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Oral Path Exam 2 > Test Questions > Flashcards

Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Four types of post-eruption wear:

  1. Tooth-to-tooth
  2. External physical agents
  3. Chemical agents
  4. Tooth flexure
A
  1. Attrition
  2. Abrasion
  3. Erosion
  4. Abfraction
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2
Q

What specific effect could “high fever childhood” disease have on tooth development? Effects before 6mo vs. 3yo?

A

Neonatal rings on teeth; before 6mo, affects deciduous teeth and after 3yo, it will affect permanent dentition

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3
Q

Enamel defects in one permanent tooth due to periapical infection overlying deciduous tooth?

A

Turner’s tooth

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4
Q

Fluorisis occurs when fluoride is above what ppm in the drinking water?

A

4ppm

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5
Q

What is perimolysis?

A

Erosion of lingual aspect of teeth due to vomiting

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6
Q

Bright yellow fluorescence of teeth under UV light exposure occurs secondary to….

A

Tetracycline ingestion

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7
Q

The most common impacted posterior teeth are? Anterior teeth?

A

3rd molars; canines (maxillary then mand)

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8
Q

What are three risks for leaving third molars? Five risks of extracting third molars?

A

Leaving: crowding dentition, resorption of adjacent teeth, pathological infections/cysts/tumors
Removing: nerve damage, alveolitis, trismus, jaw fracture, TMJ problems, periodontal damage, injury to adjacent teeth

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9
Q

Fusion of a tooth to alveolar bone defines:

A

ankylosis

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10
Q

Tongue tied:

A

Ankyloglossia

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11
Q

Two syndromes ass’d w/ hypodontia? Hyperdontia?

A

Crouzan’s and ectodermal dysplasia

Hyper: Cleidocranial Dysplasia and Apert’s

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12
Q

Most common congenitally missing teeth are?

A

3rd molars (1,16,17 and 32)

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13
Q

The most commonly supernumerary tooth found is termed the?

A

Mesiodens

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14
Q

The union of two adjacent teeth via their cementum is termed:

A

concrescence

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15
Q

Describe the major difference between dens invaginatus and dens evaginatus. Where do they occur most commonly?

A

DE: the enamel misforms an accessory cusp (mand premolars)
DI: Enamel forms irregularly to create a hole in the tooth (max lateral incisors)

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16
Q

A patient presents w/ unusual translucent grayish discoloration of their teeth, bluish colored sclera and a history of multiple long bone fractures. You suspect they may have

A

Type I dentinogenesis imperfect (w/ osteogenesis imperfecta)

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17
Q

A tooth has a large carious lesion into the pulp and a unilocular radiolucency at the apex. Until a biopsy is performed, what entities are in your list of differential diagnoses (3)?

A

Radicular cyst, periapical granuloma, or apical scar

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18
Q

Plantar keratosis and aggressive periodontal disease best describes:

A

Papillion-Lefevre Syndrome

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19
Q

What tx would you provide a patient suffering from cervicofacial emphysema?

A

Broad spectrum antibiotics

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20
Q

A dome-shaped lesion of the sinus floor usually consisting of an inflammatory exudate and appearing as a faint radiopacity is called an?

A

Antral pseydocyst

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21
Q

Chemical injuries to the oral mucosa can be caused my many chemicals including (3)

A

gold salts, silver nitrate and hydrogen peroxide

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22
Q

Accumulation of lbood within tissue producing a mass is:

A

hematoma

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23
Q

What is the frequency of adverse effects of dental amalgam is estimated to be on case per:

A

1 million

24
Q

Tx of angioedema?

A

Antihistamines

25
Q

In Behcet’s syndrome, 99% of patients will have intraoral lesions. Where is the one other common site?

A

Genitals

26
Q

Two substances that may cause an allergic mucosal reaction?

A

Cinnamon oil or latex

27
Q

Radiographically, what does a dental granuloma look identical to?

A

Radicular cyst

28
Q

Is the traumatic bone cyst a true cyst?

A

No, it is empty.

29
Q

Which are more common: palatal or mandibular tori?

A

Palatal

30
Q

Focal antral calcification is caused by a fungal ball of what organism?

A

Aspergillus fumagatum

31
Q

What is the most common fungal infection in the U.S.? What environment is it ass’ed w/?

A

Histoplasmosis; humid areas near bird/bat excrement

32
Q

A pt presents w/ white lesions appearing to be candidiasis. What is the most likely cause of this presentation?

A

Antibiotic administration

33
Q

A mucus patch is ass’d w/ what disease?

A

Secondary syphilis

34
Q

Patients with gonorrhea are at high risk for what other STD and are thus co-treated for both?

A

Chlamydia

35
Q

How does TB infection vs. active TB disease present w/ regards to:

  1. Chest X-Ray
  2. Contagiousness
  3. PPD
A

General rule, they are all opposite except PPD

  1. +CXR for active disease
  2. Contagious if have active disease
  3. Both will have positive PPD test
36
Q

Which disease causes deep abscesses, draining sinus tracts and yellow “sulfur granules?”

A

Actinomycosis

37
Q

What disease is caused by Bartonella Henselae and ass’d w/ lymphadenopathy?

A

Cat Scratch Disease

38
Q

What is one disease caused by the coxsackie virus?

A

Herpangina

39
Q

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome is ass’d w/ which virus?

A

Herpes Zoster (Shingles)

40
Q

What are the other names for Herpes 3? 4? 5? 8?

A

3: Zaricella zoster
4: EBV and 5: CMV
8: Kaposi’s Sarcoma

41
Q

What disease/condition is ass’d w/ horn and pseudo-horn cysts? What are two other aspects?

A

Sebhorreic keratosis; stuck-on appearance, chronic sun exposure, Laser-Trelat sign

42
Q

What is an ephelis?

A

Freckle

43
Q

“Age spots” and “liver spots” ass’d w/ UV light damage are termed:

A

Actinic Lentigo

44
Q

The mask of pregnancy?

A

Melasma

45
Q

What do Peutz-Jaugars Syndrome, Addison’s disease and neurofibromatosis all have in common?

A

Produce pigmentation of the skin and oral mucosa

46
Q

What histological finding change a diagnosis from carcinoma-in-situ to squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Lesion penetrates the basement membrane

47
Q

What can you do clinically to show that a lesion of the cheek is leukoedema?

A

Invert the cheek; if leukoedema, the lesions will disappear

48
Q

What is cheek biting?

A

Morsicatio buccarum

49
Q

What percent of erythroplakia lesions of unknown cause are premalignant or malignant on biopsy?

A

80-90%

50
Q

What virus is ass’d w/ nasopharyngeal carcinoma and Burkitt’s lymphoma/

A

Epstein-Barr Virus

51
Q

Plummer-Vinson syndrome is ass’d w/ what deficiency?

A

Iron

52
Q

In the staging of cancer, the T, N and M is used. For what does each mean?

A

T: Tumor size
N: Nodes found w/ cancer
M: metastases

53
Q

How has the survival rate between white and black males differed since the 1950’s?

A

Black males have less access to medical care/insurance so their survival rate has decreased, whereas white males’ survival rate has increased.

54
Q

What oral cancer has a possible association w/ HPV 16 and 18?

A

Verrocous carcinoma

55
Q

When diagnosing melanoma, a number of critical findings are evaluated and given the headings “A, B, C, & D”. What does B&C stand for?

A

B: Border irregularity
C: Color variation

Oral Path Exam 2 (8 decks)

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