The Hip - Anatomy, Arthritis and Trauma Flashcards

1
Q

What makes up the sacrum?

A

The lower, sacral vertebrae and a bit of the ilium.

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2
Q

What makes up the acetabulum and the Obturator foramen of the pelvis?

A

The acetabulum is formed by the ilium, ischium and pubis and the Obturator foramen is made by just the ischium and pubis.

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3
Q

What can you see looking at the femur posteriorly?

A

A posterior view of the femur shows the head, then neck then greater and lesser trochanter separated by the intertrochanteric crest (intertrochanteric line anteriorly). The gluteal tuberosity, from the greater trochanter runs down to make the linear aspera with medial and lateral lips.

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4
Q

Name some bony landmarks of the ilium.

A

Iliac crest, anterior superior iliac spine, posterior superior iliac spine, posterior inferior iliac spine and anterior inferior iliac spine and the iliac fossa (medial).

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5
Q

Where is the ischial tuberosity, in relation to the lesser sciatic notch and the ischial spine?

A

The ischial tuberosity is later,a posterior. Superior to the ischial tuberosity is the lesser sciatic notch and then the ischial spine. The ischium is generally posterior to the pubis.

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6
Q

The inferior and superior pubic rami are either side of what?

A

Either side of the pubic tubercule (pubic symphysis when viewed medially).

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7
Q

Where is there articulation of the pelvis?

A

Articulation at the pubic symphysis at interpubic disk with some movement. Also articulation at the sacroiliac joint and the hip joint (deepened by acetabular labrum).

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8
Q

Blood supply:
The external iliac artery becomes the femoral vein when it passes under the _________ ________ then has which branches (?) before going passing through the adductor hiatus in adductor ________. The _______ saphenous vein is medial and the ______ saphenous vein is lateral. The great saphenous vein is outside the _______ _____ before it drains into the femoral vein. Tibial veins go to ___________vein which goes to the femoral vein (joined by internal deep femoral vein).

A
Inguinal ligament
Branches: deep artery of thigh/profundus femoris, medial (supplies head and neck of femur) and lateral circumflex arteries and then various perforating arteries
Magnus
Great
Small
Fascia lata
Popliteal
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9
Q

Where do the 3 main nerves pass in the thigh?

A

The femoral nerve (L2-4 knee extension), passes under the inguinal ligament and is lateral in the femoral triangle.
The Obturator nerve (L2-4 hip adduction) passes through the Obturator foramen.
The Sciatic nerve (L4-S3) is big and passes medial and posterior.

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10
Q

The ball and socket hip joint has a great range of movement, but needs to be stabilised by ligaments, which ones (intracapsular and extracapsular)?

A

Intracapsular: ligament of the head of the femur (acetabular fossa to fovea of femur), which encloses a branch of Obturator artery (artery to the head of the femur).
Extracapsular (continuous with capsule) 3: Iliofemoral ligament (anterior iliac spine to intertrochanteric line, Y shaped, prevents hyperextension), Ischiofemoral (posterior body of ischium to greater trochanter, spiral, prevents excessive extension) and Pubofemoral (superior pubic rami to intertrochanteric line, triangular, prevents excessive abduction and extension).

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11
Q

Bearing in mind that the hip joint is stabilised by the 3 thickenings of the capsule and ligamentum Teres (intracapsular), what are the ranges of motion possible?

A
Flexion: 70-140 degrees,
Extension: 4-15 degrees,
Adduction: 20 degrees,
Abduction: 30 degrees,
Internal rotation: 70 degrees and 
External rotation: 90 degrees.
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12
Q

What are the 2 primary hip flexors? Describe them.

A

Psoas major - lumbar vertebrae to lesser trochanter - anterior rami of L1-3.
Iliacus - iliac fossa to lesser trochanter - femoral nerve.
Iliopsoas assists in lateral rotation.

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13
Q

Name and describe 2 assisting hip flexors (assisting Iliopsoas) that start with p and r.

A

Pectineus - base of femoral triangle - pectineal line on anterior pelvis to pectineal line on posterior - femoral nerve (and branch from Obturator) - also adducts.
Rectus femoris - one of the quadriceps - ilium just superior to acetabulum to patella by quadriceps femoris tendon (runs straight down) - also extends the knee - femoral nerve.

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14
Q

Name and describe 2 assisting hip flexors (assisting Iliopsoas) that start with s and t.

A

Sartorius - longest muscle, runs inferomedially and is superficial from anterior superior iliac spine to medial surface of tibia - femoral nerve.
Tensor fascia lata - gluteal muscle - also abducts and internally, rotates (and tenses fascia lata) - from the iliac crest it inserts into the anterior aspect of the iliotibial tract (1/3 down thigh) and gluteal tuberosity of femur (longitudinal thickening of fascia) - superior gluteal nerve.

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15
Q

Describe the gluteal muscle that is used for hip extension.

A

Gluteus maximus starts at the gluteal/posterior surface of the ilium, sacrum and coccyx then slopes down at a 45 degree angle to insert into the iliotibial tract and gluteal tuberosity of the femur - inferior gluteal nerve - only used when force is required e.g. In running or climbing - and can laterally rotate.

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16
Q

Hamstrings:
Innervated by _______ N. _________ ________ is the most lateral from ischial tuberosity of pelvis and linea aspera of femur and inserts onto the head of fibula - flexes at the knee. The _____ head innervated by the ______ N. and the _____ head by the ______ _______ N.

A

Sciatic
Biceps femoris
Long - tibial
Short - common fibular

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17
Q

Semitendinosus and semimembranosus are both hamstring muscles which flex the knee, medially rotate and are innervated by the tibial nerve, what’s the difference?

A

Semitendinosus runs from the ischial tuberosity to the medial surface of the tibia. It covers the more medial semimembranosus , which comes more superiorly from the ischial tuberosity and runs to the medial condyle of the tibia.

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18
Q

Describe the 2 hip abductors.

A

Gluteus medius is fan shaped and runs from the gluteal surface of the ileum to the lateral surface of the greater trochanter; it also medially rotates and during locomotion, secures the pelvis to prevent a drop in the contralateral limb.
Gluteus minimus originates from the ilium and converges to form a tendon attaching to the anterior greater trochanter. It has the same movements and they’re both innervated by the superior gluteal nerve.

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19
Q

Name 2 muscles in the thigh that adduct it, excluding the ‘adductor’ muscles.

A

Pectineus and gracillis.

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20
Q

Explain the adductor muscle with a dual function.

A

Adductor Magnus lies to the posterior of the medial compartment. The half of it that’s a hamstring part goes from the ischial tuberosity to the adductor tubercule and medial supracondylar line of the femur, is innervated by the tibial nerve and also extends the thigh. The adductor half comes from the inferior rami of the pubis and rami of the ischium to the linea aspera and is innervated by the Obturator nerve and also flexes. Both adduct.

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21
Q

Both the Adductor longus and the adductor brevis adduct and are innervated by the Obturator nerve, how can you distinguish between them?

A

The Adductor longus partially covers the others and makes up the medial border of the femoral triangle. It comes from the pubis, fans and then inserts into the linea aspera and medially rotates.
The adductor brevis lies between the anterior posterior divisions of the Obturator nerve, coming from the body of the pubis and inferior pubic rami to the linea aspera, proximal to Adductor longus.

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22
Q

Gracillis is the most __________ and medial in the medial compartment of the thigh. It crosses the hip and the _____ and can be used in ____________. It runs from the __________ rami and body of the pubis, ___________ vertically and attaches to the medial surface of the ______ between the _________ (anterior) and _____________ (posterior). It is innervated by the __________ N. and as well as ________, flexes at the knee.

A
Superficial
Knee
Transplants
Inferior
Descends
Tibia
Sartorius
Semimembranosus
Obtrurator
Adducting
23
Q

Which muscles are responsible for medial/internal rotation and when?

A

Mainly gluteus medius and minimus. They neutralise the natural effect of lateral rotation of the hip joint with extension.
It is not usually performed against resistance and is weaker than external rotation. It is assisted by semimembranosus and semitendinosus, tensor fascia lata and the hip adductors.

24
Q

Which muscles are responsible for lateral/external rotation and when?

A

It is a natural movement in human gait to accomodate pelvic rotation. The piriformis is the most superior of the deep gluteal muscles, from the anterior surface of the sacrum travelling inferolaterally through the greater Sciatic foramen to the greater trochanter. Supplied by the nerve to the piriformis, it also abducts.

25
Q

Name the 5 deep gluteal muscles.

A

The piriformis, the Obturator internus, the superior gemellus and the inferior gemellus (the Gemelli) and quadrator femoris.

26
Q

The _________ ________ makes up the lateral wall of the pelvic cavity. It goes from the pubis and ischium and the Obturator foramen, through the lesser Sciatic foramen to the greater trochanter and is inserted onto the greater trochanter. It may abduct and is innervated by the nerve to the ________ ________.

A

Obturator internus.

27
Q

The Gemelli are 2 triangular, narrow muscles separated by the tendon of __________ ________. The superior G. comes from the ______ ______ and is supplied by the nerve to the __________ __________, while the inferior G. comes from the _______ ______ and is supplied by the nerve to _________ ________ - it also abducts.

A
Obturator internus
Ischial spine
Obturator internus 
Ischial tuberosity
Quadratus femoris
28
Q

The quadrator femoris, innervated by the nerve to the quadrator femoris, is a flat, ______ muscle, that is the most _________ of the deep gluteal muscles. It originates from the lateral side of the _______ _______ and inserts into the quadrate tuberosity on the ______________ ________.

A

Square
Inferior
Ischial tuberosity
Intertrochanteric crest

29
Q

What are the different types of arthritis?

A

Osteoarthritis is the most common, but there’s also post traumatic, inflammatory (RA) or that secondary to a hip disease etc.

30
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

A

A degenerative joint disease. A clinical syndrome of joint pain with functional limitation and reduced QoL. It affects the hips, knees, small joints of hands etc. A clinical disease of the musculoskeletal system without systemic involvement. Mostly non inflammatory at synovial joints, without ankylosis (bone fusion).

31
Q

What are the 2 types of osteoarthritis?

A

Primary osteoarthritis has an unknown aetiology. The cause of secondary osteoarthritis is known: trauma, previous joint disorders, developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH), infection, inflammatory (RA), metabolic (Gout), haematological (Haemophilia) or endocrine.

32
Q

Name some risk factors of osteoarthritis.

A

Obesity, past injury of joint, occupational factors and genetics.

33
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of osteoarthritis?

A

Joint pain, Crepitus (grinding), joint deformity, osteophytes, stiffness.
Wear and tear leads to bone on bone contact (no cartilage cushion), soreness and swelling.

34
Q

How is Rheumatoid Arthritis different from osteoarthritis?

A

May happen at any age, is rapid (weeks to months), symmetric polyarthritis (OA will be originally asymmetric and may go from mono to poly), small joints more affected, fatigue, fever and night sweats.

35
Q

SONS outlines the 4 cardinal signs of osteoarthritis on an X-ray, what does it stand for?

A

Subchondral sclerosis,
Osteophytes,
Narrowing of the joint space and
Subchondrial cysts.

36
Q

What is the primary prevention of osteoarthritis?

A

Regular exercise, weight control and prevention of trauma.

37
Q

What is the aim of treatment for arthritis?

A

Pain relief, preservation/restoration of joint function and education.

38
Q

What are the risks associated with a hip replacement?

A

Dislocation, leg length discrepancy, infection, DVT, fracture, loosening of components and future surgery as a result.

39
Q

What does the femoral triangle contain and what’s a fascia iliaca block used for?

A

NAVEL: femoral nerve, artery and vein (in sheath), empty space in case of distension and lymphatics.
Fascia iliaca block is for pain relief.

40
Q

Which structures in the buttock must you be careful because of and why?

A

The superior gluteal artery (running with the nerve) is big enough to exsanguinate from and the Sciatic nerve immediately behind the hip is potentially vulnerable if there’s a fracture dislocation of the acetabulum, so you must inject the upper lateral quadrant of the buttock.

41
Q

What is the use of the femoral nerve (motor and sensory functions)?

A

Innervates the anterior thigh muscles that flex at the hip (iliopsoas, sartorius, pectineus) and extend the knee (quadriceps femoris).
It has cutaneous branches to the anteromedial thigh (anterior cutaneous branches of the femoral N.) and the medial side of the leg and foot (saphenous N.).

42
Q

What is the use of the Obturator nerve (motor and sensory functions)?

A

Innervates the medial/adductor compartment of the thigh.

Cutaneous branches innervate the skin of the medial thigh.

43
Q

What is the use of the Sciatic nerve (motor and sensory functions)?

A

Innervates the muscles of the posterior thigh (+hamstring part of the adductor Magnus) and indirectly innervates muscles of the leg and foot.
Indirectly has sensory functions via its terminal branches - skin of the lateral leg, heel and both surfaces of the foot.

44
Q

What complication often arises with extracapsular fractures of the hip?

A

Displacement.

45
Q

What complication may arise with a fracture to the proximal femur?

A

May cut off the blood supply from the medial circumflex femoral artery, which supplies the head of the femur with anastomoses. Avascular necrosis may lead to fixation failure.

46
Q

How is possible avascular necrosis from a fractured proximal femur treated?

A

The head will be replaced with a hemiarthroplasty, but screws are used if the patient is young.

47
Q

The risk of avascular necrosis is much less the fracture is intertrochanteric, rather than subcapital, so what is employed to help it heal.

A

Compression screws/dynamic hip screws, which provide stability for union and allows mobility, which encourages bony callous formation.

48
Q

What are the different types of femur neck fracture and how is displacement classed?

A

Subcapital is immediately after the head, then cervical, then basicervical - ask is it intracapsular, is it displaced?
Garden’s Classification, gives classes 1-4, becoming more likely to involve avascular necrosis.

49
Q

What insult to the femur would cause leg shortening and external rotation?

A

Intertrochanteric fracture of the femur. Strong flexors, extensors and adductors can pull upwards and iliopsoas causes external rotation now the shaft is moving separately to the joint.

50
Q

In posterior hip dislocation, what changes are likely to be seen on the leg and why?

A

Shortening of the legs, as strong flexors, extensors and adductors can pull up and internal/medial rotation from the anterior parts of the gluteus medius and minimus pulling on the greater trochanter.

51
Q

In a femoral shaft fracture, which direction are the pieces likely to go?

A

The proximal shaft will most likely shift anterior.

52
Q

What are the causes of fractures?

A

Abnormal force to normal/abnormal tissues and bones or normal for to abnormal tissue and bone.

53
Q

What tool is used to predict 30 day mortality from a hip fracture?

A

The Nottingham hip fracture score.