Avian & Exotic Flashcards

1
Q

A male lizard is presented for evaluation of recent-onset swelling of the ventral tailbase, adjacent and caudal to the cloacal opening. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Normal enlargement of the hemipenes with sexual maturity, or abnormal debris accumulation (seminal plugs)

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2
Q

What does measuring the anogenital distance tell you in a juvenile rat?

A

Gender

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3
Q

Which zoonotic pathogen of wild rabbits and rodents may cause cutaneous lesions, respiratory disease or meningitis?

A

Francisella tularensis (causing ‘‘rabbit fever’’ or tularemia)

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4
Q

What is the average lifespan of pet chinchillas?

A

10 years (Much longer than that of other pet rodents; some chinchillas are reported to have lived 20 years!)

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5
Q

Inflammation in avians is characterized by mainly caseous exudate, due to minimal amounts of which enzyme in heterophils?

A

Myeloperoxidase

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6
Q

What are examples of animals that are referred to as chelonians?

A

Chelonians are the group that includes turtles, terrapins, and tortoises.

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7
Q

What is the most common cause of exophthalmos in rabbits?

A

Abscess - Usually tooth root. Less commonly, neoplasia.

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8
Q

This gonadotropin-releasing hormone analog is used in medical treatment of adrenocortical disease in the ferret.

A

Leuprolide acetate

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9
Q

Which one of the following is absent in snakes?

A) 12 pairs of cranial nerves (like mammals)
B) Gastroesophageal sphincter
C) 2 kidneys
D) Pancreas

A

B) Gastroesophageal sphincter

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10
Q

If respiratory signs are present in passerines or budgies, you transilluminate the trachea looking for evidence of what?

A

Mites

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11
Q

What is ‘‘ophthalmia neonatorum’’ of ferrets?

A

Infection of the unopened eyes of kits

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12
Q

A turtle is presented for evaluation of a mass protruding from the cloaca. What are the most common ddx?

A

Penile prolapse, urinary bladder prolapse, cloacal prolapse, colonic prolapse, or prolapse of the oviduct.

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13
Q

In birds, dysfunction of which body system is most likely to cause green urates?

A

Hepatic.
Green, bile-stained urates may be observed in feces during liver disease. Birds lack biliverdin reductase and form biliverdin instead os bilirubin as the primary breakdown product of heme.

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14
Q

Which serum biochemical parameter is the best indicator of renal disease in birds?

A

Uric acid.
It is the end product of nitrogen catabolism in birds. Other causes of hyperuricemia include ovulation and postprandial.

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15
Q

Besides mosquito bites, name 2 other routes of transmission of West Nile virus in birds.

A

Consumption of infected animals, ingestion of infected mosquitoes, close contact between birds.

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16
Q

What is the average litter size for guinea pigs?

A

2 to 4 (a range of 1-13 young has been reported)

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17
Q

What are the usual cause of, and best treatment for, bumblefoot in caged birds?

A

Pododermatitis (bumblefoot) is usually caused by poor captive environment.
Proper perches, good nutrition, and if necessary, bandaging with or without debridement, are indicated.

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18
Q

Which tendon may be cut in order to pinion a bird (prevent it from flying…)?

A

Extensor carpi radialis tendon

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19
Q

In a pet bird with an unknown dietary history, you notice incidentally on radiographs that the long bones have very thin cortices. There are no fractures. Is this more likely to be normal or an early marker for metabolic bone disease?

A

Usually normal.
Normal healthy bird bones usually have very thin cortices compared to those of mammals, at least partly because of the intramedullary air sacs.

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20
Q

What is the most common cause of dyschezia and hematochezia in young ferrets?

A

Coccidiosis

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21
Q

What is the normal pre-surgical fasting interval for a rabbit?

A

2-4 hours, or not at all.

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22
Q

Why may excessive handling of fish lead to heavier external infections with pathogens and possible life threatening ulcerations in the skin?

A

Excessive handling disrupts the mucous layer of the epidermis which protects it from the environment.

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23
Q

This coronaviral disease of chickens produces respiratory signs, often followed by renal disorders (with pale, swollen kidneys) and reproductive dysfunction.

A

Infectious bronchitis

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24
Q

Name one family or species of snake that is naturally herbivorous (exclusively vegetarian).

A

None. All snakes are either carnivorous or omnivorous.

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25
Q

What is the typical lifespan of pet guinea pigs?

A

5 to 6 years

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26
Q

What is the most common cause of diarrhea in chinchillas?

A

Inappropriate feeding

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27
Q

Which normal process in rabbits is an important oral source of protein and vitamins B and K that does not require the rabbit to eat more food?

A

Coprophagy

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28
Q

Which organism causes disease in turkeys classically characterized by vertebral lesions (‘‘Crooked neck’’) and shortening, bowing, and torsion of the tarsometatarsus?

A

Mycoplasma meleagridis

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29
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for a soft shell in a pet turtle?

A

Nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism, bacterial infection, fungal infection, trauma, normal (softshell turtles - Apalone spp.)

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30
Q

What is the composition of ‘‘red tears’’ (chromodacryorrhea) shed by rats when they are stressed?

A

Porphyrin secretion by the harderian glands

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31
Q

How do you distinguish a ferret’s ileum from its jejunum on gross examination?

A

You can’t! They have a duodenum, jejunum, and ileum, but no visible distinction between each. They also lack a cecum and ileocolonic valve.

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32
Q

Which virus, for which Macaque primates are the natural host, is a well-documented cause of fatal neurotropic infections in humans?

A

Herpes V virus (simian herpesvirus)

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33
Q

Antibiotic-associated enterotoxaemia in guinea pigs is a sequela of intestinal overgrowth of which bacterium?

A

Clostridium difficile

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34
Q

The presence of eosinophilic intranuclear inclusions in respiratory and conjunctival epithelium is pathognomonic for which disease of chickens?

A

Infectious laryngotracheitis

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35
Q

Why is heparin the preferred anticoagulant in birds and reptiles as opposed to EDTA?

A

The blood from some birds and reptiles hemolyzes when collected in EDTA.

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36
Q

What are the veterinary terms for the crop and the gizzard in birds?

A

Crop: Ingulvies (Jabot)
Gizzard: Ventriculus

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37
Q

The operculum of fish reared in captivity is often deformed. How would this affect the health of the fish?

A

Respiration would be impaired, and the gills would be more susceptible to infection, parasitism and physical damage (the operculum is the covering of the gills of a fish).

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38
Q

Which gastrointestinal disease of ferrets if classically associated with prolapsed rectum and tenesmus?

A

Proliferative bowel disease

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39
Q

An adult box turtle has a circumscribed, firm subcutaneous swelling in the cranial neck, ventral and caudal to the eye. The diet is not nutritionally balanced. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Aural abscess

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40
Q

The dermatophyte most commonly isolated from guinea pigs and chinchillas is:

A

Trichophyton mentagrophytes

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41
Q

The spirochete Treponema paraluiscuniculi is the causative organism of which venereal disease?

A

Rabbit syphilis or vent disease

42
Q

What is the most common cause of diabetes mellitus in ferrets?

A

Iatrogenic. Usually secondary to pancreatectomy to treat insulinoma.

43
Q

What is the causative agent of proliferative ileitis of hamsters?

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

44
Q

Which common tumor of mice has an incidence as high as 70% in some strains?

A

Mammary tumor

45
Q

At what age are guinea pigs sexually mature?

A

2 months of age in females, and 3 months of age in males.

46
Q

What is the cause of ‘‘slobbers’’ in chinchillas?

A

Molar malocclusion

47
Q

Which pocket pet is predisposed to the development of pregnancy toxemia?

A

Guinea pig

48
Q

How is ringtail - a condition characterized by annular constrictions on the tail of rats - prevented?

A

By ensuring that ambient humidity is always at least 50%

49
Q

Which infectious disease of rabbits can present with sudden death and eyelid edema?

A

Myxomatosis

50
Q

This oral tumor in prairie dogs may be associated with maloccluded incisors and dyspnea.

A

Odontoma

51
Q

What does the term ‘‘ectotherm’’ mean, and is this a term that applies to reptiles?

A

It means that the body temperature depends on the environment.
Yes, this description applies to reptiles (older, synonymous terms: poikilotherm and cold-blooded)

52
Q

The consistency of rabbit urine is often thick and creamy. Why?

A

Urine contains precipitates of calcium carbonate, reflective of dietary calcium. (Calciuria is present in horses as well, to a certain extent)

53
Q

If not restrained carefully, rabbits can kick and sustain a spinal fracture. At which vertebra does this typically occur?

A

Seventh lumbar vertebra

54
Q

What is the normal gestation period for ferrets?

A

40-42 days

55
Q

Crop, gizzard, proventriculus: in which order do they occur in the avian gastrointestinal tract, and what is the function of each?

A

From oral to aboral:
1) Crop. Storage and softening of food
2) Proventriculus. Luminal secretion of HCl for digestion
3) Gizzard. Grinding and digesting tough food

56
Q

This murine virus causes acute respiratory infection, the clinical signs of which are chattering and respiratory distress.

A

Sendai virus

57
Q

Which type of canine distemper virus vaccine should be used in ferrets?

A) Chick embryo vaccine
B) Canine tissue culture vaccine
C) Ferret tissue culture adapted vaccine

A

A) Chick embryo vaccine
B or C can induce disease and thus should never be used!

58
Q

What is the most common cause of hindlimb ataxia in ferrets?

A

Hypoglycemia caused by insulinoma

59
Q

What is the most commonly diagnosed heart disease of ferrets?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

60
Q

When providing supportive care for ill birds, what is the optimal environmental temperature range in which they should be kept?

A

29 to 32 degrees Celcius (85 to 90 degrees F)

61
Q

Rabbits fed a diet with inadequate fiber are at risk for which gastrointestinal disorder?

A

2 possible answers:
1) Trichobezoars
2) Gastric stasis syndrome

62
Q

Your healthy amphibian patient (e.g. frog or toad) consumes its shed skin. What does this likely indicate?

A

Normal process; failure to do so suggests illness.

63
Q

Bacteria of which genus are most commonly implicated in reptile-to-human zoonoses?

A

Salmonella spp.

64
Q

Which fungus is found in the droppings of starlings and has been associated with systemic mycotic infection in dogs and humans?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

65
Q

Prostatomegaly with secondary urethral obstruction in a middle aged to geriatric castrated male ferret is most likely secondary to what condition?

A

Adrenocortical disease

66
Q

What is the gestation period for guinea pigs?

A

59-72 days (average 68 days)

67
Q

How long should a ferret be fasted prior to elective surgery?

A

6 hours is more than enough to empty the gastrointestinal tract

68
Q

Adult members of a flock of chickens have firm cutaneous nodules or papules, some of which are pustular, coalescing and crusting. Which infection transmitted by biting insects is most likely responsible?

A

Fowlpox virus infection (Poxvirus)

69
Q

What is the main cause of gout in birds?

A

Vitamin A deficiency

70
Q

What is the purpose of the ‘‘soak patch’’, a thin, highly vascular area of skin on the ventrum of anurans (e.g., toads)?

A

Water absorption.
It should not be mistaken for a defect in the skin or an area of infection or septicemia.

71
Q

Despite showing no clinical signs, rabbits or dogs who harbor this bacterium may transmit it to guinea pigs, causing the guinea pig to develop pneumonia.

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica

72
Q

Which oncogenic virus causes cutaneous nodules in rabbits?

A

Shope papillomavirus

73
Q

At age 7-8 months, female guinea pigs undergo a permanent change that predisposes them to dystocia. What is it?

A

Permanent fusion of the pelvic symphysis

74
Q

Which protozoal parasite is associated with vestibular disease in rabbits?

A

Encephalitozoon cuniculi

75
Q

Improper restraint of a gerbil by the tail is classically associated with which resultant injury?

A

Degloving of the tail, also known as tail-slip

76
Q

Restraint of rabbits through elevation by the pinnae (‘‘picking up by the ears’’) is indicated for which medical procedure?

A

None.

77
Q

Describe the gross anatomic structure of the rabbit uterus.

A

Bicornuate, with 2 cervices.

78
Q

What is the name of the gap between the incisors and cheek teeth of rabbits and rodents (and many other species of animals)?

A

Diastema

79
Q

What is the role of brown fat tissue in rodents?

A

Nonshivering thermogenesis during which the fat is metabolized to increase heat production.

80
Q

How many chambers are there in the avian heart?

A

Four: 2 atria and 2 ventricles (just like mammals, but not like reptiles)

81
Q

The owner of a chameleon was unaware of the importance of regularly exposing the animal to unfiltered sunlight. What is the risk of failing to do so?

A

Pathogenic fractures due to inadequate vitamin D3

82
Q

What is the most common cause od swollen limbs in reptile patients?

A

Fibrous osteodystrophy, resulting from metabolic bone disease

83
Q

How many nipples do guinea pigs have?

A

2 - Both male and female guinea pigs have a single pair of nipples located in the inguinal region.

84
Q

Erythema on the chin of ferrets followed by swelling and crus formation around the lips and chin is characteristic of which viral disease?

A

Canine distemper

85
Q

Which infectious agent most commonly causes gastritis in ferrets in North America?

A

Helicobacter mustelae

86
Q

Epithelial hyperplasia is a common cutaneous response to infectious and non infectious agents. Why may this occur more readily in fish compared to mammals?

A

Fish skin lacks a protective keratin layer on the outside of the epidermis.

87
Q

A rabbit presenting with a solitary, nonpainful, subcutaneous swelling with a ‘‘breathing hole’’ is most likely infested with which fly larva?

A

Cuterebra

88
Q

In a mixed-bird flock, only chickens are showing depression, anorexia, diarrhea and some deaths. On necropsy, there are petechiae in muscle and prominent swelling and inflammation of the bursa of Fabricius. Which ACUTE disease is most likely?

A

Acute (very virulent) infectious bursal disease (Birnaviridae)

89
Q

Besides the common indicators of dehydration (enophtalmos, tenting skin, dry mucous membranes), what is an avian specific method of evaluating hydration status?

A

Refill time and turgidity of the basilic (wing) vein

90
Q

What is the most common cause of bilaterally symmetric alopecia in male and female ferrets, beginning at the tail and moving cranially?

A

Hyperadrenocorticism

91
Q

Which clinical signs might make you suspect that a snake has mites?

A

Cutaneous (pruritic or nonpruritic dermatitis, dysecdysis) or systemic (anorexia, failure to thrive, dehydration, persistent soaking in water)

92
Q

Cystic rete ovarii characteristically may cause abdominal distension, anorexia, lethargy, hair loss, and decreased fertility in which rodent species?

A

Guinea pig

93
Q

What is the most common hepatic neoplasm in ferrets?

A

Lymphoma

94
Q

Are most mammary neoplasms in rats and hamsters benign or malignant?

A

Benign (in contrast to mice and gerbils, where most are malignant)

95
Q

This viral cause of fever and upper respiratory disease can be transmitted from human to ferret and ferret to human.

A

Influenza virus (Animal-to-human transmission = ‘‘zoonosis’’; Human-to-animal transmission = ‘‘Anthroponosis’’)

96
Q

A juvenile guinea pig presents with inappetence, reluctance to move, gingival hemorrhages, and loose teeth. Enlarged costochondral junctions are present on radiographs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Hypovitaminosis C (‘‘Scurvy’’)

97
Q

Other than respiration, name one biological function of the gills of fish.

A

1) Excretion of Nitrogenous waste
2) Osmotic and Ionic regulation
3) Acid-Base regulation

98
Q

This cause of stranguria in the male chinchilla is more common in stud animals.

A

Paraphimosis, also known as fur-ring

99
Q

What is the most common species of coccidia found in poultry?

A

Eimeria spp.

100
Q

You suspect a chicken died of either lymphoid leukosis or Marek’s disease. There are no tumors of the bursa, but the spleen has diffuse tumors, whose cytology shows lymphoblasts and lymphocytes of various sizes. Which of the 2 diagnoses is more likely?

A

Marek’s disease.
Lymphoid leukosis causes tumors of the bursa of Fabricius in most (more than 95% of) cases, splenic tumors that are mostly focal, and tumor cytology showing lymphoblasts of uniform appearance (clonal origin).