogenic streptococci?

Beta-hemolytic

During a neurological examination, where is a spinal lesion likely to be if there is pathologically increased resistance to bladder outflow?

Upper motor neuron lesion cranial to the sacral spinal cord segments (L7 or cranial to it), causing increased urethral sphincter tone

Which drug may be used for treatment of such diverse conditions as cardiopulmonary resuscitation, vasodilatory shock, von Willebrand disease, and central diabetes insipidus?

Vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH; or its synthetic analog, desmopressin acetate, DDAVP)

In dogs, this superficial burrowing skin mite causes a non-seasonal intense pruritus initially around less-haired skin, such as the hocks, elbows and pinnal margins.

Sarcoptes scabiei

Which of the following antibiotics is the only one with good penetration into the cerebrospinal fluid? Gentamicin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, tetracycline, or cephalothin

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMS)

Which parasitic infestation in a dog can cause pseudo-hypoadrenocorticism?

Infection with whipworm (Trichuris vulpis) can cause hyponatremia and hyperkalemia

Is heartworm disease transmitted by male or female, blackfly or mosquito?

Female mosquito (males do not bite)

What is the mechanism of action of lactulose, by which it helps prevent hepatic encephalopathy?

Traps ammonia in the colon, reducing it to ammonium (excreted in feces rather than diffusing through colon wall and circulating systematically, causing encephalopathic effects)

What is the major route of transmission of Toxoplasma gondii to both the definitive host and to humans?

Ingestion of tissue cysts (containing bradyzoites)

Which 2 classes of drugs most commonly account for pharmacologically-induced diffuse splenomegaly in dogs?

Phenothiazines and barbiturates

Name 2 tick genera that transmit Babesia spp. to dogs.

Rhipicephalus, Haemaphysalis, Dermacentor

The resorptive capacity of the proximal renal tubule is exceeded when the blood glucose concentration surpasses which value (renal threshold) in the horse or dog?

180 mg/dL (10 mmol/L)

What are the intermediate hosts of Paragonimus kellicotti?

Snails and crayfish. Ingestion of these paragonimus-bearing intermediate hosts can cause respiratory disease due to cyst formation in the respiratory tract.

A lamb is stillborn, with grotesque deformations including cyclopia. Which toxic plant was likely consumed by the ewe during gestation?

Veratrum (skunk cabbage)

By which mechanism does ethanol prevent ethylene glycol toxicosis?

Competitive inhibition. Endogenous alcohol dehydrogenase would normally convert ingested ethylene glycol to glycolaldehyde (leading to oxalate formation and renal failure), but alcohol dehydrogenase has a greater affinity for ethanol than ethylene glycol.

True or false: In the dog, the site of greatest absorption of water in the gastrointestinal tract is the large intestine-colon.

False - It is the jejunum. Common error: most of what the colon absorbs is water (few electrolytes or other substances), but less total volume of water than ileum or jejunum.