Test questions Flashcards

1
Q

What hormone increases blood calcium and is secreted by which gland?

A

PTH by the parathyroid

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2
Q

What is anterior to thyroid on a longitudinal view?

A

Strap muscle

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3
Q

What is posterior to thyroid on a longitudinal view?

A

Longus coli

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4
Q

Where is the pathology on thyroid image?

A

Isthmus (irregular borders)

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5
Q

What are normal variants of thyroid gland?

A

Ectopic location, pyramidal lobe, agenesis (not cyst)

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6
Q

FIGURE OUT #6

A

f

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7
Q

For color doppler of thyroid, PRF should be set a what amount?

A

10 or less

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8
Q

FIGURE OUT #9

A

f

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9
Q

Which findings are seen in hyperthyroidism?`

A

Heat intolerance, retraction of eyelids, and losing weight

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10
Q

What is cystic hygroma a congenital malformation of?

A

Lymphatic (neck of baby fetus)

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11
Q

Where are adrenal glands located?

A

Perirenal retroperitoneal space

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12
Q

Which lab tests are related to adrenal gland abnormalities?

A

Hypertension, hirsuitism, virilism, decreased hematocrit

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13
Q

Which adrenal abnormalities may include pituitary involvement?

A

Addison’s Disease

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14
Q

Which adrenal abnormalities may not cause hypertension?

A

Addison’s Disease

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15
Q

What are indications for U/S renal study?

A

Hypertension, hirsutism, inexplicable tachycardia, inexplicably low hematocrit

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16
Q

Which side is varicocele more common and why?

A

Left side from pressure of SMA on left renal vein

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17
Q

What structure is in posterosuperior of the epididymis head?

A

Spermatic cord

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18
Q

Which testicular cancer can cause a false positive on a pregnancy test?

A

Choriocarcinoma

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19
Q

What should be viewed regarding cryptorchidism?

A

Inguinal canal

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20
Q

Which artery is responsible for erection?

A

Cavernous

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21
Q

Which part of testes produce sperm?

A

Seminiferous

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22
Q

What structure is superomedial of seminal vesicle?

A

Vas deferens

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23
Q

Neoplasia of which prostate area becomes symptomatic earlier?

A

e

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24
Q

In transabdominal U/S, what structure will be seen first (prostate next to bladder)?

A

Seminal vesicle

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25
What can cause infertility?
Blocked seminal vesicles, prostatitis, prostatic lesions
26
Where does most prostate cancer occur?
Peripheral
27
Which U/S findings are specific for cancerous lesions in prostate?
f
28
What are some characteristics of prostatic utricle cyst?
f
29
In TRUS (trans), which part of prostate is at the top?
f
30
How long will testicular detorsion changes last?
15 minutes
31
What is GI wall thickness?
Less than or equal to 4-5 mm
32
The appearance of creeping fat is associated with what?
Crohn's Disease
33
Which of the following is a malignant retroperitoneal mass?
f
34
What does the sandwich sign describe?
Mesenteric lymphoma
35
What does the floating aorta sign describe?
Nodes posterior to aorta
36
What is the most posterior structure of the anterior abdomen wall?
f
37
What is biloma?
Extrahepatic bile collection
38
Where can urachal cysts be seen?
Between superior bladder and umbilicus
39
Each breast has how many lobes?
15-20
40
What hormone stimulates breast lobules to secrete milk?
Oxytocin
41
Where do Cooper's Ligaments appear on ultrasound?
Separating the lobules near the top of the image
42
What view is best for checking lactiferous ducts?
Radial
43
How do lactiferous ducts appear on U/S?
Anechoic holes, squished holes
44
Which ultrasound is best for scanning a young woman with normal breast size?
13 mHz linear (sometimes 15)
45
Where is the best place to check lactiferous ducts?
Subareola layer
46
What is the goal of Fremitus maneuver?
Determining border of breast mass
47
Ultrasound cannot detect calcification less than.....?
1 mm
48
Which breast mass is subcutaneous?
Galactocele (abscess, sebaceous cyst top layer, adenoma can be sebaceous)
49
How does spiculation appear on U/S?
It has spikes coming out of the center, spider-like
50
Which breast mass is subcutaneous?
Sebaceous (abscess is top layer, galactocele are non-cancerous)
51
Which characteristics have the potential for malignant cancer?
Angulation, microlobulation and spiculation
52
Is a fibroadenoma non-moveable and painful?
False, benign is moveable, malignant non-moveable
53
The fibroadenoma the most common breast tumor?
No, it's ductal carcinoma
54
How does menstrual cycle affect fibroadenoma?
It doesn't change in size
55
What is the texture of fibroadenoma?
Smooth, rubbery and hard
56
What is the most common type of breast cancer?
Intraductal
57
What are characteristics of malignancies?
Swirly edges, overlapping swirly edges, irregular border with shadowing
58
For decreasing the risk of rotator cuff damage, arm shouldn't be abducted more than....?
30 degrees
59
How does a nerve appear on U/S?
Hypoechoic, to slight hyperechoic
60
How does tendon appear on U/S?
Hyperechoic
61
How do muscles appear on U/S?
Heterogenous, a mixture hyperechoic lines with a hypoechoic background
62
How do bursae appear on U/S?
Anechoic
63
In normal liver/kidney transplant, PSV of HA / RA can be as high as.....?
250 cm / sec
64
What are findings in a patient with renal failure immediately following a transplant?
Increasing size & PI/RI, absent/reverse diastolic blood flow in intrarenal artery (not increased echogenicity)
65
Fluid collection commonly associated with renal transplant include....?
Urinoma, abscess, lymphocele, hematoma (not ascites)
66
Fluid collection commonly associated with liver transplant include....?
Abscess, ascites, seroma, biloma (not urinoma)
67
Early acute liver allograft rejection is often demonstrated by.....?
PV thrombosis
68
After one week renal transplant, the amount of urine output has decreased. A study of the intrarenal artery following spectral will get a diagnosis of....?
RV thombosis
69
What data is normal in kidney regarding spectral and Doppler?
RI 1 cm (10 mm) not AT > 100 ms
70
Which of the following findings will be seen in renal stenosis after transplant?
Spectral broadening, turbulence, tardus parvus flow (not biphasic)
71
How many salivary glands have we?
3 (Parotid, submandibular, sublingual)
72
On the parotid image, what is the anechoic line?
Retromandibular vein
73
Which hormone is secreted by thyroid?
T3, T4, Calcitonin (released when too much calcium in bloodstream)
74
Which hormone increases serum calcium?
PTH (Parathyroid hormone which increases as opposed to calcitonin which decreases calcium)
75
Esophagus location on image?
Left of the windpipe
76
Which diseases cause diffuse enlargement of the thyroid?
Grave's, Hashimoto, thyroiditis, De quervain's (not adenoma)
77
Which thyroid disease has the highest perfusion in color Doppler?
Grave's (increased blood flow to thyroid)
78
What are characteristics of thyroid cancer?
Irregular margin, hoarseness, multiple calcification, gland enlargement (not multiple cysts)
79
What is the most common thyroid cancer?
Papillary (PTC)
80
Does adenoma produce diffuse enlargement of the thyroid?
No
81
Which disease usually causes hypothyroidism?
Hashimoto's
82
Which mineral is essential for normal function of thyroid?
Iodine
83
What is the sonographic appearance of Hashimoto thyroiditis?
Diffusely coarse echotexture with tiny anechoic surrounded by echogenic septations (fibrous bands, variable vascular)
84
What does calcitonin do?
It lowers the calcium in the bloodstream.
85
What does PTH do?
It raises the calcium levels in the bloodstream.
86
Where is the thyroglossal duct found?
Midline of the neck
87
Where is branchial cleft cyst found?
Around the earlobe (benign)
88
Where is cystic hygroma found?
Posterior triangle of the neck
89
What is hemangioma?
A tumor made up of blood vessels (80% are on face, neck, arms, or legs
90
What findings are seen in hyperthyroidism?
Heat intolerance, retraction of eyelids, losing weight (not brandycardia!)
91
Which system is cystic hygroma a congenital malformation of?
Lymphatic
92
On the thyroid image, the lesion is on the upper left side, what is the technical location?
Anterior of right lobe
93
How does a simple cyst appear on ultrasound?
Anechoic (measure straight across)
94
In thyroid, is the probability of malignancy higher in a cold nodule or a hot nodule?
Cold
95
In thyroid, is multicystic mass usually malignant or benign?
Benign
96
Is exophthalmia a symptom of hypothyroidism?
No (hyperthyroidism)
97
Is tremor seen in hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism?
Hyperthyroidism
98
What type of deficiency can cause hypothyroidism?
Iron
99
What are indications for a thyroid scan?
Neck asymmetry, difficulty swallowing, abnormal thyroid test, cold nodule in ct-scan
100
For color Doppler of thyroid, PRF should be set to less than......?
10 cm/s
101
How many glands are there in parathyroid?
4 glands (2 in each side)
102
Are the parathyroid usually detectable on ultrasound?
Usually not
103
How do parathyroid appear on U/S compared to thyroid?
More hypoechoic
104
What are indications for a scrotal ultrasound exam?
Pain, infertility, swelling, cryptorchidism
105
What does spectral waveform look like with normal testis?
High flow, low resistance pattern
106
Hydrocele is a collection of fluid between which layers of tunica vaginalis?
Parietal and visceral layers
107
How does normal flow appear in testis?
Some vascular at the top of each teste (not more as in epididymitis)
108
When evaluating color flow in testes, what will help demonstrate perfusion?
Power Doppler, higher frequency, low filter, and low PRF
109
Which artery branch is perpendicular to the transmediastinal artery?
Centripetal
110
Where is the capsular artery on testes?
They surround the perimeter of the testicle
111
Where are the recurrent rami vessels in testes?
Hook-like at the ends of the centripetal arteries
112
What is testis volume in adult and child?
Adult: 25 ml, Child: 5 ml
113
What is the PSV / EDV of testis?
PSV above 6 cm/s, EDV above 2 cm/s
114
What is the length of the epidiymis head?
10 mm
115
Is it possible to see a little hydrocele in normal situations?
Yes
116
Is the drain of left testicular vein to the left renal vein?
Yes
117
Which scrotal pathologies aren't usually aren't painful?
Seminoma, hydrocele (can be), varicocele, and spermatocele
118
What is spermatocele?
Cyst of rete testis/epididymis containing spermatozoa
119
How does hydrocele appear on U/S?
Anechoic fluid between teste and tunica vaginalis
120
In a patient with large unilateral testis / gynecomastia, what lesion will you possibly see on U/S?
Stromal/Leydig's tumor
121
Where do findings of cryptorchidism occur?
Inguinal canal
122
A 35 year-old male has unilateral testicular enlargement and no pain. This is characteristic of.....?
Varicocele (usually painless) where as torsion, epididymitis, hydrocele (usually doesn't) and seminoma may cause pain
123
What conditions are true of prostatic utricle cyst?
Most common pelvic cyst, midline of prostate, can be associated with urinary anomaly, tear drop shaped narrow part @ veromuntanum, congenital (not squired)
124
How long do you have to save testicle with torsion?
6 hours
125
In which part of the genitals, do sperm become mature?
Epididymis
126
Most neoplasia of prostate happens in which zone?
Peripheral (also prostatitis, cancer)
127
Most cases of BPH happen in which zone?
Transitional
128
Where is the central zone on the prostate?
Large abutment from center outward
129
What appearance is most specific in showing a cancerous lesion in prostate?
Capsule disruption
130
question 42
answer
131
In TRUS, which part represents the base of the prostate?
answer
132
In TRUS, which anechoic structure appears posterior to the bladder?
Seminal vesicle (anechoic)
133
What is normal and malignant range of PSA?
134
In TRUS, what is patient position for prostate?
LLD
134
What is normal volume for prostate?
20 ml
134
Which lab tests correspond to adrenal gland abnormalities?
Epinephrine, adrenocorticotropic hormones, androgenic hormones and metanephrines (not amylase -- pancrease/parotids)
134
Adrenal gland image
Looking upward, so adrenal will be at bottom of kidney
135
Which adrenal abnormalities cause hypertension?
Conn's, Cushing's, Adenoma, and pheochromocytoma (not Addison's)
136
Which adrenal malignancy is most common in children?
Neuroblastoma
137
What are indications for an adrenal U/S study?
Hypertension, hirsuitism, unexplainable tachycardia, and unexplainable low hematocrit
138
Which adrenal diseases can cause hyperpigmentation?
Cushing's Disease and Addison's Diseases
139
What position is best for scanning gastric pylorus?
RPO (opens up pylrous?)
140
What are lab values for adrenal glands?
Aldosterone, cortisol, ACTH, catecholamines, metanephrines, vanillyImandelic acid
141
What diseases are involved in the central zone?
Rarely any
142
What adrenal diseases can cause hypofunction of the adrenal glands?
Addison's Disease (Cushing's/Cohn/Pheo is hyperfunction)
143
What are signs / symptoms of BPH?
Urinary problems
144
What is the appearance of acute prostatitis?
Diffuse hyperechoic PZ, focal hypoecho, increased perfusion
145
What is the appearance of chronic prostatitis?
Capsular thickening, heterogenous with calcification
146
What are the sizes of adrenal glands?
In fetus, they are 10-20 times larger than adult, larger than kidney and decrease in size over the first year after birth
147
Are the adrenal glands retroperitoneal?
Yes
148
Which hormones are secreted by the adrenal glands cortex?
Aldosterone, cortisol/hydrocortisone, androgen
149
Which hormones are secreted by the adrenal glands medulla?
Catecholamines (epinephrine/norepinephrine)
150
What planes are used in scanning adrenals?
Transverse w/patient in right anterior oblique, can switch to longitude once left adrenal is located
151
What is the shape of adrenals?
Right is pyramidal, left is crescent shaped
152
What adrenal - related structure is posterior to the IVC?
Right middle supra renal artery
153
What are some components of Cohn's disease?
Excessive aldosterone, hypertension, weakness, cramps
154
What position is best for scanning GI bowel?
Supine, posterior obliques, decubitus
155
What position is best for scanning stomach?
Semi-fowler, RPO, RLD, supine
156
What is the GI structure anterior to the aorta and posterior to the liver?
Gastroesophageal junction
157
What are clinical/sono features of HPS?
Projectile vomiting, palpable olive///signs: mushroom, diamond, caterpillar, triple track, beak, shoulder
158
What are clinical/sono features of appendicitis?
RLQ pain (McBurney), tenderness, fever, leukocytosis////signs: target, non-compressible, inflamed fat surrounding
159
What is the GI anatomic relation to the head of the pancreas?
Descending part of duodenum (2nd)
160
What's the most common sign for GI pathology?
Target sign
161
What contains Haustra?
Large intestine
162
What are sonographic features of Crohn's disease?
Target pattern, creeping fat, thickened bowel wall
163
What is seroma?
Fluid collection under skin following surgery (appear as a simple cyst)
164
What is lymphocele?
A collection of lymphatic fluid not bordered by epithelial lining (surgery complication)
165
What is the oil cyst of breast?
A benign breast lesion where local fat necrosis becomes walled off by fibrous tissue
166
What is the A line?
Echogenic horizontal lines parallel to chest walls
167
What is B line?
Arise at border between aerated and compressed lung (comet-tail vertical lines)
168
What are E lines?
Vertical lines extending from subcutaneous emphysema deep into the chest (may be confused with B lines)
169
What is hemothorax?
Presence of blood in the pleural space (chest trauma)
170
What are malignant retroperitoneal cancers?
Liposarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, fibrosarcoma
171
What are benign retroperitoneal cancers?
Lipoma, leiomyoma, rhabdomyoma, fibroma
172
What can cause ascites?
Cirrhosis, neoplasm, congestive heart failure, , tuberculosis
173
What are two types of ascites?
Transudative (less than 3 grams protein) or exudative (more than 3 grams protein)