Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biology 1 & 2 > the cell cycle, cell growth, death and differentiation > Flashcards

the cell cycle, cell growth, death and differentiation Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

define the cell cycle

A

the cycle of stages that take place in a cell as it grows and divides to produce new daughter cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

define the three components that new cells are needed constantly for

A
  1. Growth and development
  2. Maintenance and repair
  3. Reproduction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

define growth and development

A

all humans begin as a single cell: from there we replicate rapidly, becoming an embryo, foetus, and then a baby. As we grow larger, our cells dont become larger. Instead, we are simply made of more cells. Therefore, for a multicellular organism to grow and develop, it is important that cells replicate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

define maintenance and repair

A

cells are constantly dying as they age or become more damaged. Cell replication allows these cells to be replicated, ensuring the proper functioning of an organism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

define reproduction

A

prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells replicate to reproduce. When they replicate, they are enlarging their population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

prokaryotic cells cycle consists of _________. This is ________

A

prokaryotic cells cycle consists of binary fission. This is the asexual reproduction process by which one prokaryotic cell divides into two genetically identical daughter cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

define asexual reproduction

A

a method of reproduction that produces genetically identical cells without the fusion of gametes (sex cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

define plasmid

A

a small, circular loop of DNA that is seperate from a chromosomes, typically found in bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

define septum

A

a dividing wall formed during binary fission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

define the first step of binary fission

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

define the second step of binary fission

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

define the third step of binary fission

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

define the fourth step of binary fission

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

define the fifth step of binary fission

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

cytokinesis definition

A

the division of the cytoplasm and even distribution of organelles as the plasma membrane pinches in the formation of two seperate nuclei, producing two daughter cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

recall the three stages of the eukaryotic cell cycle

A
  1. Interphase
  2. Mitosis
  3. Cytokenesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

define the interphase

A

the interphase is the longest stage of the eukaryotic cell cyclev where the cell synthesises the necessary DNA, proteins and organelles required for growth and replication. At this time, DNA in the nucleus exists as long chromatin threads instead of discrete chromosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Identify the three substages of the interphase

A
  1. G1 phase
  2. S phase
  3. G2 phase
    - If further cell replication is not required, the cell can exit the cycle during the G1 phase and enter the G0 (resting phase)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

define the G0/ Gap phase

A

cells that are not required to replicate rest in the G0 phase. Cells in G0 are either quiescent or terminally differentiated. While quiescent cells are dormant and have the ability to re-enter the cell cycle, terminally differentiated cells remain in G0 indefinitely.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

define quiescent cells

A

dormant cells which can re-enter the cell cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

define terminally differentiated cells

A

cells that have fully specialised and no longer replicate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

define the G1 phase

A

cells grow by increasing the volume of its cytosol, synthesising proteins for DNA replication and replicating its organelles. At the end of the G1 phase, the cell can either proceed to the S phase or exit the cell cycle and enter the G0 phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

fill in

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

define chromosome

A

a structure composed of DNA tightly wrapped around histone proteins. Carries genetic information (genes) of a cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

define sister chromatids

A

the two identical halves of a replicated chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

define chromatin

A

chromosomes (DNA and proteins) that have been unwound and loosely packed during the interphase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

define the G2 phase

A

during the G2/S phase, the cell replicates its DNA turning one chromosome into two genetically identical sister chromatids. Similarities to G1 phase in that it involves: increasing the volume of the cytosol, synthesizing proteins in preparation for mitosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

define mitosis

A

mitosis is the second stage of the eukaryotic cell cycle and involves the seperation of the newly replicated chromosomes into two new Genetically identical nuclei.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

identify the 4 stages of mitosis

A
  1. Prophase
  2. Metaphase
  3. Anaphase
  4. Telophase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

define prophase

A

chromosomes supercoil/condense and become visible, centrioles move apart to opposite poles and spindle fibres begin to form. Nucleur membrane begins to breakdown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

define metaphase

A

chromosomes appear as two sister chromatids joined at the centromere, chromosomes lines up at the equator, microtubules of spindle attach to centromere.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

define anaphase

A

microtubules/spindle fibres contract, splitting the centromere and pulling sister chromatids to opposite ends of the cell. Chromatids are now considered new chromosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

define telophase

A

the chromosomes densely pack together at either end of the cell and new nucleur membranes form, producing two genetically identical nuclei. The spindle fibres disintegrate and the chromosomes decondense.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

identify the stage of mitosis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

identify the stage of mitosis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

identify the stage of mitosis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

identify the stage of mitosis

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

define chromosome condensation

A

the shortening and thickening of chromosomes, as DNA is tightly wrapped around histone proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

define centrioles

A

cylindrical structures composed of protein which form the spindle fibres during mitosis and meiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

define spindle fibres

A

structures which aid in the movement of chromosomes to either pole of the cell during mitosis or meiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

define equator

A

the centre line between oppposite ends of the cell that the chromosomes line up on during metaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

define cleavage furrow

A

an indentation of the plasma membrane during cytokenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

define cell plate

A

a component involved in the formation of a cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

define cytokenesis in animal cells

A

this occurs when a cleavage furrow develops and pinches the plasma membrane into two cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

fill in

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

fill in

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

define cytokenesis in plant cells

A

because they have a cell wall, a cell plate first forms at the equator before seperating into two cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

describe cell cycle regulation

A

if errors are detected at checkpoints the cell either repairs itself of will undergo programmed cell death - apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what does apoptosis ensure

A

that malfunctioning, damaged and cells that are no longer needed are removed from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

recall the three checkpoints in the eukaryotic cell cycle

A
  1. G1 checkpoint
  2. G2 checkpoint
  3. Metaphase checkpoint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

define the G1 checkpoint

A

verifies that the cell has grown the correct size, has synthesised enough proteins for DNA replication, and checks if the DNA has been damaged during mitosis and cell growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

define the G2 checkpoint

A

ensures that DNA has replicated properly in the S phase, and that the cell has enough resources for mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

define the metaphase checkpoint

A

the cell checks the formation of the spindle fibres. If the chromosomes are lined up in the correct location, fibres attach then the cell proceeds to anaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

describe possible problems in the checkpoints

A

checkpoints in the cell cycle detect and repair cell and DNA damage before the cell replicates. But mutagens/ DNA mutations or individual genetics can cause checkpoints to malfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

define apoptosis

A

the controlled death of cells in the body. Also known as programmed cell death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

recall the two pathways for apoptosis

A
  1. Mitochondrial pathway
  2. Death receptor pathway
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

define the mitochondrial pathway

A

the pathway of apoptosis which is initiated by the detection of internal cellular damage. Also known as the intrinsic pathway,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

intrinsic pathway definition

A

internal pathway triggered by internal signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

define the death receptor pathway

A

the pathway of apoptosis which is initiated by the detection of external cellular damager. Also known as the extrinsic pathway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

extrinsic pathway definition

A

external pathway triggered by signals external to the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

define caspase enzymes

A

catalysts that cleave/ split specific intracellular proteins during apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

define Cyrochrome C

A

a protein embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

define blebbing

A

the bulging of the plasma membrane to form apoptic bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

define apoptotic bodies

A

vesicles containing cell contents that are released from a dying cell during apoptosis and engulfed by phagocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

phagocyte definition

A

a cell of the immune system responsible for engulfing and destroying harmful micro-organisms and foreign material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

define phagocytosis

A

endocytosis of solid material or food particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

recall the 4 steps of apoptosis

A
  1. Activation of Caspase
  2. Digestion of cell contents
  3. Cell shrinks
  4. Membrane blebbing and breakage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

define step 1 of apoptosis

A

the mitochondria detect internal DNA damage and release Cytochrome C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

define step 2 of apoptosis

A

caspases cleave/split intracellular proteins, which leads to the breakdown of organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

define step 3 of apoptosis

A

the cell and nucleus shrink as intracellular material is broken down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

define step 4 of apoptosis

A

as the cytoskeleton is digested, the structural integrity of the cell is weakened. The cell warps and breaks down into membrane-enclosed vesicles known as apoptotic bodies which contain the broken down intracellular material.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what happens after apopotosis

A

phagocytes engulf and digest the free floating apoptotic bodies during phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

define necrosis

A

necrosis is the unregulated deaths of cells initiated by significant damage which causes the cell to swell, burst, and release cell contents into the surrounding environment. This may lead to inflammation and damage in nearby cell tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what can mutagens do?

A

mutagens such as UV, nucleur radiation or certain chemicals can change the base code of DNA - mutating it. They can make non-functioning or hyper-functioning proteins that dont work or overstimulate the cell cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

define proto-oncogenes

A

responsible for maintaining and promoting the growth and development of cells. A mutated proto-oncogene can become an oncogene, which leads to the uncontrollable growth of cells due to over-stimulation of growth signals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

define tumour surpressor genes

A

negative regulators of the cell cycle that can inhibit cell growth and promote apoptosis in damaged cells. When they mutate the cell cycle often remains unregulated, resulting in the rapid unimpended production of cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

define tumour

A

a mass of abnormal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

define benign tumor

A

a tumor that lacks the ability to spread throughout other tissues and organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

define malignant tumor

A

abnormal cells with the ability to invade nearby tissue and migrate to other parts of the body. Also known as cancerous cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

define cancer

A

a disease caused by the uncontrolled replication of cells with the ability to migrate to other parts of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

define metastasis

A

the migration of tumor cells from the primary tumor site to distant parts of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

recall the five characteristics of tumors

A
  1. Self sufficiency
  2. Antigrowth deactivation
  3. Increased survival
  4. Blood supply formation
  5. Tissue invasion and metastisis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

define self sufficiency

A

They can replicate without signals to initate cell replication by either producing their own chemicals, or by permanently activating cell growth and replication pathways.

84
Q

define antigrowth deactivation

A

mechanisms to prevent cell replication when its not needed can be disabled, allowing cell replication to initiate regardless.

85
Q

define increased survival

A

apoptosis doesnt function correctly in tumor cells due to mutations in the regulation of the cell cycle. Also capable of replicating immortaly, theoretically allowing them to divide forever - enhancing their survival.

86
Q

blood supply formation

A

tumor cells can form new blood vessels when growing to maintain adequate nutrients and oxygen supply

87
Q

define tissue invasion and metastisis

A

when benign tumors become cancerous they are capable of invading nearby layers of tissue and migrating to other parts of the body away from the primary tissue site

88
Q

define teratogens

A

anything that occurs in embryonic development to disrupt normal cell development

89
Q

stem cell definition

A

undifferentiated cells with the capability of differentiating into specialised cells

90
Q

differentiation meaning

A

the development of a stem cell into a specilaised cell with a particular function

91
Q

specialised definition

A

cells which serve a unique, particular function

92
Q

each cell begins __________- and through the process of ___________ they develop into ________ cells with a particular function

A

each cell begins as a stem cell and through the process of differentiation they develop into specialised cells with a particular function

93
Q

recall the two properties of stem cells

A
  1. Self renewal
  2. Potency
94
Q

define self renewal

A

stem cells have the capacity to replicate without disrupting their ability to differentiate by producing both a differentiated cell and a copy of themselves as they replicate

95
Q

define potency

A

stem cells are undifferentiated cells which can give rise to differentiated cells with a specialised function. Potency measures the capacity of a cell to differentiate into different cell types.

96
Q

recall the three types of stem cells

A
  1. Totipotent
  2. Pluripotent
  3. Multipotent
97
Q

define totipotent

A

stem cells that can differentiate into any cell type

98
Q

define pluripotent

A

stem cells that can differentiate into multiple cell types

99
Q

define multipotent

A

stem cells that can differentiate into a limited number of specialized cell types belonging to a specific tissue or organs

100
Q

recall the three types of the multipotent germ layers

A
  1. Ectoderm
  2. Mesoderm
  3. Endoderm
101
Q

define ectoderm

A

the outermost of the three primary germ layers of an embryo that is the source of various tissues and structures– become nerves and skin

102
Q

define mesoderm

A

the middle of the three primary germ layers of an embryo that is the source of especially muscles, blood and bone cells

103
Q

define endoderm

A

the innermost of the three basic layers of an embryo that forms the epithelium of the digestive tract and the parts of the body formed from it – becomes internal organs

104
Q

define organism

A

a living thing made up of one or more cells

105
Q

cell definition

A

the smallest functional unit of a living organism

106
Q

define tissue

A

a cluster of cells which perform a shared function

107
Q

define organ

A

the combination of tissues and cells into a distinct structure that performs a specific function

108
Q

define system

A

a collection of organs and tissues that perform specific functions necessary for survival

109
Q

list the the five different levels of increasing cell complexity

A
  1. Cells
  2. Tissues
  3. Organ
  4. System
  5. Organism
110
Q

describe vascular plants

A

plants that contain vascular tissue which is responsible for transporting water and minerals throughout the plant. Specialized cells carry out specific functions such as the transport of nutrients and water and aquiring energy via photosynthesis.

111
Q

list the five major organs of vascular plants

A
  1. Leaves
  2. Flowers
  3. Fruit
  4. Stems
  5. Roots
111
Q

define the function of leaves

A

site of gas exchange and responsible for photosynthesis - organised to increase sunlight exposure

112
Q

define the function of flowers

A

the sexual reproduction organs of flowering plants (angiosperms). Grows into fruit follolwing fertilisation

113
Q

define fruit

A

seed bearing structures responsible for the protection of developing seeds and seed dispersal

114
Q

define stem

A

the main body of the plant that provides supports and connects the whole plant

115
Q

define roots

A

the plant organ embedded in the ground. Absorbs water and nutrients from the soil and provides support for the plant

116
Q

recall the three types of plant tissue

A
  1. Dermal tissue
  2. Vascular tissue
  3. Ground tissue
117
Q

define dermal tissue

A

lines the inside of plants, covers and protects

118
Q

define vascular tissue

A

transports water and nutrients around plants

119
Q

define ground tissue

A

the site of photosynthesis, a supporting matrix for the vascular tissue and storage of water and sugars

120
Q

recall the two types of plant systems

A
  1. Root system
  2. Shoot system
121
Q

define root system

A

organ system that is responsible for providing support to the plant and water and nutrient absorption from soil

122
Q

define shoot system

A

organ systems madeup of reproductive organs, stem cells and leaves.

123
Q

define xylem cells

A

responsible for the transport of water and minerals from the roots to the leaves of the plant

124
Q

phloem cells definition

A

responsible for the transport of sugars and nutrients throughout the plant

125
Q

define root hair cells

A

a cell with hair-like extensions that absorbs water and minerals from the soil into the root

126
Q

transpiration definition

A

the evaporation of water from leaves and the movement of liquid up the xylem in plants. A passive process

127
Q

how is water drawn up the xylem through the plant from the roots to the leaves

A

as water evaporates from the stomata of the leaf, the air pressure in the lead becomes lower than the pressure within the roots. This pressure gradually creates a force that allows for the water to be drawn up the xylem

128
Q

define guard cells

A

a pair of curved cells that surround the stoma, regulating the opening and closing of the stoma

129
Q

define stoma

A

small pores on the leafs surface that opens and closes to regulate gas exchange

130
Q

what are the five factors that affect transpiration

A
  1. Temperature
  2. Light
  3. Humidity
  4. Wind
  5. Water availability
131
Q

define how temperature affects transpiration

A

higher temperatures, more water evaporates from the leaves

132
Q

define how light affects transpiration

A

in light conditions the stroma can open to increase the amount of CO₂ absorbed for photosynthesis, further increasing the amount of water lost to transpirtation

133
Q

define how humidity affects transpiration

A

at any temperature, air has a maximum amount of water vapour that can remain dissolved within it. As the humidity increases, less water can evaporate into the air, and at 100% relative humidity, water cannot evaporate at all and transpiration cannot occur

134
Q

define how wind can affect transpiration

A

on calm days, the water released from stromata stays near the leaf, creating a humid layer of air on the leafs surface. On windy days this humid layer is blown away, encouraging water vapour to exit the leaf.

135
Q

define how water availability can affect transpiration

A

when water availability is high the roots absorb more water. The plant can then afford to increase the rate of transpiration and lose more water

136
Q

define translocation

A

the movement of sucrose around the plant from the source (where it is produced) to the sink (tissue of the plant where substances are stored) and active process

137
Q

define source

A

a tissue of a plant where substances are produced or enter the plant

138
Q

define sink

A

a tissue of a plant where substances are stored

139
Q

define mechanical digestion

A

food is broken into smaller pieces, increasing the surface area to volume ratio so that it can be chemically digested (does not alter the chemical nature of food) through chewing, peristalsis, or bile

140
Q

define chemical digestion

A

the process of digestion by which food is chemically altered through chemical reactions by digestive enzymes and stomach acid into smaller molecules

141
Q

recall the 11 organs of the digestive system

A
  1. Mouth
  2. Oesophagus
  3. Stomach
  4. Small intestine
  5. Pancreas
  6. Liver
  7. Gall bladder
  8. Large intestine
  9. Rectum
  10. Anus
  11. Salivary gland
142
Q

define the mouth

A

mechanically digests food by mastication/ chewing. Additionally the salivary amylase in the saliva chemically digests food. Food that is ready to be swallowed is called the bolus.

143
Q

define the oesophagus

A

a smooth tube that pushes food to the stomach by perstalttic waves of smooth muscle (peristalsis) that surround the epithelial lining.

144
Q

define the stomach

A

churns food with pepsin, a protease enzyme that begins the chemical digestion of food. Pepsin has an optimal pH of 1.5 and thus the stomach secretes hydrochloric acid

145
Q

define the small intestine

A

produces intestinal juice containing protease, amylase, lipase and mucus and thus plays a big role in the chemical digestion and absorption of food - justifying its large surface area

146
Q

define the pancrease

A

secretes pancreatic juice into the duodenum. Pancreatic juice contains amylase, lipase and protease and bicarbonate ions which neutralise the pH of the food leaving the stomach

147
Q

define the liver

A

filtration of blood from the intestine, also detoxifies chemicals and metabolised drugs. Secretes bile stored in the gall bladder - mechanical digestion

148
Q

define the gall bladder

A

concentrates bile which emulsifies lipids, increasing their surface area to volume ration (mechanical digestion), so that they can be effectively digested by lipases.

149
Q

define the large intestine

A

absorption of water and storage of the remainder of the waste material which is stored in the rectum for defecation. Has many bacteria and archaea which perform diverse functions such as metabolising acids and chemicals and producing vitamins B and K.

150
Q

define rectum

A

final area of the large intestine that stores faeces for elimination

151
Q

define anus

A

the end of the digestive tract where faeces are expelled from the body

152
Q

define salivary glands

A

collection of cells that produce saliva and secrete it into the oral cavity

153
Q

recall the four types of tissue in the digestive system

A
  1. Muscle tissue
  2. Nervous system
  3. Connective tissue
  4. Epithelial tissue
154
Q

define digestive system

A

the collection of specialised tissues and organs responsible for the digestion of food and absorption of nutrients

155
Q

define digestion

A

the chemical process of breaking down large organic molecules into a size that can pass across the plasma membrane and into the body

156
Q

define bile

A

a fluid made and released by the liver and stored in the gall bladder. Mechanically emulsifies fats down into smaller pieces

157
Q

define villus

A

finger-like projections from the surface of membranous structures to increase the surface area

158
Q

define microvillus

A

microscopic projections on the surface of the cell that increases cellular surface area

159
Q

catbohydrates a broken down into….. by…

A

carbohydrates are broken down into sugars and/or monosacarrides by enzymes like amylase, sucrase-isomaltase, maltase and lactase

160
Q

proteins are broken down into… by….

A

proteins are broken down into amino acids by enzymes like pepsin, trypsin and peptidase

161
Q

fats are broken down into… by….

A

fats are broken into fatty acids and glycerol by the enzyme lipase

162
Q

enzyme definition

A

Protein cataylsts that speed up chemical reactions by lowerring the activation energy without getting used up in the reaction

163
Q

substrate definition

A

substance being acted on by enzyme

164
Q

product definition

A

result of reaction with enzyme

165
Q

define the two methods of enzyme binding

A
  1. lock and key method: the active site of an enzyme is often a surface groove which fits the substrate perfectly.
  2. Induced fit model: enzymes and substrate will alter their shape slightly so that they can fit perfectly. If the enzyme does not change, it is incapable as acting as a catalyst.
166
Q

denatured definition

A

when the active site of an enzyme is altered to the point where it can no longer attach to the substrate, it is said to be denatured and therefore cannot catalyse a reaction. The folded protein becomes unfolded and is permanent.

167
Q

define the excretory system

A

a collection of organs and tissues that remove waste and material from the body

168
Q

excrete definition

A

to seperate and eliminate waster from the body

169
Q

kidneys definition

A

a pair of bean shaped organs responsible for filtering blood, reabsoribing the useful substances that form the filtrate and then secreting the waste. Produces urine.

170
Q

define urine

A

a fluid formed by the kidneys and stored in the bladder that removes excess water, solutes and waste substances.

171
Q

define urea

A

the main nitrogenous product of protein breakdown in mammals. Excreted in urine

172
Q

the liver breaks down …. into… then into….

A

liver breaks down amino acids into ammonia then urea

173
Q

define the nephron

A

a functional unit of the kidneys consisting of the glomerolus and tubule system through which filtrate passes and urine is produced

174
Q

afferent capillary definition

A

incoming capillaries that deliver blood to the glomerulus of nephrons

175
Q

efferent capillaries definition

A

outgoing capillaries that carry blood away from the glomerolus of nephrons

176
Q

where does filtration occur on the nephron?

A

on the bowmans capsule (small molecules will pass through this and enter the glomerolus and then pass through to the proximal convoluted tubule)

177
Q

where does reabsorption take place in the nephron

A

reabsorption of useful molecules takes place in the promixal convoluted tubule

178
Q

what does the loop of henle do in the nephron

A

reabsorbs water, maintains hypertonic conditions within the medulla kidney

179
Q

what does the distal convoluted tubule do in the nephron

A

can reabsorb water and ionsw

180
Q

what does the collecting duct do in the nephron

A

secretes waste, may absorb more water

181
Q

filter definition

A

to pass a substance through a porous material

182
Q

reabsorb meaning

A

to absorb a substance that has undergone filtration

183
Q

filtrate meaning

A

the fluid filtered from blood that passes through the nephron

184
Q

secrete definition

A

a discharge substance from a cell or tissue

185
Q

renal arteries definition

A

arteries that deliver blood from the heart to the kidneys

186
Q
A
187
Q
A
188
Q
A
189
Q

define the endrocrine system

A

a collection of glands in animals responsible for producing hormones that can be transported in the bloodstream to regulate distant organs/cells

190
Q

define gland

A

a group of cells that secretes chemical substances to regions of the body or discharge them into the surroundings.

191
Q

define endocrine glands

A

glands that produce hormones and excrete them directly into the bloodstream, allowing for the communication between cells at a great distance.

192
Q

hormones definition

A

signalling molecules that allow cells within the body to communicate with one another.

193
Q

recall the 3 hormones released by the hypothalamus

A

releases ADH - responsible for regulating water reabsorption into the nephron, oxytocin - controls reproductive system and thyropotin - releases hormones

194
Q

recall the hormone released by the thyroid glands and its response

A

thyroxine, regulation of the rate of cellular metabolism

195
Q

recall the hormone released by the adrenal gland and its response

A

adrenaline, increased heart rate and blood pressure. Increased respiratory rate, increased muscle contractions

196
Q

recall the hormone released by the pancrease and its response

A

Insulin and glucogen , regulation of blood glucose levels

197
Q

recall the 2 hormones released from the ovaries and their response

A

oestrogen, progestrone - sexual development, breast development, regulation of the menstral cycle

198
Q

recall the hormone released from the testes and its response

A

testosterone - sexual development, increased muscle, body hair growth

199
Q

recall the hormone released by the pineal gland and its response

A

Melotonin, regulates aspects of cicadium rhythm

200
Q

define lipid hormones

A

hydrophobic hormones that can directly pass through the plasma membrane and attach onto a specific receptor within a cell

201
Q

define amino-acid and peptide based hormones

A

hydrophilic hormones that cannot diffuse by the phospholipid bilayer

202
Q

define amino acid hormones

A

hydrophillic, dderived from tyrosine

203
Q

define peptide hormones

A

synthesised in the rough ER and are exported out of the cell

204
Q

define transduction

A

convert a signal from one form to another

205
Q

define signal transduction

A

the binding of a hormone to a receptor in the plasma membrane of a cell that elicits a response within a target cell

206
Q

define hormone specificity

A

hormones are specific to particular cell types due to the specificity of the molecule. Hormones bind to receptors on specific cells and cause a response. 1

Biology 1 & 2 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions