Ace Client Goals

Question 1

Desired Body weight

Answer 1

Information needed:
Body fat %
Lean Body weight

Equations:
100%-BodyFat%= Lean Body %
BodyWeight * Lean Body %= LeanBodyWeight
100%- Desired fat %= Desired Lean %
LeanBodyWeight / Desired Lean % = DesiredBodyW.

Question 2

During what phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT® Model is the application of external resistance to functional movement patterns a primary focus?

Answer 2

The focus of phase 3, or load training, is on applying external resistances, or loads, to functional movement patterns. Phase 3 applies the traditional resistance-training methodology for endurance, hypertrophy (or strength-endurance), and strength to the client’s particular goals.

Question 3

A client who is in the load-training phase of functional movement and resistance training will be working in the anaerobic-endurance training phase of cardiorespiratory training.

Answer 3

False
While these two phases both represent phase 3 of their respective training components, it is important to understand that each client will progress from one phase to the next according to his or her unique needs, goals, and available time to commit to training. Many clients will be at different phases of the two training components based on their current health and fitness levels.

Question 4

It is essential that personal trainers conduct assessments of muscular strength and endurance before a new client begins a stability and mobility training program.

Answer 4

No assessments of muscular strength or endurance are required prior to designing and implementing an exercise program during this phase. Assessments that should be conducted early in this phase include basic assessments of posture, balance, movement, and range of motion of the ankle, hip, shoulder complex, and thoracic and lumbar spine.

Question 5

During which phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT® Model should assessments of muscular strength and endurance be introduced?

Answer 5

During phase 3, or load training, assessments of muscular strength and endurance are introduced to facilitate program design and quantify progress.

Question 6

No assessments are recommended during the aerobic-base training phase of cardiorespiratory training.

Answer 6

No assessments are recommended during the aerobic-base training phase, since many of the clients who start in this phase will be unfit and may have difficulty completing an assessment of this nature.

Question 7

What is a PRIMARY goal of introducing interval training during phase 2 of a client’s cardiorespiratory training program?

Answer 7

The goal of interval training will be to improve aerobic endurance by raising the intensity of exercise performed at VT1, and to improve the client’s ability to utilize fat as a fuel source.

Question 8

A client who is in phase 3 of the cardiorespiratory training component of the ACE IFT® Model is beginning to utilize the three-zone training model based on ventilatory threshold. Approximately what percentage of his time should be spent training between VT1 and VT2?

Answer 8

The full cardiorespiratory exercise program should be composed of:

Zone 1 (at or below VT1): 70-80% of training timeZone 2 (between VT1 and VT2): <10% of training timeZone 3 (at or above VT2): 10-20% of training time

Question 9

Clients working in the anaerobic-power training phase of the ACE IFT® Model generally have goals related to _____________.

Answer 9

Short-duration, high-intensity efforts during longer endurance events

Clients working in this phase of cardiorespiratory training will be training for competition and have specific goals that relate to short-duration, high-intensity efforts during longer endurance events, such as speeding up to stay with a pack in road cycling.

Question 10

What is the most important goal when working with special-population clientele?

Answer 10

The most important goal with all clients is to provide them with initial positive experiences that promote adherence through easily achieved initial successes.

Question 11

How could we make lordosis worse.

Answer 11

MAking a client squat without them understanding the engagement of how to extend through the thoracic spine, and stabalize the lumbar spine

Question 12

What muscle should one activate on the way down from the lowering of an overhead press, to stabalize the shoulder joint?

Answer 12

Latissimus dorsi

Question 13

What is the needs analysis?

Answer 13

What are the clients needs

What movement patterns, speeds and muscled are involved?
Which energy systems must be used?
Muscular endurance, Hypertrophy, strength, or power?
Do they have any common injuries with a certain activity
Whats there tolerance for discomfort
Time availability

Question 14

What percentage do we up the weight when client is hitting the reps and weight easily?

Answer 14

5%

Question 15

How do we work power with plyos?

Answer 15

An eccentric action loads the power followed by a cocentric contraction

Question 16

Which of the following joints favors stability over mobility?

Answer 16

In terms of mobility and stability of joints along the kinetic chain, the knee favors stability over mobility, while the other three options favor mobility.

Question 17

Which of the following muscles exerts an upward pull on the anterior, inferior surface of the pelvis in an effort to maintain a neutral pelvic position?

Answer 17

Maintenance of a neutral pelvic position is achieved via opposing force-couples between four major muscle groups that all have attachments on the pelvis. The rectus abdominis pulls upward on the anterior, inferior pelvis, while the hip flexors pull downward on the anterior, superior pelvis. On the posterior surface, the hamstrings pull downward on the posterior, inferior pelvis, while the erector spinae pull upward on the posterior, superior pelvis.

Question 18

Which stretching technique is MOST appropriate for deconditioned clients to perform DURING a workout?

Answer 18

Dynamic stretching is the best choice for clients during a workout regardless of fitness level. Myofascial release, proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation, and static stretching are more suitable during the warm-up and cool-down.

Question 19

Which of the following muscles is part of the outer layer of the core?

Answer 19

The outermost layer consists of larger, more powerful muscles that span many vertebrae and are primarily responsible for generating gross movement and forces within the trunk. Muscles in this region include the rectus abdominis, erector spinae, external and internal obliques, iliopsoas, and latissimus dorsi.

Question 20

The strengthening of weakened muscles should begin with the performance of two to four repetitions of isometric muscle contractions, each held for five to 10 seconds at less than 50% of maximal voluntary contraction in a supported, isolated environment.

Answer 20

The strengthening of weakened muscles follows a progression model beginning with two to four repetitions of isometric muscle contractions, each held for five to 10 seconds at less than 50% of MVC in a supported, more isolated environment. The next progression is to dynamic, controlled ROM exercises incorporating one to three sets of 12 to 15 repetitions.

Question 21

What are jobs of the scapulae. 2 jobs.

Answer 21

During open kinetic chain (OKC) movements, a key role of the serratus anterior is to control movement of the scapulae against a more fixed ribcage. During closed kinetic chain movements, however, where the distal segment is more fixed, a key role of the serratus anterior is to move the thorax toward a more fixed, stable scapulae.

Question 22

Which of the following exercises BEST addresses the rotational movement pattern during the movement-training phase?

Answer 22

The wood-chop is a rotational movement. The unilateral row is a pulling movement, the lunge is a single-leg movement, and the hip hinge is a bend-and-lift movement.

Question 23

Training frequency is inversely related to both training __________ and training __________.

Answer 23

Training frequency is inversely related to both training volume and training intensity. Less vigorous exercise sessions produce less muscle microtrauma, require less time for tissue remodeling, and can be performed more frequently. More vigorous exercise sessions produce more muscle microtrauma, require more time for tissue remodeling, and must be performed less frequently for optimum results.

Question 24

What is the first progression made when utilizing the double-progressive training protocol?

Answer 24

The double-progressive strength-training protocol may be used with any repetition range. The first progression is adding repetitions, and the second progression is adding resistance in 5% increments.

Question 25

What aspect of muscular fitness is BEST addressed by a client adhering to the following regimen?

Frequency: Provide at least 72 hours recovery time between exercises for the same muscle groupsIntensity: Between 70 and 80% of maximum resistance, reaching fatigue between 50 and 70 secondsRepetitions: Eight to 12Three to four sets with 30 to 60 seconds rest between successive training setsType: A combination of multijoint and single-joint exercises using various techniques, including breakdown training and assisted training

Answer 25

This workout program would best address muscular hypertrophy. Muscle hypertrophy training typically involves lower weightloads and higher repetitions than muscular-strength training, but higher weightloads and lower repetitions than muscular-endurance training. The recommended training intensity for muscle hypertrophy is about 70 to 80% of maximum resistance (or a repetition range of eight to 12).

Question 26

Which of the following types of plyometric drills provides the highest intensity?

Answer 26

Hops and bounds are the most intense of the options listed. Hops involve taking off and landing with the same foot, while bounds involve the process of alternating feet during the take-off and landing. Hops and bounds emphasize horizontal speed and are performed repeatedly with no rest between actions.

Question 27

To train Vo2 what do you do?

Answer 27

Something like 30 sec all out sprints in intervals of 30 sec to 45 sec

Question 28

A client performs regular moderate- to vigorous-intensity activity at 85% of his maximum heart rate. What is his fitness classification?

Answer 28

Average Good
An individual in this category will perform “habitual physical activity: Regular moderate-to-vigorousIntensity” at 80-91% of maximum heart rate and 65-80% of %HRR/VO2max or VO2R.

Question 29

In which zone of the three-zone training model is an individual exercising if he or she is working at a heart rate equal to his or her second ventilatory threshold?

Answer 29

Zone 3
Zone 3 reflects heart rates at or above VT2, while zone 1 reflects heart rates below VT1 and zone 2 reflects heart rates from VT1 to just below VT2.

Question 30

The introduction of training with heart rates at and above VT1 takes place in which phase?

Answer 30

While aerobic-base training focuses on maintaining steady-state cardiorespiratory exercise in zone 1 (below HR at VT1), aerobic-efficiency training progresses to increasing the workload at VT1, introduces low zone 2 intervals just above VT1, and then to using intervals in the upper end of zone 2 (RPE of 6). This protocol is designed to improve aerobic efficiency and add variety in programming.

Question 31

Which exercise variable is it MOST appropriate for a personal trainer to manipulate in the early stages of an exercise program?

Answer 31

Exercise duration is probably the most appropriate variable to manipulate initially, building the exercise session by 10%, or five to 10 minutes every week or two over the first four to six weeks. Thereafter, and once adherence is developed, trainers can implement progressions by increasing exercise frequency and then exercise intensity.

Question 32

During which cardiorespiratory training phase of the ACE IFT® Model should a trainer administer the VT2 threshold test to determine HR at VT2?

Answer 32

During phase 3, the focus is on designing programs to help clients who have endurance performance goals and/or are performing seven or more hours of cardiorespiratory exercise per week. This is the most appropriate time to administer the VT2 threshold test to determine HR at VT2.

Question 33

Stop-and-go game-type activities are an appropriate choice for both youth and older adult exercisers.

Answer 33

While youth often excel at and enjoy these activities, older adults are generally less tolerant of stop-and-go game-type activities (along with heavy training loads, rapid increases in training load, and single-mode exercise).

Question 34

During which cardiorespiratory training phase of the ACE IFT® Model should low zone 2 intervals be introduced into a client’s program?

Answer 34

This phase of cardiorespiratory training is dedicated to enhancing the client’s aerobic efficiency by progressing the program through increased duration of sessions, increased frequency of sessions when possible, and the introduction of zone 2 intervals.

Question 35

How do we reduce muscle soreness

Answer 35

Keep eccentric movements to a minimum

Question 36

A company experiences a yearly loss and one of the partners uses that loss to offset profits from another business. This is an example of __________.

Answer 36

In sole proprietorships and partnerships, profits are taxed at lower personal rates rather than higher corporate rates. In addition, yearly losses can flow-through to be used by the owner to offset profits from other income.

Question 37

Which type of corporation is most typically used by personal-training businesses?

Answer 37

Subchapter S-corporations, or S-corps, are the most “typical” type of corporation used by personal-training businesses that do not operate as sole proprietorships or partnerships.

Question 38

When evaluating the risk of injury associated with a particular activity, a personal trainer finds that the frequency of occurrence is low or seldom, and the severity of injury is categorized as high or vital. What is the BEST course of action?

Answer 38

The best course of action in this situation is to transfer the risk, which involves moving the risk to others through waivers, insurance policies, etc.

Question 39

Which of the following is an ADVANTAGE of working as an independent contractor?

Answer 39

The facility allows the trainer to establish all training fees.

Question 40

In which section of a business plan should a personal trainer identify the operating model and how it is different or unique when compared to other training studios in the area?

Answer 40

The business description should accomplish the following:

Identify the operating model and how it is different or unique when compared to other training studios in the area
Describe the fitness industry specific to the local market
Provide details such as the number and location of competitors, how many employees they have, and the number of clients to whom they provide services
List the members of the management team, highlighting their knowledge, skills, and experience

Question 41

What is the BEST response if a prospective client is unable to adjust his or her schedule to fit into the time that the personal trainer has available?

Answer 41

If a prospective client is not able to adjust his or her schedule to fit into the time that a trainer has available, that client should be referred to another trainer who has availability at that time. Developing these relationships and the confidence to refer business away to other trainers will help a trainer establish a professional image.

Question 42

Most buying decisions, particularly when it comes to service businesses like personal training, are financially driven. Why is this false

Answer 42

Buying decisions are emotionally driven, meaning that prospective clients will think with logic, but act on emotion.