The body

Question 1

During what phase of the general adaptation syndrome will a client see progressive increases in muscle size and strength?

Answer 1

The adaptation phase, or resistance phase, generally begins around weeks four through six and represents major muscular adaptations (biochemical, mechanical, and structural). This phase is characterized by progressive increases in muscle size and strength

Question 2

Which hormone promotes triglyceride breakdown to aid in maintaining blood glucose?

Answer 2

Cortisol is a glucocorticoid and plays a major role in maintaining blood glucose during prolonged exercise by promoting protein and triglyceride breakdown. Cortisol is also a major stress hormone and is elevated when the body is under too much stress, either from too much exercise or inadequate regeneration.

Question 3

When blood is flowing through the heart, where does it go after passing through the tricuspid valve?

Answer 3

Blood passes through the tricuspid valve on its way from the right atrium to the right ventricle.

Question 4

The average person’s breathing rate through the nose is equal to 20 to 30 liters per minute while at rest.

Answer 4

Humans normally breathe approximately 5 to 6 liters of air per minute through the nose when at rest, but use the mouth as the primary passageway for air when ventilation is increased to approximately 20 to 30 liters per minute during exercise.

Question 5

What is cardiac output?

Answer 5

The amount of blood pumped during each heartbeat is called the stroke volume. Cardiac output is the product of stroke volume and heart rate, and therefore is defined as the amount of blood pumped per minute.

Question 6

Francine practices hot yoga. The room is 103º F (39º C) and she is in class for 60 minutes. The release of _______________ will help reduce the excretion of water in her urine, thereby helping prevent any further dehydration.

Answer 6

Fluid loss to sweat contributes to a loss of blood volume, which, in turn, triggers the release of antidiuretic hormone, or vasopressin, to help reduce water and sodium losses from the body.

Question 7

Christopher is an endurance athlete. He often gets low blood sugar during his long workouts. Once the liver recognizes the release of glucagon from the pancreas, _______________ is released to help increase his blood sugar levels.

Answer 7

Glucagon stimulates an almost instantaneous release of glucose from the liver and is part of a negative feedback loop in which low blood glucose levels stimulate its release. Glucagon primarily contributes to blood glucose control as exercise progresses and glycogen stores deplete during an exercise bout.

Question 8

During an endurance race, cortisol helps maintain blood glucose levels by promoting the breakdown of _______________ and _______________.

Answer 8

Protein; triglycerides

Cortisol stimulates free fatty acid mobilization from adipose tissue, mobilizes glucose synthesis in the liver, and decreases the rate of glucose utilization by the cells. Cortisol production increases with exercise intensity and with increasing levels of stress placed upon the body’s physiological systems.

Question 9

The increase in heart rate prior to the start of a race is partially due to the release of what hormone?

Answer 9

Epinephrine increases the strength of cardiac contraction, resulting in increased cardiac output. Furthermore, epinephrine affects the central nervous system by promoting a state of arousal and increased alertness to permit “quick thinking” to help cope with the impending stressor (or exercise activity).

Question 10

Gas is exchanged in microscopic air sacs known as _________?

Answer 10

The respiratory system is made up of the nose, nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Together, these structures form a group of passages that filter air and transport it into the lungs. Gas exchange occurs within microscopic air sacs in the lungs called alveoli.

Question 11

The diaphragm is the most important muscle of inspiration.

Answer 11

The lungs rest on top of the most important muscle of inspiration, the diaphragm, which is the only skeletal muscle considered essential for life.

Question 12

What muscles needed to be activated and controlled for breathing when exercise kicks in?

Answer 12

Expiration occurs passively during normal, quiet breathing, requiring no assistance from muscle action. However, during exercise, expiration becomes active. Important muscles of expiration, such as the rectus abdominis, internal obliques, serratus posterior, and internal intercostals, are activated to help pull the rib cage downward and force air from the lungs by squeezing the abdominal organs upward against the diaphragm.

Question 13

Respiratory muscles adapt to training and thus can improve the duration and intensity of exercise.

Answer 13

Regular endurance exercise increases the oxidative capacity of respiratory muscles, which improves respiratory muscle endurance.

Question 14

After air enters the nose and mouth, it is warmed and passed through the _______________?

Answer 14

Air enters the respiratory system and is warmed and passed through the pharynx (throat), and then the larynx (the area of the “Adam’s apple”).

Question 15

Which type of yoga is also known as “power yoga”?

Answer 15

Ashtanga yoga

The asanas in Ashtanga yoga are sequenced in groups of poses that range from moderate to very difficult. The sequence pace and pose difficulty is what often characterizes Ashtanga as “power yoga.”

Question 16

Which term, also the name of a type of yoga, is synonymous with what is also called “serpent power,” or the coiled-up energy contained in the body?

Answer 16

Kundalini

Also called the yoga of awareness, kundalini yoga’s principal purpose is to awaken the serpent power (kundalini, or coiled-up energy) with postures, breath control, chanting, and meditation.

Question 17

Which form of tai chi is the most practiced in the West today?

Answer 17

Yang style

Originated by Yang Luchan in the 1800s, the Yang form is the most widely practiced form in the West today. The original Yang form consists of 108 movements (Yang Long Form); however, the Yang 24-Short Form is a popular modification practiced today.

Question 18

An older adult client who is interested in trying mind-body exercise has decided that tai chi might be the best fit for her needs and abilities. Which form of tai chi would you recommend?

Answer 18

Sun style

Because the sun style involves a higher stance than other forms, it is often the easiest for older adults to learn.

Question 19

Which contemporary form of mind-body exercise involves floor work and as well as work done on a machine called a reformer?

Answer 19

Pilates is based on the idea that there is a core set of postural muscles that help to keep the body balanced and are essential to providing good support to the spine. This method is divided into two modalities, floor/mat work and work on a Reformer, a piece of resistance equipment originally developed by Joseph H. Pilates.

Question 20

Which contemporary form of mind-body exercise includes a moderate-level aerobic component that fosters spontaneity?

Answer 20

Nia

Unlike other mind-body exercise programs, Nia also includes a moderate-level aerobic component to address cardiorespiratory endurance. The aerobic segment is designed to foster creativity and spontaneity rather than strict adherence to standard group movement patterns.

Question 21

One of the means of objectively assessing the success of a mind-body exercise program is to record baseline and serial blood-pressure measurements. Why?

Answer 21

Baseline and serial resting blood pressure measurement is also an accepted outcome measure responsive to four to six weeks of mind-body exercise-especially if the participant has a resting blood pressure in the prehypertension or higher range (i.e., >120/80 mmHg).

Question 22

__________ is the practice of voluntary breath control, consisting of conscious inhalation, retention, and exhalation.

Answer 22

Pranayama

In the yogic and qigong traditions, breathing functions as an intermediary between the mind and body. Pranayama (the practice of voluntary breath control, consisting of conscious inhalation, retention, and exhalation) is often practiced in conjunction with meditation and yoga asanas but can stand by itself as an important mind-body exercise method.

Question 23

Which of the following is NOT a common manifestation of atherosclerosis?

Answer 23

Arrhythmias

Atherosclerosis is the underlying cause of cerebral and peripheral vascular diseases. Manifestations of atherosclerosis include angina, heart attack, stroke, and intermittent claudication.

Question 24

A client’s physician provides the following guideline regarding the intensity of exercise for a new client: “An RPE of 11 to 16 (6 to 20 scale) is the preferred exercise intensity.” With which condition is this client MOST likely coping?

Answer 24

Individuals with type 2 diabetes can exercise at a moderate intensity of 11 to 16 on the 6 to 20 ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) scale. The other three options all require a light to moderate intensity of 9 to 13 on the RPE scale.

Question 25

A male client brings a form from his primary care physician reporting the following test results:

Waist circumference: 41 inchesTriglycerides: 140 mg/dLHDL cholesterol: 38 mg/dLBlood pressure: 128/80 mmHgFasting blood glucose: 93 mg/dL
This client currently has the metabolic syndrome?

Answer 25

No
The metabolic syndrome is defined as the presence of three or more of the following components:

Elevated waist circumference: Men >40 inches (102 cm) Women >35 inches (88 cm)Elevated triglycerides: >150 mg/dLReduced HDL cholesterol: MenElevated blood pressure: >130/85 mmHgElevated fasting blood glucose: >100 mg/dL

This client has only two of these components (elevated waist circumference and reduced HDL cholesterol).

Question 26

A client’s physician provides the following guideline regarding the mode of exercise for a new client: “Swimming is the recommended mode of exercise; upper-body resistance-training exercises are not appropriate.” With which of the following conditions is this client MOST likely coping?

Answer 26

Asthma

Swimming may be particularly beneficial for individuals with asthma because it allows them to inhale the moist air just above the surface of the water. For some clients with asthma, upper-body exercises such as arm cranking, rowing, and cross-country skiing may not be appropriate because of the higher ventilation demands.

Question 27

Weightbearing and resistance-training activities are MOST important for clients with which of the following diseases or disorders?

Answer 27

Osteoporosis

For clients with osteoporosis, the mechanical stress associated with weightbearing or resistance-training activities produces strain on bone tissue and stimulates bone deposition and resulting gains in bone mass and strength.

Question 28

For clients with which of the following diseases or disorders is it MOST important to develop a “regular” pattern of activity that does not result in post-activity malaise?

Answer 28

Chronic fatigue syndrome

When working with clients with CFS, the goal is to develop a “regular” pattern of activity that does not result in post-activity malaise. Low-intensity exercise is recommended.

Question 29

How often should low-back exercises be performed in order to yield the maximum benefit?

Answer 29

7 days/week

While there is a common belief that exercise sessions should be performed at least three times per week, it appears that low-back exercises have the most beneficial effect when performed daily.

Question 30

Overweight or obese clients who are seeking to lose weight should perform a MINIMUM of _____ minutes of moderate-intensity exercise each week.

Answer 30

Individuals seeking weight loss should include exercise as a key component of their programs, and overweight and obese adults should accumulate more than 150 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise each week, and when possible, more than 225 minutes per week.

Question 31

What muscles support the subluxation of the humeral head from the glenoid fossa.

Answer 31

The rotator-cuff muscles surround the head of the humerus, with the primary stabilizing function of holding the humeral head in the glenoid fossa. The lack of bone supporting the shoulder joint requires that these muscles and their associated tendons work as stabilizers to prevent subluxation or dislocation of the humeral head from the glenoid fossa.

Question 32

The posterior fibers of the deltoid extend and laterally rotate the humerus. Why is this true

Answer 32

Whereas the anterior fibers flex and internally rotate the humerus, the posterior fibers extend and laterally rotate the humerus.

Question 33

The muscles of the rotator cuff originate on the scapula.

Yes or no

Answer 33

Yes

Question 34

What muscles cause, the teres major to internally rotate the humerus.

Answer 34

The teres major arises from the lower medial portion of the scapula and primarily acts to internally rotate the humerus.

Question 35

What muscle group assists with knee extension.

Answer 35

The quadriceps femoris is the prime mover for knee extension when acting concentrically. The hamstrings are the primary knee flexors.

Question 36

WHy does the sartorius functions at both the hip and knee joints.

Answer 36

The sartorius is the longest muscle in the body, originating from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and inserting onto the medial tibia, just below the knee. This multijoint muscle flexes, abducts, and externally rotates the hip while flexing and internally rotating the knee.

Question 37

Why? Flexion and external rotation at the knee are performed by the biceps femoris.

Answer 37

The hamstrings are referred to as a biarticular group of muscles, producing knee flexion as well as hip extension when acting concentrically. Additionally, the lateral hamstring, the biceps femoris, is an external rotator of the knee.

Question 38

The four quadriceps muscles insertion point work?

Answer 38

Although they originate from different areas, all four quadriceps muscles converge and share one tendon of insertion, the patellar tendon.

Question 39

Golgi tendon organs are sensory receptors located in the _______________.

Answer 39

between the muscle belly and its tendon

The Golgi tendon organ is connected to approximately 15 to 20 muscle fibers and is located between the muscle belly and its tendon.

Question 40

Golgi tendon organs respond to muscle tension by causing the muscle to _______________.

Answer 40

Relax
One of the Golgi tendon organ’s functions when it senses muscle contraction is to cause inhibition of the contraction (or relaxation). It has been theorized that this function adjusts muscle output in response to fatigue.

Question 41

Golgi tendons cause _______________ when the muscle contraction ceases.

Answer 41

Autogentic inhibition

When muscle tension is reduced due to fatigue, the Golgi tendon organ output is also reduced. The autogenic inhibition reflex is a sudden relaxation of muscle upon development of high tension. It is a self-induced, inhibitory, negative feedback lengthening reaction that protects against muscle tear. Golgi tendon organs are receptors for the reflex.

Question 42

During _______________ stretching, the activation of the Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) cause the muscle spindles to relax and, therefore, an increase in the stretch.

Answer 42

STatic

Static stretching evokes a temporary increase in muscle tension due to muscle lengthening. After seven to 10 seconds of a low-force stretch, the increase in muscle tension activates a GTO response. Under GTO activation, muscle spindle activity within the stretched muscle is temporarily inhibited, allowing further muscle stretching.

Question 43

Muscle spindles are located _______________.

Answer 43

Parallel to the muscle fibers

Muscle spindles are located mostly in the muscle belly and lie parallel to the muscle fibers.

Question 44

Muscle spindles respond to muscle fibers being overstretched by causing a _______________, known as the _______________.

Answer 44

Muscular contraction; stretch reflex

The muscle spindle stretches when the muscle itself experiences a stretch force, thereby exciting the muscle spindle and causing a reflexive contraction in the muscle, known as the stretch reflex.

Question 45

When the muscle spindle’s reflex contraction occurs, it causes the antagonist muscle group to relax. This is known as _______________.

Answer 45

Reciprocal inhibition

The muscle spindle’s reflex contraction of its associated muscle simultaneously causes the antagonist muscle group to relax. This is called reciprocal inhibition. For example, if the gastrocnemius is stretched rapidly, the muscle spindles within the muscle belly cause it to contract. At the same time, if the anterior tibialis (opposing muscle group) is contracting, the muscle spindle reflex causes it to relax.

Question 46

Type I muscle fibers are considered slow-twitch. Why?

Answer 46

Slow-twitch fibers are also called type I muscle fibers.

Question 47

DoType I muscle fibers have a large amount of mitochondria as compared to type II muscle fibers?

Answer 47

Type I muscle fibers contain relatively large amounts of mitochondria and are surrounded by more capillaries than fast-twitch fibers.

Question 48

Type I muscle fibers are fatigue-resistant. Why?

Answer 48

The high concentration of myoglobin, the large number of capillaries, and the high mitochondrial content make type I fibers resistant to fatigue and capable of sustaining aerobic metabolism.

Question 49

The statement is false. Make it true. Type I muscle fibers are used during anaerobic metabolism.

Answer 49

Type I muscle fibers are more resistant to fatigue and capable of sustaining aerobic metabolism, while type IIx muscle fibers possess a high number of glycolytic enzymes, which provide them with a considerable anaerobic capacity.

Question 50

Endurance athletes, such as those who participate in cross-country running, generally possess a large percentage of type I muscle fibers.

Answer 50

Fiber composition of skeletal muscles is thought to play an important role in sport and exercise performance. It is commonly believed that successful endurance athletes generally possess a large percentage of type I, or slow-twitch, muscle fibers, while power athletes possess a relatively large percentages of type II, or fast-twitch, muscle fibers.

Question 51

Type IIx muscle fibers are considered fast-twitch.

Answer 51

There are two subtypes of fast-twitch fibers: type IIx and IIa.

Question 52

Type IIx muscle fibers are known as fast-glycolytic fibers. Why?

Answer 52

Type IIx muscle fibers are sometimes called fast-glycolytic fibers.

Question 53

Type IIx muscle fibers have a small amount of mitochondria.

Answer 53

Type IIx muscle fibers contain a relatively small amount of mitochondria, while type I muscle fibers contain relatively large amounts of mitochondria.

Question 54

Type IIx muscle fibers are less resistant to fatigue than type I fibers.

Answer 54

Type IIx muscle fibers fatigue more easily than type I muscle fibers. In fact, these fibers cannot sustain their effort for more than a few seconds.

Question 55

Type IIx muscle fibers are the largest and fastest muscle fibers in the body.

Answer 55

Type IIx fibers are the largest and fastest, and are capable of producing the most force of all the skeletal muscle fibers, but are notably less efficient than type I muscle fibers.

Question 56

Type IIx muscle fibers have limited capacity for aerobic metabolism. Why

Answer 56

Type IIx muscle fibers have a limited capacity for aerobic metabolism and fatigue more easily than type I muscle fibers. In fact, these fibers cannot sustain their effort for more than a few seconds.

Question 57

Type IIa muscle fibers are fast-twitch fibers.

Answer 57

Type IIa are a second subtype of fast-twitch muscle fibers.

Question 58

Type IIa muscle fibers can be trained to become more oxidative or glycolytic.

Answer 58

With endurance training, type IIa muscle fibers can increase their oxidative capacity to levels similar to those observed in type I muscle fibers.

Question 59

Type IIa muscle fibers can only sustain activity for less than 30 seconds.

Answer 59

Type IIa muscle fibers possess speed, fatigue resistance, and force-production capabilities somewhere between type I and type IIx muscle fibers. They can sustain an effort for longer than type IIx fibers—up to three minutes in highly trained athletes.

Question 60

A muscle with which of the following muscle arrangements has the LOWEST force production, but the HIGHEST speed of contraction?

Answer 60

Penniform muscles, which include unipennate, bipennate, and multipennate muscles, are designed for higher force production than longitudinal muscles. Longitudinal muscles are long and thin and have parallel fibers that run in the same direction as the length of the muscle. This type of fiber arrangement allows for speed of contraction.

Question 61

Which of the following is an example of a multiplanar movement from the anatomical position?

Answer 61

Opposition of the thumb is a movement unique to primates and humans that follows a semicircle toward the little finger. Each of the other movements is uniplanar.

Question 62

What do shoulder shrugs target?

Answer 62

Levator scapulae and trapezius

Question 63

The birddog is an effective exercise for which of the following muscles that act at the trunk?

Answer 63

The multifidi, which contribute to spinal stability during trunk extension, rotation, and side-bending, are effectively targeted by the birddog.

Question 64

Which category of hip muscles is primarily responsible for hip adduction?

Answer 64

The medial hip muscles (i.e., those hip muscles closer to the midline of the body), including the pectineus, adductor brevis, adductor longus, gracilis, and adductor magnus, are primarily responsible for hip adduction.

Question 65

Which of Newton’s laws of motion is described as follows? A body at rest will stay at rest and a body in motion will stay in motion (with the same direction and velocity) unless acted upon by an external force.

Answer 65

Newton’s first law of motion, known as the law of inertia, states that a body at rest will stay at rest and that a body in motion will stay in motion (with the same direction and velocity) unless acted upon by an external force. In addition, a body’s inertial characteristics are proportional to its mass, which is why it is harder to start (or stop) moving a heavy object than a lighter one.

Question 66

What muscles are strengthened when a client performs side-lying leg lifts with the lower leg?

Answer 66

Adductors work concentrically in the upward phase and ecentrically in the downward phase.

Question 67

The soleus, gastrocnemius, and plantaris are located in which compartment of the lower leg?

Answer 67

The soleus, gastrocnemius, and plantaris are all located in the superficial posterior compartment of the lower leg and serve as primary plantarflexors of the ankle joint.

Question 68

Which of the following muscles plays a vital role (with the multifidi) in providing feedback to the central nervous system about spinal joint position before dynamic forces in the extremities destabilize the spine?

Answer 68

Coactivation of the transverse abdominis and multifidi muscles occur before any movements of the limbs. Specifically, these two muscles are activated an average of 30 milliseconds before shoulder movement and 110 milliseconds before leg movement. What is the importance of this temporal pattern of trunk muscle recruitment? The transverse abdominis and multifidi muscles are thought to play a vital role in providing feedback about spinal joint position, and thus forewarn the central nervous system about impending dynamic forces to be created in the extremities that may destabilize the spine.

Question 69

“Shoulder girdle” is the informal term for the _______________.

Answer 69

Shoulder girdle is the informal term for scapulothoracic (S/T) articulation, which consists of the muscles and fascia connecting the scapula to the thorax.

Question 70

The _______________ joint allows inversion and eversion of the foot.

Answer 70

The articulation of the talus and the calcaneus is referred to as the subtalar joint, which allows inversion and eversion of the foot.

Question 71

There are _______________ compartments in the lower leg.

Answer 71

Four

The lower leg is comprised of muscles in three regions—lateral, anterior, and posterior—divided by the anterior and posterior intermuscular septa (a band of fascia separating muscle compartments), the interosseous membrane (fibrous tissue that helps maintain space between bones), and the tibia and fibula. Muscles in the same region are grouped together with connective tissue. The muscles of the anterior region of the lower leg are grouped together in the anterior compartment, while the muscles of the lateral region are grouped into the lateral compartment. The posterior region has two distinct groups; the deep muscle group and the superficial muscle group.

Question 72

The _______________ compartment extends the toes and dorsiflexes/inverts the foot.

Answer 72

The anterior compartment of the lower leg contains muscles that extend the toes and dorsiflex and/or invert the foot.

Question 73

The _______________ and _______________ are powerful plantar flexors that share an insertion on the Achilles tendon.

Answer 73

The gastrocnemius and soleus are powerful plantar flexors that make up the bulk of the calf and share a common insertion on the Achilles tendon.

Question 74

If an individual has tight hip flexors, what condition can occur in the lumbar spine?

Answer 74

Because of its origin at the lumbar spine, tight hip flexors can result in passive hyperextension of the lumbar spine, which is known as lordosis.

Question 75

The _______________ muscle group is the prime mover during a prone leg curl. As the knee flexes, a(n) _______________ contraction occurs. As the knee extends, a(n) _______________ contraction occurs.

Answer 75

The primary knee flexors are the hamstrings; they are the prime mover during a prone leg curl. As the knee flexes, a concentric contraction occurs, and as the knee extends, an eccentric contraction occurs.

Question 76

You notice when a client or class participant bends down that his heels cannot maintain contact with the floor. What muscles can you suspect to be tight?

Answer 76

The large muscles of the superficial posterior tibial compartment are the primary plantar flexors of the ankle joint. The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles are often inflexible, particularly among individuals who regularly wear high-heeled shoes.

Question 77

You notice a client or class participant is running “flat-footed.” You can hear her foot slap the treadmill with every step. What muscles can you suspect to be weak?

Answer 77

When acting concentrically, the muscles of the lower leg produce dorsiflexion of the ankle, and work together during walking and running to eccentrically lower the foot to the ground with control. Without the eccentric action of the dorsiflexor muscles as dynamic shock absorbers, the foot would slap the ground with each stride or impact.

Question 78

The concentric contraction of the upper trapezius produces _______________ and _______________ of the scapula.

Answer 78

The fibers of the upper trapezius are angled upward and obliquely. Therefore, if the upper fibers are activated concentrically, they will produce elevation and upward rotation of the scapula.

Question 79

If scapular adductors are weak, the postural deviation called _______________ is likely.

Answer 79

Kyphosis is defined as an excessive posterior curvature of the spine, resulting in a rounded-shoulders posture. If the scapular adductors are weak, fatigued, or injured, the muscular tension created by the pectoralis minor will tilt the scapulae forward and down, resulting in kyphosis.

Question 80

Scapular protraction is also known as _______________.

Answer 80

Scapular protraction is also known as abduction. Concentric activity of the pectoralis minor results in abduction of the scapula.

Question 81

Injury to the _______________ is common in baseball pitchers because of the repetitious pattern of abduction, flexion, and rotation of the shoulder. Therefore what makes sense to strenthen it?

Answer 81

The four musculotendinous attachments of the rotator cuff can become inflamed as a result of performing many repetitions of movements that involve abduction, flexion, and rotation, as seen in the throwing motion of baseball pitchers.

Question 82

The _______________ deltoid extends, externally rotates, and horizontally extends the arm at the shoulder.
And which one abductes the shoulders like with a press?

Answer 82

The posterior deltoid is located on the back side of the glenohumeral joint and has the exact opposite functions as the anterior deltoid: it extends, externally rotates, and horizontally extends the arm at the shoulder.

Question 83

An individual is performing a seated leg press. What prime movers initiate this exercise?

Answer 83

Knee extensors and hip extensors

So dont squeeze but on way up to activate the quads more?

The knee extensors (quadriceps femoris) and hip extensors (hamstrings and gluteus maximus) are the prime movers that initiate the movement to straighten the legs at the beginning of a seated leg press.

Question 84

Your client or class participant is experiencing some pain in her low back when performing abdominal exercises. Which of the following imbalances could potentially cause this condition?

Answer 84

Because of its origin at the lumbar spine, iliopsoas tightness can result in lordosis, which can cause low-back pain, particularly during the second half of a sit-up and with prolonged periods of sitting. To correct the anterior pelvic tilt position associated with lumbar lordosis, focus on strengthening the abdominal and hip extensor muscles, while stretching the hip flexors and spine extensors.

Question 85

What is the primary action of the gluteus medius?

Answer 85

The three gluteal muscles—gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and the superior fibers of the gluteus maximus—are the primary hip abductors and are assisted by the tensor fasciae latae. The gluteus medius is the largest of the hip abductor muscles, two times larger than the gluteus minimus.

Question 86

What group of muscles works eccentrically during the down-phase of a squat?

Answer 86

Eccentric action of the gluteus maximus and hamstrings controls the downward phase of the squat into hip flexion.