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AIPM Test 1 > Test Review Questions > Flashcards

Test Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

In 1990, Congress passed the _______________which established Acquisition positions, Structured Approach for Training, Experience and Certification because defense systems are complex, costly and require qualified personnel

A

Defense Acquisition Workforce Improvement Act (DAWIA)

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2
Q

The Army contracting in Iraq, Afghanistan, and Kuwait didn’t have enough people, there was too little training, and it was an antiquated system. Increase Stature, Quantity, and Career Development was a finding of the ________

A

Gansler Commission (2007)

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3
Q

What was adopted from commercial business, and was intended to streamline the antiquated, stove pipe process, and is composed of stakeholders representing all appropriate functional disciplines.

A

Integrated Product Team (IPT)

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4
Q

Who conducts 60% of the basic research for the DOD?

A

Universities

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5
Q

Robust _____________identifies the three primary risk factors (cost, schedule and performance) that Program Managers focus on when managing their programs.

A

system engineering

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6
Q

Major Defense Acquisition Programs (MDAPs) are now required by law to have a

A

Product Support Manager.

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7
Q

Identify the three primary organizations that influence the defense acquisition community.

A
  • The Executive Branch
  • The Congress
  • Industry
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8
Q

The USD AT&L is the Principal staff assistant and advisor to SECDEF and Deputy SECDEF concerning Departmental acquisitions and is ______________ and chairs Defense acquisition board DAB

A

the Defense Acquisition Executive (DAE)

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9
Q

Who Provides analysis and advice relative to the *Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) system, is the principal staff assistant and advisor to the Secretary and Deputy Secretary of Defense and provides INDEPENDENT analytic advice for all aspects of the DoD programs to include:

A

DCAPE

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10
Q

Who provides independent assessment of operational effectiveness and suitability of new weapon systems through testing

A

Describe the Director, Operational Test & Evaluation (DOT&E)

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11
Q

The ACAT level enables identification of:

A
  • Type of system
  • Level of management review/decision authority
  • Applicable program reporting requirements
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12
Q

The primary objective of the ___________is to ensure the capabilities required by the joint Warfighter to successfully execute the missions assigned to them are identified with operational performance criteria

A

JCIDS process

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13
Q

DOTMLPF-P stands for:

A

Doctrine, Organization, Training, Materiel, Leadership and education, Personnel, Facilities, and Policy.

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14
Q

_____________________represent more refined requirements documents tailored toward a particular non-materiel approach for a capability solution, while CDDs and CPDs represent more refined requirements documents tailored toward a particular materiel approach for a capability solution.

A

Joint DOTMLPF-P Change Recommendation(DCR).

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15
Q

Identify and understand the purpose of the JCIDS requirements lanes.

A
  • Deliberate Requirements-Normal process 2-6+ years
  • Emergent Requirements-0-5 years
  • Urgent Requirements 0-2 years
  • Info Sys / Technology (IS / IT) based on moores law
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16
Q

What is a directed, funded effort that provides a new, improved, or continuing, Materiel, Weapon, Information system, Service capability in response to an approved need

A

acquisition program.

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17
Q

What are the two primary reasons for developing a new acquisition program.

A
  • Take advantage of new technology

* React to an actual or potential threat

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18
Q

_________ Polish troops killed by Germans in 1939 because they didn’t implement new technology in WWIII and continued to use horses instead of tanks etc.

A

65,000

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19
Q

Who normally prepares an Acquisition Strategy

A

Usually prepared by an Acquisition Strategy IPT, with representatives from all functional areas, as well as end users and key stakeholders

20
Q

The Acquisition Strategy is due at Milestone___ and updated before______________.

A

A, each milestone review

21
Q

What are the disadvantages of International Cooperation?

A

o Requires an international agreement setting forth terms and conditions of the cooperation
o Legal and administrative requirements, including coordination with the State Department
o Possible dependency on foreign sources
o Security issues associated with technology transfer between countries

22
Q

____________________is the preferred strategy for rapid acquisition of mature technology.

A

Evolutionary acquisition

23
Q

Identify what documents guide the MSA phase.

A
  • Validated ICD,

* AoA Study Plan

24
Q

What is a study of the operational effectiveness and life-cycle cost of a program’s alternatives.

A

analysis of alternatives

25
Q

What demonstrates feasibility/maturity and potential of advanced technologies for enhanced military operational capability and/or cost effectiveness. reduces technical risk and uncertainty before the technology is used in an acquisition program, is managed at the service level and conducted at government labs and is used to support the decision about whether a technology is mature enough to transition into the formal acquisition process

A

JCTD

26
Q

What are the Cost As an Independent Variable (CAIV) uses cost to make performance tradeoffs that will reduce procurement cost and ________________

A

meet the requirements of the customer

27
Q

What is a management approach that integrates all activities from product concept through production/deployment and support, i.e. “Womb to Tomb” to meet Cost, Performance, and Schedule objectives

A

Integrated Product and Process Development (IPPD)

28
Q

The following are examples of what?
• Concurrent Development of Products and Processes,
• Early and Continuous Life Cycle Planning,
• Maximum Flexibility for Optimization and Use of Contractor Approaches,
• Empowerment,
• Encourage Robust Design
• Event-Driven Scheduling:
• Multi-disciplinary Teamwork
• Seamless Management Tools:
• Proactive Identification and Management of Risk:

A

IPPD Tenants

29
Q

List the stages of team development.

A
  • Forming: The first phase of development; it begins when the team first comes together
  • Storming: This stage can be difficult for team members, but the process is necessary for the team to successfully attain the benefits of teamwork
  • Norming: Is a conscious or unconscious habit that the team develops about the way it conducts business
  • Performing: The team capitalizes on their diversity of talent, experience, knowledge and backgrounds to create more alternatives to resolve issues
  • Adjourning (or Transforming): Most teams are established for a finite time, and once they have achieved their purpose, they are disbanded
30
Q

Does everyone need to agree (whole-heartedly) with a solution to a problem to achieve consensus?

A

no

31
Q

What are the five major defense appropriation categories, what they fund, and their obligation periods.

A
  • RDT&E – 2 years
  • Procurement – 3 years
  • O&M – 1 year
  • MILPERS -1 year
  • MILCON – 5 years
32
Q

The Planning Phase activities culminate in the publication of the _______________as a result of planning efforts by the Joint Staff, OSD, and the Services/Agencies.

A

Defense Programming Guidance (DPG),

33
Q

Who is aided by CBO analysis, and each come up with a version of a budget resolution that contains estimated revenues and expenditures by government “function”

A

House and Senate Budget Committees

34
Q

Define Commitment

A

An administrative reservation of funds.

35
Q

Define Obligation

A

A legal reservation of funds.

36
Q

Define Outlay

A

The check clears the Treasury Department and funds are actually paid out, there is an outlay of Government funds.

37
Q

Most reprogramming actions are approved at the ____________level using ___________ reprogramming.

A

Service or agency, below threshold

38
Q

What are indirect costs that benefit multiple programs or contracts, and therefore cannot feasibly be charged directly to just one?

A

overhead costs, also called burden

39
Q

The two primary purposes of the Life Cycle Cost Estimate (LCCE) are to serve as the cost input for decisions on whether to start, continue, modify, or terminate the development, production, and fielding of a system and ______________

A

provide the basis for budget requests to Congress

40
Q

List and define the four basic methods used to develop cost estimates and how they relate to the life cycle model.

A

.
• Analogy – (Simplest) Comparison of similar systems or components. Used in early cost estimation when design is still in flux

  • Parametric – Statistical analysis to develop cost/performance relationships. Used in early cost estimation
  • Engineering – Detailed “Bottom-up” analysis of all materials, parts, and labor. Used when the design is or is becoming solidified and each piece and part can be priced
  • Actual costs – Extrapolation based on identical, or nearly identical, existing systems (Most accurate). Used after the item has been made and the cost is known.
41
Q

The method simplest cost estimating method is _______ and the most accurate is _______

A

Analogy, Actual

42
Q

Learning Curve Theory states that as the quantity of a product produced __________, the recurring cost per unit decreases at a fixed rate or constant percentage

A

doubles

43
Q

The three key processes that comprise the DoD Decision Support Systems are:

A
  • Joint Capabilities Integration & Development System (JCIDS)
  • Defense Acquisition “Management” System (DAS)
  • Planning, Programming, Budgeting, & Execution (PPBE)
44
Q

Identify the three Science and Technology (S&T) research categories.

A
  • Basic Research
  • Applied Research
  • Advanced Technology Development
45
Q

The performance of the IPT is based on a solid (4 things):

A
  • Team Foundation
  • Team Principles
  • Team Processes
  • Team Dynamics
46
Q

It is mandated, by law (Section 2366b of Title 10, United States Code), that technology in a program must have been demonstrated in a relevant environment to enter Milestone ____ and be Technology Readiness Level (TRL) ____.

A

B, 6

AIPM Test 1 (11 decks)

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