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Veterinary Board Exam - Volume 1 > Large Animal > Flashcards

Large Animal Flashcards

1
Q

Purpura hemorrhagica can be a sequela of which equine bacterial infection?

A

Strangles (Streptococcus equi sp. equi infection)

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2
Q

The Quarter Horse (QH) sire ‘‘Impressive’’ is associated with which heritable muscle disorder?

A

Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP)

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3
Q

What are the radiographic signs of chronic laminitis in the horse?

A

Rotation and/or vertical displacement (sinking) of P3 from the hoof wall; thin sole; pathologic P3 fracture

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4
Q

If it were necessary to amputate one of the digits on a cow’s foot, what would the preferred method of desensitizing that region?

A

Intravenous local analgesia

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5
Q

Which nerve deficits to the head can occur as a result of guttural pouch mycosis in horses?

A

Laryngeal paralysis (X), dysphagia (IX and X), facial nerve paralysis (VII), and Horner’s syndrome (sympathetic fibers)

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6
Q

Which etiologic agent is associated with caseous necrotic lesions in lymph nodes or visceral organs of small ruminants?

A

Corynebacterium pseudoturbeculosis

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7
Q

Most outbreaks of salmonellosis in swine are caused by which two species of Salmonella?

A

S. Typhimurium and S. Cholerasuis

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8
Q

Donkeys are carriers of which lungworm?

A

Dictyocaulus arnfieldi

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9
Q

What are the most common sites of predilection for lesions of bovine leukosis/lymphoma in the cow?

A

Abomasum, heart (right atrium); +/- uterus, +/- kidneys/ureters, +/- lymph nodes, +/- mandible, +/- meninges

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10
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis in an overconditioned llama with signs of intracranial neurologic dysfunction and high circulating triglyceride and gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT) levels?

A

Hepatic lipidosis

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11
Q

What are 2 synergistically-acting causative agents of footrot in cattle?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum and Bacterioides melaninogenicus

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12
Q

Which disorder is commonly referred to as white heifer disease?

A

Segmental aplasia of the genital tract. Occurs spontaneously in all cattle breeds. In most cases the ovaries, uterine tubes and cranial part of the uterine horns are normal, but the normal drainage of endometrial secretions through the cervix is impeded, commonly by an intact hymen.

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13
Q

Floppy ears and failure of the incisor teeth to erupt of the incisor to erupt are an indication of which disorder in newborn crias?

A

Prematurity

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14
Q

Which virus is the most common cause of neonatal diarrhea in calves?

A

Rotavirus

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15
Q

What is the causative agent of contagious bovine pyelonephritis?

A

Corynebacterium renale

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16
Q

Which two organisms are required for completion of the life cycle of Parelaphostrongylus tenuis?

A

Deer and snail

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17
Q

What is the most important differential for duodenitis-proximal jejunitis in horses?

A

Small intestinal obstruction

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18
Q

Myocardial necrosis in horses follows intoxication with which class of antibiotics?

A

Ionophores

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19
Q

Several lambs in a flock have papules, crusted ulcerations, and inflammation of the lips and mouth. The shepherd has a papule on his finger that is new and similar in appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Contagious ecthyma (‘‘Orf’’)

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20
Q

Which statement regarding pregnancy failure in swine is false?

A) Embryonic death occurring after day 12 is associated with prolonged interestrus intervals
B) Infectious diseases that cause fetal mummification always lead to death of the entire litter
C) Birth of piglets at 110 days of gesatation is considered an abortion

A

B) Infectious diseases that cause fetal mummification always lead to death of the entire litter
This is false. Infectious diseases that cause fetal mummification do not always lead to death of the entire litter.

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21
Q

In cattle, which branch of which nerve is responsible for pain caused by dehorning?

A

Cornual nerve, a branch of the zygomaticotemporal division of the maxillary nerve (which in turn is one of the 3 branches of the trigeminal nerve, CN V)

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22
Q

An outbreak of disease characterized by high fever, moderate anorexia, recumbency and reddening of the skin is affecting almost all the pigs on a hog farm. The farmer recently travelled to South Africa. Most likely disease?

A

African Swine fever

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23
Q

Which 2 organ systems are affected when horses sustain toxicosis by ingesting red maple leaves?

A

Hematologic and renal (oxidative injury to red blood cells causes hemolysis and pigment nephropathy/renal failure)

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24
Q

Which statement about equine laminitis is true?

A) The digital pulse of an affected foot is often reduced and the extremity is cool to the touch
B) Hoof care includes application of pads that place pressure on the sole
C) Histologic grade 1 corresponds to complete separation of basement membrane and epidermal lamellae

A

B) Hoof care includes application of pads that place pressure on the sole

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25
Q

Advanced stages of this disease in adult cattle may cause lethargy, weakness, emaciation, ‘‘pipe-stream’’ diarrhea, hypoproteinemia, and intermandibular edema (‘‘bottle jaw’’).

A

Johne’s disease (Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis)

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26
Q

An older horse is diagnoses with a diastolic, decrescendo murmur on the left side during routine physical exam. What is the most likely etiology?

A

Aortic regurgitation/aortic insufficiency (age-related)

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27
Q

A pacer mare finishes far behind the field and on physical examination has an irregularly irregular heart rhythm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Atrial fibrillation

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28
Q

In a feedlot, which component of the diet is generally overfed if cattle are developing frothy bloat?

A

Concentrate

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29
Q

Name the porcine giant kidney worm.

A

Stephanuris dentatus

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30
Q

Which syndrome in cattle, characterized by hemoptysis, results from ruminitis with subsequent development of liver abscesses?

A

Caudal vena cava syndrome

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31
Q

Recurrent exertional rhabdomyolysis (RER) is thought to be inherited as an autosomal dominant trait in which horse breed?

A

Thoroughbred (TB)

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32
Q

A weanling horse presents with diarrhea, ventral edema, and severe hypoproteinemia with hypoalbuminemia. What is the likely causative agent?

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

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33
Q

Which equine herpesvirus can cause respiratory signs, myeloencephalopathy and abortion?

A

Equine Herpesvirus type 1 (EHV-1)

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34
Q

Which common cause of anemia exclusive to camelids can be routinely diagnosed with a blood smear?

A

Eperythrozoonosis (Mycoplasma haemolamae)

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35
Q

In which 2 locations are male small ruminants predisposed to urethral obstruction?

A

Sigmoid flexure and urethral process

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36
Q

Which species of Cryptosporidium found commonly in cattle is considered zoonotic?

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

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37
Q

Which muscle disorder of horses is associated with an abnormal glucose metabolism and increased insulin sensitivity?

A

Polysaccharide storage myopathy (PSSM)

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38
Q

Diamond-shaped skin lesions are characteristic of which common pig disease?

A

Erysipelas (Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae infection)

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39
Q

Mares with which blood group characteristics are at risk for producing a foal with neonatal isoerythrolysis?

A

Mares that are negative for either or both the Aa and Qa antigens

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40
Q

Which picornavirus classically causes cardiomyopathy in calves?

A

Foot and mouth disease virus

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41
Q

Which Gram negative organism is the most common cause of infection in large animal neonates?

A

Escherichia coli

42
Q

Which clinical sign of Horner’s syndrome differentiates horses from cattle?

A

Horses sweat (ipsilateral to the affected side); cattle do not

43
Q

What is the major problem associated with prophylactic use of penicillin in horses exposes to Streptococcus equi but not showing clinical signs?

A

Horses are highly susceptible to disease following discontinuation of the therapy

44
Q

At which stage of gestation would an infection with bovine viral diarrhea virus likely produce a persistently infected animal?

A) 0-45 days
B) 45-125 days
C) 125-175 days
D) Over 175 days

A

B) 45-125 days

45
Q

What is the leading cause of streptococcal mastitis in dairy cattle in North America?

A

Streptococcus uberis

46
Q

Describe the typical acid/base and electrolyte disturbances that characterize a long-standing abomasal outflow obstruction in a cow.

A

Hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

47
Q

Which neurological disease of cattle is characterized by multifocal microabscesses in the brain stem?

A

Listeriosis (Listeria monocytogenes infection)

48
Q

Why is it necessary to deeply sedate or anesthetize goats before performing procedures like dehorning or castration?

A

They can die of shock due to fear, restraint, or pain

49
Q

Which essential ingredient should be added to dry-cow diet to prevent milk fever (bovine parturient paresis or hypocalcemia)?

A

Anionic salts

50
Q

Is a right flank omentopexy suitable for treating a left-sided abomasal displacement, a right-sided abomasal displacement, or both?

A

Both

51
Q

A functional corpus luteum is lysed by which hormone normally produced by the endometrium?

A

Prostaglandin F 2 alpha (PGF2alpha)

52
Q

Necrotic laryngitis (or calf diphtheria) is caused by the invasion of which bacteria into the cartilage of the larynx?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

53
Q

Which infectious organism commonly causes epizootic abortion in the second half of gestation in sheep?

A

Campylobacter spp.

54
Q

Aujeszky’s disease of swine causes which reportable disease of ruminants?

A

Pseudorabies

55
Q

Which infectious agent is commonly associated with rectal strictures in swine?

A

Salmonella spp.

56
Q

What is a balling gun and how may it injure a bovine patient?

A

It is a metal tube-and-plunger instrument used for oral administration of medication tablets, boluses, or magnets. Excessive force can cause pharyngeal trauma. Answers referring to bulls’ testicles or firearms are, regrettably, incorrect.

57
Q

Which is the most common congenital cardiac defect in horses?

A

Ventricular septal defect

58
Q

Which bacterium in cattle is associated with lumpy jaw?

A

Actinomyces bovis

59
Q

On a feedlot, cows develop severe rhinitis and cough 2 weeks after arrival of new stock. Abortions occur a few weeks later. What is the most likely etiology?

A

Bovine herpesvirus-1 (Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis)

60
Q

What is the cause of mulberry heart disease in pigs?

A

Vitamin E / Selenium deficiency

61
Q

A 6 month-old filly presents with a large, tense, gas-filled swelling in Viborg’s triangle. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Guttural pouch tympany

62
Q

Crias are born enveloped in an extrafetal epidermal membrane. What are its functions?

A

In addition to providing lubrication during delivery, it keeps them dry at birth (an evolutionary advantage for neonates in colder, high-altitude climates).

63
Q

Hypoventilation in a horse under general anesthesia can produce which type of acid/base disturbance?

A

Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

64
Q

Muscle stiffness and tremor, trismus, and prolapse of the third eyelid are classic clinical findings for which neurological disease of large animals?

A

Tetanus

65
Q

In ruminants, the ______________ is the major target organ in immediate, type-1 hypersensitivity reactions.

A

Lung

66
Q

What is the causative agent of classical swine fever?

A

Hog cholera virus

67
Q

Which congenital defect is linked to the polled gene in goats?

A

Intersexuality

68
Q

What are 3 recognized treatments that may be used for converting atrial fibrillation to normal sinus rhythm in horses?

A

1) Quinidine
2) Quinidine + Digoxin
3) Electrical defibrillation/conversion
4) Benign neglect (spontaneous conversion)

69
Q

The adult third incisors and canine teeth are beginning to erupt in a stallion. Approximately how old is he?

A

4-5 years of age

70
Q

How many compartments make up the stomach of camelids?

A

Three

71
Q

Caudal epidural anesthesia in a cow is administered via which intervertebral space?

A

The sacrococcygeal space (between S5 and Cd1)

72
Q

Which equine disorder is also known as ‘‘shaker foal syndrome’’?

A

Botulism

73
Q

If a C-section is required in a cow where the fetus is dead and emphysematous, which surgical approach is preferred?

A

Ventral approach

74
Q

A horse with deciduous incisors can be said to be less than what age?

A

2.5 years

75
Q

In pigs at post-mortem, ‘‘milk spots’’ in the liver are evidence of which disease process?

A

Ascaris suum migration

76
Q

Viborg’s triangle is an important anatomical landmark in horses as it outlines a surgical approach to the guttural pouch. Its boundaries are:

A

1) Ramus of the mandible
2) Tendon of sternocephalicus
3) Linguofacial vein

77
Q

Gastric ulcers occur most commonly in which compartment of the camelid stomach?

A

C-3

78
Q

If a cow does not have traumatic reticuloperitonitis (TRP), how should she respond to a withers pinch test?

A

Extension of the back (versus flexion/hunching if TRP is present)

79
Q

A cow in Nevada aborts in the last trimester, and the dead fetus shows lymphadenopathy, mucosal petechiae on the underside of the tongue, and hepatosplenomegaly. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Epizootic bovine abortion (foothill abortion)

80
Q

Which equine herpesvirus infection is commonly restricted to the respiratory tract?

A

Equine herpesvirus (EHV) - 4

81
Q

What is distinctive about the macroscopic appearance of the female Haemonchus worms?

A

A ‘‘barber pole’’ appearance (intertwined uterus and intestine)

82
Q

Describe the classic serum biochemical abnormalities in an untreated foal with uroperitoneum.

A

Hyponatremia, Hypochloremia, Hyperkalemia and Azotemia

83
Q

What is Galvayne’s groove?

A

A longitudinal groove in the upper third incisor of older horses, visible between ages 10 and 30 years

84
Q

What is the most common skin tumor of cattle?

A

Papillomas, caused by bovine papillomavirus

85
Q

In foals, is a patent urachus more commonly congenital or acquired, and by which age should it normally close?

A

Acquired (closes naturally but reopens due to physical trauma, handling, or infection). In foals, the urachus normally should close by 2 weeks of age.

86
Q

A sheep on wet pasture has extremely pale mucous membranes. What is the most likely causative parasite?

A

Haemonchus spp.

87
Q

Dorsally-directed manual pressure exerted on the abdominal midline just caudal to the xiphoid elicits signs of pain in a cow. Which disorder is likely present?

A

Traumatic reticuloperitonitis (hardware disease)

88
Q

What is the etiologic agent responsible for edema disease in swine?

A

Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli

89
Q

Which production animal species is most susceptible to copper poisoning?

A

Sheep

90
Q

Severe pruritus, persistent rubbing resulting in wool loss, and impaired locomotion are classic clinical signs of which disease of sheep?

A

Scrapie

91
Q

What is a characteristic finding of the erythrocytes of normal camelids?

A

The are elliptical

92
Q

During the carrier state, quine viral arteritis virus is solely present in which organ system?

A

The reproductive tract

93
Q

What is the treatment of choice for a urinary tract infection caused by Corynebacterium renale in an adult cow?

A

Penicillin

94
Q

Porcine respiratory and reproductive syndrome (PRRS) manifests with which 2 main signs on a herd level?

A

Breeding losses and respiratory disease

95
Q

What is the cause of the syndrome known as rickets, which commonly occurs in crias raised in geographic regions with constant cloud cover?

A

Vitamin D deficiency

96
Q

Expiratory wheezes are a hallmark of which one of the following respiratory diseases of horses?

A) Laryngeal hemiplegia
B) Inflammatory airway disease
C) Recurrent airway obstruction

A

C) Recurrent airway obstruction

97
Q

What is the causative agent of Tyzzer’s disease in foals?

A

Clostridium piliformis

98
Q

In ruminants, polioencephalomalacia is most commonly due to relative deficiency in which vitamin?

A

Thiamine (Vitamin B1)

99
Q

Which animal is the definitive host for Sarcocystis neurona?

A

Opossum

100
Q

Which infectious disease of adult camelids causes chronic weight loss in the face of a good appetite?

A

Johne’s Disease

Veterinary Board Exam - Volume 1 (6 decks)

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