Testings and Diagnosis Flashcards

1
Q

Name 3 benefits of functional testings?

A
  • Helps to uncover a deeper understanding of imbalances to help inform a naturopathic plan.
  • Can make a plan more targeted and effective.
  • Allows to quantitatively measure a client’s progress, which benefits the client as they can clearly see improvements.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name 3 downsides of functional testings

A
  • Functional tests are provided privately, and so can be expensive. Always ask yourself: is the test likely to change the outcome / the plan you create?
  • They can sometimes be challenging to read and interpret.
  • As they are not diagnostic, it can be difficult to communicate results to medical doctors.
  • It’s only a snapshot in time => they can be impacted by medication, food, supplements. Put the test results in context.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which rule to apply with functional testings?

A

The rule of 3 - The presence or absence of a marker does not necessarily equate to disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 3 forms of microbes

A
  • Commensal — microbes that live in harmony with the host (us) and provide a benefit to us.
  • Pathogenic — microbes that possess certain evolutionary advantages to invade our microbiome at a cost to our health.
  • Pathobiont — microbes that live with us and normally don’t pose a problem unless there is clear opportunity. Problematic if there in high amount and with not a lot of commensal bacteria.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a gram negative bacteria ?

A

Gram negative bacteria — bacteria that possess an outer cell wall, normally rich in lipopolysaccharides (LPS). Can interact quite strongly with our immune system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are LPS ?

A

LPS — the major component of gram-negative bacteria which have the ability to induce inflammation and immune responses. LPS have a fat component – immune system can recognise them and react. LPS in the digestive system is fine, but if we get LPS fragment in the rest of the body we get immune reaction, an inflammatory reaction. When looking for chronic diseases you can look for high load of LPS in the system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are comprehensive digestive stool analysis (CDSA) useful for?

A

Stool testing is a good way of getting a comprehensive snapshot of digestive function and the GI microbiome at a given time

Helpful when working with GI complaints or for more chronic systemic illnesses in which poor GI function might be relevant. This includes the consideration of metabolic endotoxemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Metabolic Endotoxaemia?

A

An immune response that becomes a sub-clinical, persistent, low-grade inflammation because of increased circulating endotoxins (LPS)’.
Normally happens in conjunction with poor GI barrier integrity.
Can be a risk factor for many chronic diseases such as insulin resistance, diabetes, CFS, autoimmunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What two markers can CDSA evaluate?

A
  • Microbial markers such as commensal bacteria, pathogenic bacteria, parasites, pathobiont microbes, mycology, sometimes worms (these are often best seen visibly in the stool).
  • Host markers — markers made by the human host such as immune, digestive, inflammation, intestinal permeability and occult blood.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How to interpret a CDSA?

A

look for correlations of the symptoms + microbes + host markers

looking at a relationship between the individual person and their microbes. In the context of the symptoms.

Reference ranges in the microbiome are hard to ascertain as there is a large range of normal, so don’t panic if something is in or out of range — look at the whole pattern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Host marker = Calprotectin - what does it indicate ? What is a high level?

A

Calprotectin:
A protein made by leukocytes (WBC) when they have migrated to and are active in the GI wall. It is a marker of inflammation.
It is raised when there is inflammation at the gut wall. When a little raised could be linked to NSAIDS, high alcohol before the test, IBS, pathogen at the time of test. When High could be because there is damage at the GIT wall, IBD, Cancer, ulcers.

  • Flagged as high over 50 μg / g. Between 50‒175 is ‘mid-range inflammation’. The elevation is triggered by damage to the epithelial lining — in worst case scenarios IBD, ulcers, cancer, but in most scenarios, relates to pathogens, NSAIDS etc. Calprotectin is 250 and above for IBD.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Host marker = Eosinophil Protein X - what does it indicate ? What is a high level?

A

Normal range: <1.1 mcg / g; Moderate: 1.1–4.6 mcg / g; High: >4.6 mcg / g.
* Raised with intestinal inflammation and in cases of food allergies, parasites, colitis. Look at the calprotectin as well if raised.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Host marker = beta glucoronidase - what does it indicate ? Why can it be elevated?

A

Beta-glucuronidase:
An enzyme made by some intestinal bacteria.
Can be made by human and bacteria incl. E. coli.

Elevated — often due to dysbiosis and a western diet ↑ in red meat / animal protein. Associated with a higher risk of cancer.
* When high it can interfere with oestrogen excretion (= ↑ circulating oestrogen).
High from bacteria means dysbiosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Host marker = Pancreatic elastase (PE-1): - what does it indicate ? What is a low level?

A

Pancreatic elastase (PE-1):
Proteolytic enzymes excreted by the pancreas that do not breakdown in the GIT. Correlate with levels of amylase, trypsin etc.

  • Normal range: 200–500 μg / g.
  • < 200 μg / g — need digestive support – pancreatic enzyme secretion Is struggling. Could be stress, low Hcl, SIBO as can deconjugate pancreatic elastase.
  • Exocrine (digestive) pancreatic insufficiency: 100–200 μg / g.
  • Severe insufficiency: <100 μg / g – we want to know why? How do I increase pancreatic elastase?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Host marker = faecal fats: - what does it indicate ? What is a low level? what is a high level?

A

Faecal fats:
Rough measure of fat in stool. Low accuracy as it changes with diet and testing type.

  • ↑ levels suggest fat maldigestion — associated with pancreatic insufficiency, SIBO, hypochlorhydria. Is the client struggling to digest fat? Floating frothy foul smelly stools. Look for the symptoms in stool chart.
  • ↓ levels — seen in low fat diets.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Host marker = SIgA: - what does it indicate ? What is a low level? what is a high level?

A

sIgA (secretory IgA):
Secreted by mucosal tissue ― provides first line of immune defence in the GI mucosa.

  • Low sIgA (<100 μg / g) ― correlates with chronicity. ↑ susceptibility to GI infections. Always identify why (e.g. chronic stress). The person needs immune system support -> Vit A, D, Zinc.
  • High sIgA (<750 μg / g) ― upregulated immune response (e.g., acute GIT infection) when testing. You’re reacting to either a pathogen or a food allergy or intolerance. Will come with calprotectin, a nasty pathogen and sIGA together!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Host marker = Beta-Defensin 2: - what does it indicate ? what is a high level?

A

Beta–defensin 2:
Antimicrobial peptides produced by the GI wall when breached. Made by epithelial cells and stored in the mucosal membrane.

  • High >62ng / g ― might be a sign of the immune system responding to a breach by microbes, or due to GI inflammation e.g., UC.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Host marker = Zonulin: - what does it indicate ? what is a high level?

A

Zonulin family peptide:
A peptide produced by epithelial cells when the GI tight junctions are open.

  • High > 100 μg / g ― may be raised in severe intestinal permeability (e.g., due to poor nutrition, heavy metals, drugs, alcohol, dysbiosis) and coeliac disease, diabetes, other chronic autoimmune patterns.
  • Note ― even if it is 0, it does not rule out other modes of ‘intestinal permeability.’ The patterns of microbes can also be clues to intestinal permeability.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are commensal bacteria healthy markers x3?

A
  • One of the major indicators of health in the microbiota of humans is diversity.
  • In the commensal markers, check for:
    ‒ Plenty of diversity (check that all bacteria are accounted for).
    ‒ Good levels of short-chain fatty acid producers (next slide).
    ‒ Good levels of Bifidobacterium (check that it is taking up more space than E. coli – if E. coli is too high can predispose to IBS type symptoms) and Lactobacilli.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what can negatively impact commensal bacteria health?

A

Diets lacking diversity (e.g., junk food diet, SAD diet, low-FODMAP diet)
over-eating
antibiotic usage
chronic conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name 3 SCFA ? What are SCFA? What is their main functions x3 ?

A
  • SCFAs are by-products of bacterial fermentation of fibre (or prebiotics). The most common being butyrate, propionate and acetate.
  • The epithelial cells of the colon use butyrate as their main fuel source — maintaining the intestinal lining.
  • SCFAs can also affect appetite and modulate inflammation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What can cause low SCFA?

A

Low SCFAs — caused by antibiotic use, low fibre diets, diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is associated with low mucosal integrity?

mucosal barrier sit on top of the epithelial barrier

A

Low mucosal integrity can be associated with local symptoms such as ulcers, IBD and gastritis, but can also be associated with too much cross-talk between the gut microbiota and immune system, resulting in metabolic endotoxemia (i.e., a different type of increased intestinal permeability).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What can cause low mucosal integrity?

A

The presence of high levels of mucin-degrading bacteria
Low diversity of commensal bacteria
High gram-negative bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 3 mucin degrading bacteria to look for on a stool test?

A

Akkermansia muciniphila is an important mucin-degrading bacteria but equally plays a protective role to the mucosal barrier. But a proliferation of those starved from fibre and can survive by eating the mucosal barrier that then can become too thin. Absent levels are a risk factor for metabolic endotoxemia patterns of disease (obesity, insulin resistance, autoimmunity).

Ruminococcus gnavus (R.gnavus) or R.torques in high amounts, coupled with low diversity, has been proposed as a mechanism for autoimmune disease.

Absence of diversity in Bacteriodes sub-groups can cause the bacteria to become more mucin-degrading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the gas producing bacteria ? x2
What diet promotes them?

A
  • Some bacteria are well known for their ability to cause gas, and can sometimes be implicated in ‘gassy’ symptoms or SIBO.
  • Methanobrevibacter smithii — associated with methane gas production. Sometimes associated with Constipated dominant type IBS.
  • Desulfovibrio spp. and Bilophila wadsworthia — associated with hydrogen sulphide gas. A little bit of it is healthy.

==> love high sat fat diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are pathobionts bacteria and how to interpret them if present on a stool test?

A
  • Pathobiont bacteria are bacteria that only become pathogenic when there is an opportunity (i.e. if the terrain changes).
  • It is important to compare an abundance of them in relation to the commensal bacteria and host markers.
  • Avoid ‘blaming and shaming’ bacteria just because they are present. Remember — pattern and context.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What stool testings for HP? What other markers to look for to confirm pathogenic HP?

A
  • Many people carry a level of commensal strains of HP. If there in small measurable amount it is ok.
  • Other more pathogenic strains of HP can carry ‘virulence factors’, allowing them to turn infectious, adhering to and damaging the gastric mucosa.
  • The presence of HP doesn’t always equal disease; read alongside symptoms and markers such as calprotectin and FIT (faecal immunochemical test (detects minute amounts of blood in faeces).
  • H-pylori will set up deeper in the stomach if there is existing damage to the stomach lining.
  • Faecal antigen testing — reported as negative or positive.
  • Faecal PCR tests — there will always be an amount of HP. Look for a higher-than-expected amount or presence of virulence factors.
29
Q

Natural anti microbial

A

Oregano oil
Garlic (allicin)
Sage
Clove
Barberry
rosemary
thyme

30
Q

How to look at stool analysis as a naturopath?

A
  • Remember pattern and context. Ask yourself:
  • Are there signs or symptoms that match the microbe?
  • Are the host markers abnormal?
  • Is there gut inflammation? High or low immune function?
  • Lack of diversity? Presence of pathogenic strains?
31
Q

What testing for SIBO? How does it work? Name 3 substrate - and how to chose one

A

Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO) = a bacterial count in the small intestine of over 105 CFU / ml (CFU = colony forming units).
* In SIBO, fermentation of carbohydrates in the small intestine results in raised hydrogen or methane.
* Breath-testing is a non-invasive test that is looking for the gases made by fermenting bacteria (hydrogen or methane) after set points in time in which the patient has ingested a substrate that the bacteria eats.
* After the substrate is taken, breath samples are collected every 20 or 30 minutes.

  • Types of substrates (bacterial food) used for the breath test:
  • Lactulose
  • Glucose
  • Fructose
  • There is contention on which is the best substrate to use as they all have the possibilities of false negatives or even some false positives.
32
Q

What underlying causes is SIBO associated with?

A

SIBO is frequently associated with poor MMC functioning, low stomach acid and pancreatic juice, poor ileocaecal valve functioning and low IgA

33
Q

What preparation before a breath test?

A
  • A strict preparation diet should be done 24 hours before to get an accurate baseline, where microbiota-feeding foods need avoiding. And a 12h fast. Don’t clean your teeth in the morning and mouthwash as they contain sugar.
  • The only foods allowed are:
  • Any meat / poultry / fish / seafood that is not cured or brined.
  • Plain, steamed white rice (not brown).
  • Eggs.
  • Clear meat broth (made only from the meat, no bone / cartilage or vegetables).
  • Fats / oils (coconut / olive / vegetable oils, butter, or lard).
  • Salt and pepper (no other herbs / spices).
34
Q

What is a positive result for breath test for SIBO ?

A

Increase hydrogen of 20ppm after 90 min

Increase in methane of 12ppm after 90 min

Increase in both of 15ppm after 19min

35
Q

What is a sign of fructose intolerance in a breath test with a fructose substrate ?

A

When fructose is used as the substrate, fructose intolerance can also be determined by a rise of gas in the large intestine after 120 minutes.

36
Q

When to test the vaginal microbiome?

A

Bacterial vaginosis (BV), recurrent thrush, infertility, miscarriages, endometriosis and to provide an insight into vaginal ecology and its interaction with host immunity.

37
Q

What is bacterial vaginosis?

A

an imbalance of the Lactobacilli dominant vaginal composition

38
Q

What is the pH marker in vaginal testing? what does a high or low results mean?
What is the pH of a healthy vagina? What bacteria play a major role in maintaining the pH

A

pH:
A healthy vagina (of a reproductive age woman) has an acidic pH of around 3.8 to 4.5. This should prevent pathogenic microbes from growing. Lactobacilli play a major role in producing hydrogen peroxide to maintain the pH.

  • Low vaginal pH indicates high levels of lactic acid and a healthy vaginal microbiota.
  • High vaginal pH (>4.5) is indicative of overgrowth of BV-associated bacteria and vaginal dysbiosis.
39
Q

What is the Interleukin beta-1 marker in vaginal testing? what does a high or low results mean?

A

Interleukin beta-1:
An inflammatory marker made when epithelial cells break apart (e.g., infection). Can be due to bacterial or fungal or could be because of vaginal dryness => could be in menopausal woman.

  • Healthy: <220 pg / ml
  • Elevated: >220 pg / ml — BV or candida overgrowth.
40
Q

what is the role of lactobacilli in the vagina?

A
  • Lactobacilli produce lactic acid, creating an acidic environment that is inhospitable to many non-Lactobacillus commensals and potential vaginal pathogens.
41
Q

What pattern of bacteria is healthy vaginal health associated with?

A
  • Vaginal health is associated with low community diversity, but Lactobacilli dominance.
42
Q

How to naturally support the vaginal microbiome?

A
  • Avoid: Soap in the vagina (wash with water only); antibiotics; the copper coil (↑ the colonisation of BV-associated microbiota); common lubricants (opt for jojoba oil which is similar to semen pH); excessive simple carbohydrates and alcohol; smoking (by-products are secreted into the vagina); vaginal douching.
  • Include: Vaginal probiotics. Optimise the oral and GI microbiomes which have been shown to have an impact on the vaginal flora.
  • Menopausal oestrogen support (e.g. flaxseeds, black cohosh etc.)
  • Diet: Focus on a diverse range of prebiotic and probiotic foods to support Lactobacilli growth, as well as polyphenols.
43
Q

What is dysbiosis in the oral microbiome associated with?

A

tooth decay, periodontitis and even oral cancer

cardiovascular disease, autoimmune conditions (e.g., RA) and Alzheimer’s disease, as the more pathogenic ones can release endotoxins (LPS) into the bloodstream. Frequent miscarriage. It is important to keep in mind a healty oral microbiome.

44
Q

How to support the oral microbiome?

A
  • Diet: Optimise levels of prebiotic fibres and polyphenols. Probiotic foods (e.g., kombucha, kefir). Minimise processed carbohydrates and trans-fats. Avoid snacking (it does not allow time for the oral pH to recover between meals).
  • Avoid mercury fillings / remove them using a specialist dentist.
  • Brush your teeth at least twice a day. Floss with a ‘water-pik’. Oil pull. Rinse salt water around the mouth.
  • Scrape your tongue (balances the oral microbiome).
  • Use a probiotic mouthwash. Avoid smoking, antibiotics.
  • Use biofilm disruptors such as NAC where appropriate.
45
Q

Organic acid testing - what are organic acids?

A

Organic acids are natural by-products (metabolites) created from the functioning of many enzymatic pathways in the body — including mitochondrial activity

46
Q

Organic acid testing - How can organic acids be measured? How are they useful?

A

They can be measured by urinalysis.
* They are used to get a window into the functioning of these pathways — all of which need certain nutrients as co-factors.
* It is an indirect way of identifying needs for vitamins and minerals, and other factors. It is a functional assessment of nutrient status

47
Q

Which clients might benefit from organic acid testing?

A

Cases of chronic fatigue, suspected nutritional deficiencies, suspected mitochondrial dysfunction, autism, mood disorders.

48
Q

Organic acid testing benefits

A
  • Can give you a good overview of metabolic function — helping you to see where areas of weakness might be in biochemical pathways and therefore, an extra need for certain nutrients.
  • Can help to guide your naturopathic care plan
    into clear areas that need addressing or further investigation
49
Q

Organic acid testing downsides

A
  • Can be hard to interpret — use the specific interpretation guides provided by each lab and their support materials.
  • Diet eaten at the time of
    the test can really impact on markers — changing the results.
  • Not measuring the vitamin directly — so you are making an assumption based on function
50
Q

Organic acid testing metabolites group

A
  • Markers associated with nutritional function.
  • Metabolites associated. with the Krebs Cycle.
  • Some neurotransmitter metabolites.
  • Oxalate metabolism.
  • Glycolysis metabolites (balance between lactate / pyruvate).
  • Ketone and fatty acid oxidation metabolites.
  • Indicators of detoxification.
  • Amino acid metabolites.
  • Bacterial metabolites associated with dysbiosis.
    Some tests include. environmental toxins such as exposure to phthalates, parabens, toluene etc.
51
Q

What are the 4 nutritional testing options?

A
  • Serum testing — good for standard nutrients like vitamin B12 and D3. Also good for inflammatory markers.
  • Red blood cell (RBC) testing — can show minerals and toxic elements taken up into RBCs, which is a good indicator of ‘tissue levels’.
  • Urine testing — either looking for organic metabolites, or pure excretion (organic acid testing or toxic metal profiles).
  • Hair mineral testing — to see what minerals have been laid down in the hair.
52
Q

What to test for serum B12?

A
  • B12: The ‘active form’ of B12 is holotranscobalamin.
  • Homocysteine is a functional biomarker for low B9 and B12. Because homocysteine is a good indicator foe methylation which requires B9 amd B12.
  • Methylmalonic acid (MMA) is a more sensitive index of B12 status compared to serum B12. It can be tested via serum and urine. The most common cause of raised MMA in the urine is vitamin B12 deficiency.
53
Q

why test serum ferritin? What is the optimal range

A
  • More accurate than testing serum iron (moves to quickly in the blood). Optimal ranges will differ (e.g., male, female, child), but they are approx. 30-100 ug / L.
54
Q

Optimal range of serum D3

A

Optimal levels of over 75 nmol / L, but many practitioners prefer it between 100 nmol / L to 150 nmol / L. Associated with many chronic diseases when deficient

55
Q

Serum marker - C-reactive protein (CRP) => what does it tell? What is normal CRP range? what is normal High Sensitivity CRP range ?

A

C-Reactive Protein (CRP): Can help to identify levels of low grade to extreme inflammation in the body.

  • Normal CRP range: <5 mg / L.
  • High sensitivity CRP (hsCRP) — used by some specialist labs, hsCRP is a better measurement when looking for low grade inflammation (when looking for numbers between 2–5). Low grade inflammation is associated with cardiovascular disease, for example.
  • Normal hsCRP range: 0.2 to 3 mg / L.
56
Q

What might cause a raised CRP? How can this be lowered?

A

A high CRP test result is a sign of acute inflammation. It may be due to serious infection, injury or chronic disease. Obesity, lack of exercise, cigarette smoking, and diabetes. Certain medicines can cause your CRP levels to be lower than normal. These include nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), aspirin, and steroids.

57
Q

What is RBC nutrient testing helpful for?

A
  • Looks at the amount of minerals that have been taken up inside the RBC, which is more indicative of ‘tissue levels’ of minerals. Good for magnesium, zinc to see if it has been utilized by the cell, if it can get into the cell. Can also show heavy metals.
  • Helpful for the more nuanced minerals and toxic minerals, and for essential fatty acid testing
  • These are easier to read than OATs profiles, and more direct.
58
Q

What are Mixed methodology nutrition tests? What is the advantage?

A
  • As previously mentioned, nutrients are not the easiest thing to measure by one methodology alone.
  • Many functional labs will offer mixed methodology tests, where they use different markers i.e., serum, organic acids from urine or red blood cell levels to give a more complete profile.
  • These are often more expensive.
  • The bonus of these tests is that they often come with lots of interpretation.
  • Remember the case taking is the best tool you have and should come first and foremost.
59
Q

What to test in thyroid testing?

A

Expanded panels will often include:
‒ TSH
- Free T3 or T4 (or both)
- Reverse T3
- Thyroid antibodies (anti-TPO and anti-thyroglobulin).

60
Q

What to test in thyroid testing?

A

Expanded panels will often include:
‒ TSH
- Free T3 or T4 (or both)
- Reverse T3
- Thyroid antibodies (anti-TPO and anti-thyroglobulin).

61
Q

What is subclinical hypothyroidism? What level of TSH?

A

‘normal’ readings (but close to reference range cut off) and have symptoms of poor thyroid function

High TSH + normal T4 suggests subclinical hypothyroidism and should trigger comprehensive testing (esp. antibodies).

  • TSH – levels over 2.5 are signs that thyroid is struggling and it could be high cortisol interfering with how your thyroid is working. That could be subclinical hyperthyroidism. Thyroid needs support. Address, iodine, selenium, glutathione, stress.
62
Q

What indicates hyperthyroidism? What about Grave’s?

A

Low TSH and high T4
If TPO is high could be Grave’s

63
Q

What is the best testing for the adrenals?
What metabolites are tested?

A
  • Salivary or urine testing of adrenal metabolites is much less invasive and can give a more nuanced view to adrenal function.
  • Most salivary adrenal tests are four point testing (four samples taken through the day) — giving an overview of the daily curve.
  • Main metabolites tested = cortisol and DHEA.
64
Q

What does high readings of cortisol mean?

What does low reading of cortisol and DHEA mean?

A

High readings of cortisol => person experiencing high stress => need stress reduction strategy

Low readings of DHEA and Cortisol = adrenal exhaustion => need rebuilding strategy

65
Q

What does DHEA measure?

A

DHEA down regulates the cellular effects of cortisol => an optimal ration indicate proper HPA homeostasis

DHEA is a precursor to cortisol, and the longer someone goes into a cortisol response DHEA will get lower and lower => burnout sign. Chronic high stress test leading to low DHEA and low cortisol. Normal cortisol response is absent.

66
Q

What is a DUTCH test?

A

The Dried Urine Test for Comprehensive Hormones (‘DUTCH’) is a popular urine test that covers
an array of hormones and their metabolites: fully analyse the biomarkers of urine and breakdown of hormones in urine.

67
Q

When to use a DUTCH test?

A

Reproductive hormone imbalances (e.g., low libido, PMS, irregular / painful periods or any other symptoms where you suspect a hormonal imbalance — especially if stress is involved.

  • Tests for many different metabolites of the major hormones: oestrogen, progesterone, testosterone and cortisol.
  • To read a DUTCH test you must know the patient’s menstrual history and stage (menopause, pregnancy etc.) and if they are on any hormone-altering medication = different reference ranges
  • The information in the DUTCH test is laid out on metabolic pathways, so you can start to see what pathway might be impacted in your client, and then some ideas of how to rectify it.
68
Q

What are the 3 main oestrogen metabolites? What are the 3 pathways they are metabolised on? Which pathway is the safest?

A

3 main oestrogens (E1 – Estrone, E2 – Estradiol, E3 – Estriol), which are metabolised down 3 phase I pathways:

  1. The 2-OH pathway is considered the safest because of the anti-cancer properties of 2-OH metabolites.
  2. The 4-OH pathway is considered the most genotoxic as its metabolites can create reactive products (quinones) that damage DNA.
  3. The 16-OH pathway creates the most oestrogenic metabolite. After phase I metabolism, both 4-OH and 2-OH oestrogens can be deactivated and eliminated by methylation (part of phase II).