Test Prep Week 2 Chapter 6-10 Flashcards by Seth Jones

The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge is called:

the standard of care.

the continuum of care.

patient care advocacy.

the scope of practice.

the continuum of care.

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Health care teams that infrequently train and work together:

can create delays in patient care.

need less-explicit verbal direction.

often work better under pressure.

are unable to accomplish their tasks

can create delays in patient care

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Health care providers who infrequently work together can function effectively as a team if they work in an environment that supports and promotes:

discipline.

competition.

collaboration.

rigid protocols.

collaboration.

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In contrast to a health care group, a health care team:

works independently.

works interdependently.

is not assigned specific roles.

does not function under protocols.

works interdependently.

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When working as an independent health care group member, the EMT should expect that he or she:

will receive no support or guidance from an EMS supervisor.

will be specifically instructed on how to perform a specific task.

does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task.

will rely on the group leader for making virtually all decisions.

does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task.

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EMTs and other health care providers function as a true team when they work:

dependently.

independently.

interdependently.

under standing orders.

interdependently

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The effectiveness of pit crew CPR is dependent on:

defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received.

protocols that allow the EMT to function without medical control.

a team leader who is capable of performing all of the patient care tasks.

rapidly assessing the patient before assigning roles and responsibilities.

defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received.

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Which of the following is an example of closed-loop communication?

The EMT requests permission from medical control to assist a patient with his prescribed nitroglycerin.

EMTs decide not to attempt resuscitation because the patient has rigor mortis and is cold to the touch.

The EMT corrects the team leader, who states that chest compressions should be greater than 3 inches deep.

The team leader assigns the EMT a task, and the EMT repeats the request back to the team leader.

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During a resuscitation attempt, the team leader asks the EMT to ventilate the patient at a rate of 20 breaths/min, and the EMT replies, “Actually, sir, the correct ventilation rate is 10 breaths/min.” This is an example of:
Group of answer choices

situational awareness.

constructive intervention.

closed-loop communication.

quality assurance monitoring.

constructive intervention.

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While providing care to a patient, the EMT informs her partner that a shotgun is leaning against the wall in the corner of the room. In making this observation, the EMT has demonstrated:
Group of answer choices

situational awareness.

closed-loop communication.

crew resource management.

constructive intervention.

situational awareness.

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A team of EMTs is caring for a critically injured patient. The team leader advises the EMT that transport will not begin until the patient’s closed forearm fracture is splinted. Utilizing the crew resource management model, the EMT should:
Group of answer choices

repeat the request back to the team leader and then splint the patient’s arm.

ensure that the entire team is aware that transport will be delayed for splinting.

disregard the team leader’s request and contact medical control for guidance.

advise the team leader that immediate transport is more important than splinting.

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EMTs arrive at the scene of an ill person. The EMR, who arrived before the EMTs, advises that the patient had a syncopal episode. The patient is conscious and alert and remains so throughout transport. When transferring patient care to the emergency department nurse, the EMT should advise the nurse that:
Group of answer choices

the patient had a reported syncopal episode.

she should contact the EMR about the incident.

the EMR was probably mistaken about the episode.

there is no evidence to support the syncopal episode

the patient had a reported syncopal episode.

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Which of the following would MOST likely facilitate an accurate and effective verbal handoff report at the hospital?
Group of answer choices

Brief pause in care to provide the verbal report.

Clearly identifying your EMS certification level.

Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format.

Providing the handoff report only to a physician.

Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format.

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After assuming care of a cardiac arrest patient from an EMT, the paramedic should remember that:
Group of answer choices

BLS efforts must continue throughout the patient care continuum.

the BLS care provided by the EMT is the “first steps” of ALS care.

ALS interventions are the core interventions around which BLS care is provided.

ALS interventions are fundamentally more critical than BLS interventions.

BLS efforts must continue throughout the patient care continuum

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When the EMT assists a paramedic with an advanced intervention, he or she should recall that the focus of the intervention is on:
Group of answer choices

following local protocol.

solving a clinical problem.

completing the procedure.

learning to perform the skill.

solving a clinical problem.

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Which of the following would the EMT MOST likely be asked to do when assisting a paramedic with endotracheal intubation?
Group of answer choices

Visualization of the vocal cords

Placement of the endotracheal tube

Suction under direct laryngoscopy

Preoxygenation with a BVM

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Which of the following would the paramedic be LEAST likely to ask the EMT to do?
Group of answer choices

Assess blood glucose

Obtain vital signs

Apply a tourniquet

Intubate a patient

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For patient handoff, it is important for EMTs and hospital staff to use:
Group of answer choices

common language.

common goals.

metric-sized tools.

shared training.

common language.

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Which of the following would the paramedic be LEAST likely to ask the EMT to do?
Group of answer choices

Assess blood glucose

Obtain vital signs

Apply a tourniquet

Intubate a patient

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In an independent group, you would have:
Group of answer choices

parallel work.

a common set of tasks.

shared transportation.

your own work area.

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In an interdependent group, when one person fails:
Group of answer choices

everyone fails.

that person is fired.

management will be changed.

pay is withheld.

everyone fails.

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When assisting an ALS worker, a BLS worker who performs a skill outside his or her level of certification:
Group of answer choices

risks a lawsuit.

is striving for promotion to ALS.

plays a team role.

needs incident command authorization.

risks a lawsuit.

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When assisting an ALS worker, a BLS worker who performs a skill outside his or her level of certification:
Group of answer choices

risks a lawsuit.

is striving for promotion to ALS.

plays a team role.

needs incident command authorization.

risks a lawsuit.

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To be a great EMT, strive for:
Group of answer choices

foundational knowledge.

retraining.

management work.

the chance to replace an EMR.

foundational knowledge.

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Which comes first in EMS decision making? Group of answer choices Data gathering Data interpretation Planning Team communication

Data gathering

Which step in EMS decision making comes after a patient has been transferred? Group of answer choices Data gathering Outcome evaluation Planning Team communication

Outcome evaluation

Premature diagnosis during a call can be due to what error? Group of answer choices Streamlining Bias Overconfidence Anchoring

Anchoring

If a problem with a team member is not directly or immediately impacting patient care, the team leader should: Group of answer choices engage the team member at once. discuss the problem after the call. contact the medical director at once. ignore the problem to avoid conflict.

discuss the problem after the call.

While caring for a patient, the EMT states to her partner, "Why even splint the patient's leg if they're only going to remove it in the ED?" This statement indicates that: Group of answer choices the EMT's focus is not on the common goal. the patient's leg does not require splinting. the EMT does not trust the hospital staff. the EMT is being realistic in her thinking.

the EMT's focus is not on the common goal.

An effective team leader should: Group of answer choices command his or her team. perform all difficult interventions. refrain from any direct patient care. help the team accomplish goals.

help the team accomplish goals.

While transferring patient care to another health care provider, you should be: Group of answer choices assertive. patient. respectful. aggressive.

respectful.

While transferring a patient to ALS staff, interference should be: • optimized for care. • minimized overall. • O kept in place. • transformed by coordination.

• minimized overall.

An infant's blood pressure typically increases with age because: Group of answer choices the infant's total blood volume decreases with age. his or her normal heart rate usually increases with age. as the infant gets older, his or her blood vessels dilate. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight.

blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight.

Which of the following statements regarding an infant's vital signs is correct? Group of answer choices An infant's heart rate generally ranges between 70 and 110 beats/min. An infant's normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler's normal body temperature. By six months of age, an infant's normal tidal volume is 2 to 4 mL/kg. An infant's normal heart rate increases by 10 beats/min each month.

An infant's normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler's normal body temperature

You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that: Group of answer choices small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times. assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs. the infant's proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction. an infant's head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction.

small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times.

Infants are often referred to as "belly breathers" because: Group of answer choices their rib cage is less rigid, and the ribs sit horizontally. an infant's ribs are brittle and are less able to expand. their intercostal muscles are not functional. their diaphragm does not receive impulses from the brain.

their rib cage is less rigid, and the ribs sit horizontally

Which of the following is an anatomic difference between children and adults? Group of answer choices The rib cage of an infant is less flexible than an adult's rib cage. An infant's tongue is proportionately larger than an adult's tongue. The trachea of an infant is proportionately longer than an adult's trachea. An infant's head accounts for less body weight than an adult's head.

An infant's tongue is proportionately larger than an adult's tongue

An infant or small child's airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because: Group of answer choices the back of the head is flat, which prevents a neutral position. he or she has a long neck, which makes the trachea prone to collapse. the occiput is proportionately large, and the trachea is flexible. the tongue is proportionately small and can fall back into the throat.

the occiput is proportionately large, and the trachea is flexible

Which of the following describes the Moro reflex? Group of answer choices When something touches a neonate's cheek, he or she instinctively turns his or her head toward the touch. The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled. An infant's heart rate decreases secondary to hypoxia because he or she depends heavily on the heart rate to perfuse the body. When the sole of the foot is stroked with a blunt object, the big toe lifts upward and the other toes fan outward.

The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled.

The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of: Group of answer choices 3 and 4 months. 6 and 8 months. 7 and 14 months. 9 and 18 months.

9 and 18 months.

You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will most likely find that she: Group of answer choices is unable to track your movements with her eyes. responds to her name but is fearful of your presence. will readily allow you to separate her from her mother. has bulging fontanelles secondary to severe dehydration.

responds to her name but is fearful of your presence.

Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant? Group of answer choices Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up Knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance Responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently Walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions

Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up

In contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child: Group of answer choices becomes acutely anxious in the presence of strangers or in unfamiliar surroundings. clings to a parent or caregiver because he or she knows that the person can be trusted. shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection. reaches out and explores because he or she knows that the parents are there as a safety net.

shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection.

At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children? Group of answer choices 6 to 8 months 10 to 18 months 18 to 24 months 24 to 36 months

10 to 18 months

An infant or small toddler would most likely gain trust in a person who: Group of answer choices provides an organized, routine environment. maintains eye contact, even if the person is a stranger. frequently changes the infant or toddler's regular routine. does not tower over him or her and avoids painful procedures.

provides an organized, routine environment

Which of the following statements regarding toddlers and preschoolers is correct? Group of answer choices The normal respiratory rate in toddlers and preschoolers is between 12 and 20 breaths/min. Toddlers and preschoolers have well-developed lung musculature, even though they have less lung tissue. Muscle mass and bone density decrease in toddlers and preschoolers because of increased physical activity. Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of the loss of passive immunity.

Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of the loss of passive immunity.

The pulse rate of a child from ages 6 to 12 years is approximately: Group of answer choices 60 to 100 beats/min. 70 to 120 beats/min. 90 to 140 beats/min. 100 to 150 beats/min.

70 to 120 beats/min.

In preconventional reasoning, children: Group of answer choices make decisions based on their conscience. look for approval from their peers and society. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want. blame their actions on what they have observed in older children.

act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want.

Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescent age group? Group of answer choices Secondary sexual development begins. Muscle and bone growth both decrease. The normal pulse rate steadily increases. The systolic blood pressure decreases.

Secondary sexual development begins.

A 16-year-old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should: Group of answer choices obtain the majority of your information from one of her parents. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible. avoid asking questions that she will feel uncomfortable answering. recall that patients in this age group prefer not to be treated as adults.

inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible.

Which of the following statements regarding psychosocial development in the adolescent age group is correct? Group of answer choices Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak around 14 to 16 years of age. Family conflict decreases as the adolescent gains control of his or her own life. Adolescents are less fixated on their public image than younger children. Because they think rationally, adolescents are at the lowest risk for suicide.

Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak around 14 to 16 years of age.

The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of: Group of answer choices 18 and 22 years. 19 and 25 years. 21 and 30 years. 25 and 35 years.

19 and 25 years

The low normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year-old is: Group of answer choices 60 mm Hg. 70 mm Hg. 80 mm Hg. 90 mm Hg.

90 mm Hg.

Physical changes that typically occur in early adults include an: Group of answer choices increase in muscle strength and reflexes. increase in height because of spinal disc expansion. increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain. increase in respiratory rate due to increased metabolism.

increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain.

The average pulse rate of persons between 19 and 40 years of age is typically: Group of answer choices 60 beats/min. 70 beats/min. 80 beats/min. 90 beats/min.

70 beats/min.

Which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct? Group of answer choices Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer. Women in the middle adult age group typically experience menopause in their late 50s or early 60s. Significant impairments in hearing and vision begin to occur in persons between the ages of 41 and 44 years. Increased cholesterol levels in the middle adult age group often do not respond to exercise and diet.

Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer.

Why do middle adults commonly experience financial concerns? Group of answer choices They are typically receiving social security and must budget with a fixed income. Most people in the middle adult age group have chronic illnesses and cannot work. They are preparing for retirement but must still manage everyday financial demands. The majority of middle adults still have small children who live at home with them.

They are preparing for retirement but must still manage everyday financial demands.

At present, the average life expectancy is ________ years, while the maximum life expectancy is estimated at ________ years. Group of answer choices 68, 100 70, 102 72, 110 78, 120

78, 120

Which of the following is not a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient's vital signs? Group of answer choices Medications Overall health Increased weight Medical conditions

Increased weight

The decline in cardiac function that commonly occurs in late adulthood is most often related to: Group of answer choices hypotension. medication use. kidney failure. atherosclerosis.

atherosclerosis.

You suspect that a 75-year-old man has internal injuries after he fell and struck his ribs and abdomen on the corner of a table. When assessing and treating an injured patient of this age, you must recall that: Group of answer choices his ability to physiologically compensate for his injury might be impaired due to an inability to increase cardiac output. it is not uncommon to observe heart rates in excess of 150 beats/min in elderly patients with internal injuries. blood pressure is usually adequately maintained because the blood vessels of older people can contract easily. functional blood volume in patients of this age steadily increases due to increased production of red blood cells.

his ability to physiologically compensate for his injury might be impaired due to an inability to increase cardiac output.

With increasing age, the heart must work harder to move the blood effectively because: Group of answer choices the blood vessels become stiff. the arteries dilate significantly. diastolic blood pressure decreases. the blood thickens as a person ages.

the blood vessels become stiff.

When assessing an 80-year-old patient in shock, it is important to remember that: Group of answer choices it is common to see a more significant increase in heart rate than what would be expected in younger adults. age-related changes in the cardiovascular system might make the patient less able to compensate for decreased perfusion. the patient's cardiac output is able to increase by nearly 200% in response to the decrease in perfusion. in older adults, it is especially common to observe a significant decrease in heart rate in response to shock.

age-related changes in the cardiovascular system might make the patient less able to compensate for decreased perfusion.

Breathing is often more difficult in older adults because the: Group of answer choices elasticity of the lungs decreases. surface area of the alveoli increases. overall size of the airway decreases. diaphragm and intercostal muscles enlarge.

elasticity of the lungs decreases.

Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, except: Group of answer choices a loss of respiratory muscle mass. increased stiffness of the thoracic cage. decreased residual volume. increased surface area available for air exchange.

increased surface area available for air exchange.

In late adults, the amount of air left in the lungs after expiration of the maximum amount of air: Group of answer choices remains unchanged because the lungs have become accustomed to years of breathing pollution. decreases, resulting in widespread collapsing of the alveoli and impaired diffusion of gases. increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli. decreases, which increases diffusion in the lungs and causes an accumulation of carbon dioxide.

increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli.

Why does the incidence of diabetes mellitus increase with age? Group of answer choices Decreased food intake, decreased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels Decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production Increased physical activity, increased food intake, and increased insulin production Decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels

Decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production

Age-related changes in the renal system result in: Group of answer choices a significant increase in filtration, which causes the excretion of large amounts of water from the body. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed. the formation of large amounts of urine secondary to an increase in kidney mass of up to 20%. dilation of the blood vessels that supply the nephrons, which allows the kidneys to maintain their function.

a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed.

Which of the following statements regarding age-related changes in the nervous system is correct? Group of answer choices Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons. The metabolic rate in the brain increases with age, but the consumption of oxygen decreases significantly. Generally speaking, the brain increases in size by 10% to 20% by the time a person reaches 80 years of age. Because of a decrease in the number of brain cells, a person's level of intelligence decreases with age.

Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons.

The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is most directly related to: Group of answer choices blood vessel dilation. a decrease in neurons. meningeal deterioration. shrinkage of the brain.

shrinkage of the brain.

Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons.

When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: Group of answer choices deafness and blindness are a normal part of the process of aging. most older patients are confused due to a decrease in brain cells. age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears. the majority of older patients experience a loss of low-frequency hearing.

age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears.

Mental function often begins to decline within ___ year(s) before death. Group of answer choices one three five eight

The nose, chin, umbilicus (navel), and spine are examples of ___________ anatomic structures. Group of answer choices proximal superior midaxillary midline

Midline

The ___________ plane separates the body into left and right halves. Group of answer choices transverse coronal midsagittal sagittal

midsagittal

The axial skeleton is composed of the: Group of answer choices skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column. bones that constitute the pelvic girdle. arms, legs, and pelvis. lower part of the torso and the legs.

skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column.

The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the: Group of answer choices vertebral foramen. foramen magnum. spinous foramen. foramen ovale.

foramen magnum

Which of the following is not a facial bone? Group of answer choices Zygoma Maxilla Mandible Mastoid

Mastoid

The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium. Group of answer choices orbit occiput sphenoid mastoid

Orbit

The atlas is the: Group of answer choices seventh cervical vertebra, which is easily palpable. point where the ribs attach to the sternum. attachment between the first and second cervical vertebrae. first cervical vertebra, which articulates with the skull.

first cervical vertebra, which articulates with the skull.

The cervical spine is composed of ___________ vertebrae. Group of answer choices five seven four six

Twelve pairs of ribs attach to the ___________ section of the spinal column. Group of answer choices lumbar coccyx sacral Thoracic

Thoracic

The ___________ portion of the spinal column is joined to the iliac bones of the pelvis. Group of answer choices coccyx thoracic sacrum lumbar

Sacrum

The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the: Group of answer choices coccyx. ischium. sacrum. ilium.

Coccyx

The areas of the spinal column, in descending order, are: Group of answer choices cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccyx. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx. cervical, thoracic, coccyx, lumbar, and sacral. cervical, thoracic, sacral, lumbar, and coccyx.

cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx.

The most superior section of the sternum is called the: Group of answer choices angle of Louis. costal arch. xiphoid process. manubrium.

Manubrium

The inferior cartilaginous tip of the sternum is called the: Group of answer choices jugular notch. angle of Louis. sternal notch. xiphoid process.

xiphoid process.

The three bones that make up the shoulder girdle are the: Group of answer choices clavicle, scapula, and humerus. acromion, clavicle, and scapula. acromion, scapula, and humerus. acromion, humerus, and clavicle.

clavicle, scapula, and humerus.

The ____________ is a muscular dome that separates the thorax from the abdomen. Group of answer choices costal arch costovertebral angle diaphragm mediastinum

diaphragm

The large, flat, triangular bone that overlies the posterior thoracic wall is called the: Group of answer choices glenoid. scapula. clavicle. acromion.

scapula

The bones of the forearm are called the: Group of answer choices radius and ulna. radius and humerus. humerus and ulna. tibia and radius.

radius and ulna.

The carpal bones form the: Group of answer choices hand. wrist. ankle. foot.

Wrist

The pelvic bones are formed by the fusion of the: Group of answer choices pubis and acetabulum. ilium, pubis, and sacrum. sacrum and ischium. ilium, ischium, and pubis.

ilium, ischium, and pubis.

The femoral head forms a ball-and-socket joint with the: Group of answer choices acetabulum. femoral condyle. ilium. ischium.

acetabulum

The bony prominence on the lateral/superior aspect of the thigh is called the: Group of answer choices greater trochanter. sacral symphysis. iliac crest. sacroiliac joint.

greater trochanter.

The bones that constitute the fingers and toes are called: Group of answer choices metacarpals. phalanges. metatarsals carpals.

phalanges

Anterior to the knee is a specialized bone called the: Group of answer choices calcaneus. tibia. patella. femur.

patella.

The distal aspect of the tibia forms the: Group of answer choices lateral condyle. medial malleolus. lateral malleolus. Achilles tendon.

medial malleolus.

The elbow is an example of a ____________ joint. Group of answer choices ball-and-socket saddle gliding hinge

Hinge

A person's bones will become brittle if he or she is deficient in: Group of answer choices magnesium. potassium. sodium. calcium.

Calcium

The elbow is an example of a ____________ joint. Group of answer choices ball-and-socket saddle gliding hinge

Hinge

Which of the following statements regarding smooth muscle is correct? Group of answer choices Smooth muscle is under control of the voluntary nervous system. A person has no voluntary control over smooth muscle. Smooth muscle is found exclusively within blood vessels. The biceps and quadriceps are examples of smooth muscle.

A person has no voluntary control over smooth muscle.

Which of the following structures does not contain smooth muscle? Group of answer choices Urinary system Blood vessels Skeletal system Gastrointestinal tract

Skeletal system

Skeletal muscle is also called: Group of answer choices smooth muscle. voluntary muscle. autonomic muscle. involuntary muscle.

voluntary muscle.

A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is: Group of answer choices oxygen. heat. nitrogen. lactic acid.

Heat

Which of the following is a function of the upper airway? Group of answer choices Exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide Creates sound from vocal cord vibration Relaxes smooth muscle in the bronchioles Warms and humidifies inhaled air

Warms and humidifies inhaled air

The vocal cords are located in the: Group of answer choices nasopharynx. larynx. oropharynx. pharynx.

Larynx

The leaf-shaped flap of cartilage that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing is called the: Group of answer choices vallecula. uvula. epiglottis. pharynx.

epiglottis.

The firm cartilaginous ring that forms the inferior portion of the larynx is called the: Group of answer choices costal cartilage. tracheal cartilage. thyroid cartilage. cricoid cartilage.

cricoid cartilage.

Together, the right and left lungs contain ____________ lobes. Group of answer choices five four six three

As the bronchus divides into smaller bronchioles, the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the: Group of answer choices alveoli. bronchi. capillaries. pleura.

alveoli

The diaphragm is unique because it: Group of answer choices is both a voluntary and an involuntary muscle. does not receive impulses from the brain. is the exclusive muscle of breathing. does not have striations like skeletal muscle.

is both a voluntary and an involuntary muscle

The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract during: Group of answer choices exhalation. respiration. inhalation. ventilation.

inhalation

Negative-pressure breathing involves: Group of answer choices a drop in pressure within the chest cavity. relaxing the respiratory muscles. increasing airway resistance during breathing. pushing or forcing air into the lungs.

a drop in pressure within the chest cavity

How does respiration differ from ventilation? Group of answer choices Respiration occurs when the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract, whereas ventilation occurs when those same muscles relax. Respiration occurs when oxygen is delivered to the cells of the body, whereas ventilation occurs when carbon dioxide is removed. Respiration is the process of gas exchange, whereas ventilation is the movement of air between the lungs and the environment. Ventilation occurs when air is forced into the lungs, whereas respiration occurs when air is drawn or sucked into the lungs.

Respiration is the process of gas exchange, whereas ventilation is the movement of air between the lungs and the environment.

Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called: Group of answer choices diffusion. ventilation. breathing. osmosis.

Diffusion

Breathing occurs as the result of a(n): Group of answer choices decrease in oxygen, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. decrease in carbon dioxide, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. increase in oxygen, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

Which of the following statements regarding the medulla oblongata is correct? Group of answer choices The medulla reduces the rate and depth of breathing if it detects an increase in carbon dioxide levels. The medulla's primary role is to increase the body's level of oxygen, not to decrease its level of carbon dioxide. The medulla is sensitive to pH changes and sends messages via the phrenic nerve to contract the diaphragm. The medulla is a portion of the cerebrum and primarily responds to an increase in the pH of cerebrospinal fluid.

The medulla is sensitive to pH changes and sends messages via the phrenic nerve to contract the diaphragm.

Relative to an adult's airway anatomy, the child's: Group of answer choices mouth and nose are proportionately larger. trachea is smaller, softer, and less flexible. pharynx is smaller and less deeply curved. tongue takes up less space in the pharynx.

pharynx is smaller and less deeply curved.

The body's backup system of respiratory control, which is based on low concentrations of oxygen in the blood, is called the: Group of answer choices oxyhemoglobin drive. hypoxic drive. pneumotaxic drive. hypocarbic drive.

hypoxic drive.

Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is typically unique to infants and children? Group of answer choices Irregular breathing pattern Unequal chest expansion Seesaw respirations Unequal breath sounds

Seesaw respirations

Both areas of the pons are used to: Group of answer choices ensure that the lungs do not overinflate during breathing. set the base rate and depth of breathing in a healthy person. provide forced inspiration or expiration as needed. augment respirations during emotional or physical stress.

augment respirations during emotional or physical stress.

The amount of air that remains in the lungs simply to keep them open is called the: Group of answer choices inspiratory reserve volume. residual volume. tidal volume. expiratory reserve volume.

residual volume.

Dead space is the portion of the respiratory system that: Group of answer choices receives oxygen but is unable to release carbon dioxide. includes the alveoli and capillaries surrounding the alveoli. must be filled with air before gas exchange can take place. contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange.

contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange.

If a patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient's respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that: Group of answer choices inspiratory reserve is increased. overall tidal volume is increased. minute volume is decreased. expiratory reserve volume is decreased.

minute volume is decreased.

Signs of adequate breathing in the adult include all of the following, except: Group of answer choices rhythmic inhalation and exhalation. bilaterally clear breath sounds. respirations of 18 breaths/min. a reduction in tidal volume.

a reduction in tidal volume.

Which of the following is most characteristic of adequate breathing in an adult? Group of answer choices Respirations of 20 breaths/min and bilateral chest movement Cool, clammy skin and retractions above the clavicles Use of the accessory muscles in the neck and cyanosis Respirations of 30 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume

Respirations of 20 breaths/min and bilateral chest movement

Which of the following statements regarding agonal respirations is correct? Group of answer choices Agonal respirations typically occur before the heart stops. Agonal respirations are characterized by fast, irregular breaths. Agonal respirations result in excessive tidal volume. Agonal respirations are ineffective and need to be assisted.

Agonal respirations are ineffective and need to be assisted.

Which of the following statements regarding the heart is correct? Group of answer choices The heart relies on an external electrical source to function correctly. The heart receives its blood supply from the pulmonary arteries. The heart can tolerate an interruption of oxygen for five minutes. The heart is under the control of the autonomic nervous system.

The heart is under the control of the autonomic nervous system.

The muscle tissue of the heart is called the: Group of answer choices pericardium. epicardium. myocardium. endocardium.

myocardium.

The primary function of the right atrium is to: Group of answer choices receive blood from the pulmonary veins. receive blood from the vena cava. pump blood to the pulmonary artery. pump blood to the lungs for reoxygenation.

receive blood from the vena cava.

Contraction of the right ventricle causes: Group of answer choices closure of the mitral and aortic valves. ejection of blood into the systemic circulation. a return of blood from the pulmonary veins. blood to flow into the pulmonary circulation.

blood to flow into the pulmonary circulation.

The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the: Group of answer choices pulmonary arteries. inferior venae cavae. pulmonary veins. superior venae cavae.

pulmonary veins.

blood to flow into the pulmonary circulation.

At rest, the normal adult heart rate should not exceed: Group of answer choices 80 beats/min. 90 beats/min. 100 beats/min. 70 beats/min.

100 beats/min.

During each heartbeat, ___________ of blood is ejected from the adult heart, an amount called the stroke volume. Group of answer choices 70 to 80 mL 90 to 100 mL 40 to 50 mL 100 to 120 mL

70 to 80 mL

Cardiac output (CO) is affected by: Group of answer choices heart rate only. stroke volume and heart rate. blood pressure. stroke volume only.

stroke volume and heart rate.

The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the: Group of answer choices sinoatrial node. bundle of His. Purkinje fibers. atrioventricular node.

sinoatrial node.

What happens when blood volume is lost from the body? Group of answer choices The veins dilate to increase systemic perfusion. Widespread vasodilation causes blood pressure to decrease. Arterial blood is diverted to the skin and muscles. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure.

The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure.

The major artery that supplies all other arteries with blood is the: Group of answer choices aorta. femoral. carotid. brachial.

Aorta

The smooth muscles that cause the artery to contract are found in the: Group of answer choices tunica adventitia. tunica intima. lumen. tunica media.

tunica media.

Which of the following are central pulses? Group of answer choices Popliteal and ulnar Femoral and carotid Brachial and radial Temporal and pedal

Femoral and carotid

Which of the following arteries does not carry highly oxygenated blood? Group of answer choices Femoral Aorta Renal Pulmonary

Pulmonary

The artery that can be palpated on the anterior surface of the foot is the: Group of answer choices posterior tibial. anterior tibial. ventral pedis. dorsalis pedis.

dorsalis pedis.

The exchange of oxygen and nutrients for waste products of metabolism occurs at the cellular level in the: Group of answer choices arteries. arterioles. venules. capillaries.

capillaries.

The descending aorta branches into the: Group of answer choices external carotid arteries. internal carotid arteries. deep femoral arteries. common iliac arteries.

common iliac arteries.

Bleeding is normally stopped by: Group of answer choices activation of platelets. capillary rupture. increased white blood cells. arterial dilation.

activation of platelets.

Deoxygenated blood from the abdomen, pelvis, and lower extremities is returned to the right atrium via the: Group of answer choices common iliac vein. coronary sinus vein. superior vena cava. inferior vena cava.

inferior vena cava.

Worn-out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered from the blood by the: Group of answer choices pancreas. liver. spleen. kidney.

Spleen

Which of the following statements regarding plasma is correct? Group of answer choices Plasma has no role in the body's blood-clotting mechanism. Plasma transports the blood cells and nutrients. Most of the body's plasma is contained within the large veins. Approximately 45% of the blood is composed of plasma.

Plasma transports the blood cells and nutrients.

Hemoglobin is a molecule that attaches to ___________ and carries oxygen. Group of answer choices monocytes thrombocytes erythrocytes leukocytes

erythrocytes

White blood cells, which are also called leukocytes, function by: Group of answer choices producing blood-clotting factors. protecting the body from infection. producing the body's erythrocytes. carrying oxygen and other nutrients.

protecting the body from infection.

What is the function of platelets? Group of answer choices Transport of oxygen and nutrients Initial formation of a blood clot Defense against invading organisms Transport of cellular waste materials

Initial formation of a blood clot

The phase of the cardiac cycle in which the ventricles fill with blood is called: Group of answer choices systole. diastole stroke volume. cardiac output.

diastole

A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The "130" in this measurement represents: Group of answer choices atrial contraction. ventricular contraction. ventricular filling. ventricular relaxation.

ventricular contraction.

The average adult has approximately ___________ of blood in his or her vascular system. Group of answer choices 5 L 4 L 6 L 3 L

The circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' current needs is called: Group of answer choices metabolism. perfusion. cardiac output. respiration.

Perfusion

___________ pressure is the pressure exerted by a liquid that occurs when blood moves through an artery at relatively high pressures. Group of answer choices Diffusion Oncotic Osmotic Hydrostatic

Hydrostatic

Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include: Group of answer choices acetylcholine and insulin. norepinephrine and acetylcholine. epinephrine and norepinephrine. glucagon and noradrenaline.

epinephrine and norepinephrine.

Stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors results in: Group of answer choices constriction of the blood vessels. increased heart rate. increased cardiac contractility. dilation of the blood vessels.

constriction of the blood vessels.

An increase in heart rate and contractility occurs due to stimulation of: Group of answer choices beta-2 receptors. alpha-1 receptors. alpha-2 receptors. beta-1 receptors.

beta-1 receptors.

Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system would result in: Group of answer choices a slower heart rate. tachycardia. vasoconstriction. a strong pulse.

a slower heart rate.

Which of the following statements regarding nervous system control of the cardiovascular system is correct? Group of answer choices Alpha-adrenergic receptors are located exclusively in the heart and are stimulated by epinephrine. When stimulated, the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for increasing the heart rate. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems work together to perform the same function. Baroreceptors located throughout the body provide information to the brain regarding the blood pressure.

Baroreceptors located throughout the body provide information to the brain regarding the blood pressure.

Activities such as walking, talking, and writing are regulated by the: Group of answer choices somatic nervous system. autonomic nervous system. involuntary nervous system. central nervous system.

somatic nervous system.

The central nervous system is composed of the: Group of answer choices motor and sensory nerves. spinal cord and sensory nerves. brain and spinal cord. brain and sensory nerves.

brain and spinal cord.

The autonomic nervous system controls all of the following functions, except: Group of answer choices vessel dilation. breathing. breath holding. digestion.

breath holding.

The largest portion of the brain is the ___________, which is commonly referred to as the "gray matter." Group of answer choices diencephalon cerebellum cerebrum brain stem

cerebrum

The part of the brain that controls the left side of the body is the: Group of answer choices left-side cerebrum. left parietal lobe. right-side cerebrum. right temporal lobe.

right-side cerebrum.

Trauma to the __________ lobe of the brain would likely result in visual disturbances. Group of answer choices occipital temporal parietal frontal

occipital

Which part of the central nervous system is responsible for coordinating bodily movements such as writing or sewing? Group of answer choices Hypothalamus Brain stem Cerebellum Cerebrum

Cerebellum

All critical life functions are coordinated in which part of the brain? Group of answer choices Cerebellum Cerebrum Brainstem Gray matter

Brainstem

Your ability to remain awake is a function of the: Group of answer choices limbic system. reticular activating system. pons and medulla. cerebellum.

reticular activating system.

Which of the following skin layers contains sweat and oil glands, hair follicles, blood vessels, and nerve endings? Group of answer choices Dermis Epidermis Sebaceous Subcutaneous

Dermis

Which layer of the skin is composed of fatty tissue and serves as an insulator for the body? Group of answer choices Sebaceous Dermal Subcutaneous Epidermis

Subcutaneous

Which of the following is not a function of the skin? Group of answer choices Pressure and pain perception Metabolic coordination Temperature regulation Sensory reception

Metabolic coordination

Which of the following organs is not part of the digestive system? Group of answer choices Stomach Gallbladder Kidney Pancreas

Kidney

The __________ fills the entire anteroposterior depth of the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. Group of answer choices spleen stomach liver pancreas

Liver

Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen? Group of answer choices Stomach Cecum Liver Spleen

Spleen

Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space? Group of answer choices Gallbladder Spleen Kidneys Ascending aorta

Kidney

The kidneys and pancreas are called retroperitoneal organs because they: Group of answer choices are located behind the abdominal cavity. sit in front of the liver, spleen, and stomach. are protected by the anterior rib cage. lie just anterior to the costovertebral angle.

are located behind the abdominal cavity.

The exocrine gland of the pancreas secretes: Group of answer choices insulin. bile. pancreatic juice. glucose.

pancreatic juice.

Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: Group of answer choices pancreas. stomach. kidneys. gallbladder.

Gallbladder

The primary organ responsible for absorption of products of digestion is the: Group of answer choices gallbladder. pancreas. small intestine. large intestine.

small intestine.

Which of the following systems is responsible for releasing hormones that regulate body activities? Group of answer choices Reproductive Endocrine Skeletal Nervous

Endocrine

Abnormalities in metabolism are most likely to be caused by dysfunction of the: Group of answer choices parathyroid gland. pancreas. adrenal gland. thyroid gland.

thyroid gland.

Which of the following glands regulates the function of all other endocrine glands in the body? Group of answer choices Pituitary Parathyroid Thyroid Adrenal

Pituitary

Which of the following statements regarding the kidneys is correct? Group of answer choices Both kidneys are located in the anterior abdominal cavity and lie in between the liver and the spleen. Because the kidneys require little oxygen, only 5% of the body's blood volume passes through them each minute. A series of small blood vessels attach the kidneys directly to the superior vena cava and renal arteries. The kidneys eliminate toxic waste products from the body and control the body's fluid balance.

The kidneys eliminate toxic waste products from the body and control the body's fluid balance.

Urine is transported from the kidneys to the urinary bladder via the: Group of answer choices prostate. urethra. ureters. renal duct.

Ureters

What is the function of the fallopian tubes? Group of answer choices To produce progesterone and estrogen To connect the ovaries To supply blood to the uterine lining To transport a mature egg to the uterus

To transport a mature egg to the uterus

Large amounts of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) are generated when: Group of answer choices the cells function with adequate oxygen. circulating blood glucose levels fall. the cells function without oxygen. carbon dioxide levels in the blood are high.

the cells function with adequate oxygen.

The waste products of aerobic metabolism include: Group of answer choices carbon dioxide and water. ATP and glucose. glucose and lactic acid. uric acid and nitrogen.

carbon dioxide and water.

Which of the following statements regarding anaerobic metabolism is correct? Group of answer choices Without anaerobic metabolism, perfusion to the body will suffer and cellular death will occur. The body functions optimally and produces maximum ATP during anaerobic metabolism. Anaerobic metabolism produces lactic acid and occurs when cellular oxygen is limited. Anaerobic metabolism can be supported in most of the body's cells for up to 10 minutes.

Anaerobic metabolism produces lactic acid and occurs when cellular oxygen is limited.

Pathophysiology is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular: Group of answer choices medication. protocol. disease. assessment.

disease

The air you breathe is _______ oxygen, and the air you exhale is _______ oxygen. Group of answer choices 25%; 32% 16%; 25% 21%; 35% 21%; 16%

21% 16%

A patient has a large accumulation of blood in the sac surrounding the heart. Which of the following types of shock would this condition cause? Group of answer choices Obstructive Cardiogenic Neurogenic Hypovolemic

Obstructive

Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is a product of: Group of answer choices heart rate and systemic vascular resistance. cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance. stroke volume and systemic vascular resistance. heart rate and stroke volume.

cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance.

In an otherwise healthy adult, blood loss would cause: Group of answer choices vascular constriction and tachycardia. vascular dilation and bradycardia. vascular dilation and tachycardia. vascular constriction and bradycardia.

vascular constriction and tachycardia.

Which set of nerves is responsible for carrying information from the body to the central nervous system? Group of answer choices Motor Cranial Sensory Vertebral

Sensory

The amount of air that remains in the lungs simply to keep them open is called the:

residual volume.

The _________ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle. Group of answer choices coccyx sacrum thorax ischium

Sacrum

When a person is standing upright, the weight of anything being lifted and carried in the hands is first reflected onto the: Group of answer choices pelvic girdle. spinal column. thigh muscles. shoulder girdle.

shoulder girdle

When the shoulder girdle is aligned over the pelvis during lifting: Group of answer choices the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae. the hands can be held further apart from the body. the muscles of the back experience increased strain. the risk of back injuries is significantly increased.

the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae.

An EMT might injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the: Group of answer choices back is bent forward at the hips. hands are held close to the legs. shoulder is aligned over the pelvis. force is exerted straight down the spine.

back is bent forward at the hips.

The first rule of safe lifting is to: Group of answer choices always lift with your palms facing down. spread your legs approximately 20″ apart. keep your back in a slightly curved position. keep your back in a straight, vertical position.

keep your back in a straight, vertical position.

Which of the following statements regarding the power lift is correct? Group of answer choices It involves using your lower back instead of your legs to lift. The leg muscles should remain relaxed during the power lift. It is the safest and most powerful method of lifting a patient. It is not recommended for people with weak knees or thighs.

It is the safest and most powerful method of lifting a patient.

The proper technique for using the power grip is to: Group of answer choices lift with your palms up. rotate your palms down. hold the handle with your fingers. position your hands about 6″ apart.

lift with your palms up.

Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct? Group of answer choices The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso. Most of the patient's weight rests on the foot end of the stretcher. A semi-sitting patient's weight is equally distributed on both ends. The EMT at the patient's head will bear the least amount of weight.

The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso.

General guidelines for carrying a patient on a stretcher include: Group of answer choices maintaining slight flexion of your back. leaning back from your waist when lifting. slightly twisting your body when carrying. constant communication with your partners.

constant communication with your partners.

To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should: Group of answer choices flex at the waist instead of the hips. avoid the use of log rolls or body drags. use a direct carry whenever possible. keep the weight as close to your body as possible.

keep the weight as close to your body as possible.

Which of the following most accurately describes the correct position of the EMTs who are executing the diamond carry technique? Group of answer choices Two at the head, two at the feet, and a fifth EMT balancing the torso One at the head, two at the feet, and a fourth EMT balancing the torso One at the head, one at the feet, and one on each side of the patient's torso Two at the head, one at the feet, and one on the left side of the patient's torso

One at the head, one at the feet, and one on each side of the patient's torso

When carrying a patient on a backboard up or down stairs: Group of answer choices keep your palms facing down. keep the head end elevated. carry the patient headfirst. keep the foot end elevated.

keep the head end elevated.

When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid: Group of answer choices flexing your body at the knees. the use of more than two EMTs. using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible. the use of a long backboard or scoop stretcher.

using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible

Which of the following is the most appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury? Group of answer choices Long backboard Scoop stretcher Portable stretcher Wheeled stretcher

Long backboard

To facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should: Group of answer choices be positioned at the feet so the team can hear. use preparatory commands to initiate any moves. speak softly but clearly to avoid startling the patient. never become involved in the move, only direct the move.

use preparatory commands to initiate any moves.

With proper technique, you and your partner should be able to safely lift a patient who weighs up to ______ pounds. Group of answer choices 150 175 190 220

220

You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 pounds with fewer than _______ rescuers, regardless of individual strength. Group of answer choices three four five six

You and your partner respond to the scene of a 49-year-old male with acute abdominal pain. As you enter his residence, you find him lying on the floor in severe pain. He is conscious and alert. The patient appears to weigh in excess of 350 pounds. Your first action should be to: Group of answer choices request the fire department if one attempt to move him fails. encourage the patient to walk himself to the awaiting ambulance. assess him and then move him to the stretcher with a direct carry. request additional personnel before making any attempts to lift him.

request additional personnel before making any attempts to lift him.

As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should: Group of answer choices reposition your hands and continue to move the patient. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance. guide your partner while moving the chair backwards. stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs.

stop the move and request additional lifting assistance.

When pulling a patient, you should extend your arms no more than ________ in front of your torso. Group of answer choices 5″ to 10″ 10″ to 15″ 15″ to 20″ 20″ to 30″

15- 20

When using a body drag to pull a patient who is on the ground, you should: Group of answer choices kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over. extend your elbows as far beyond your anterior torso as possible. bend your back laterally to maximize your amount of pulling power. avoid situations involving strenuous effort lasting more than five minutes.

kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over.

To avoid injury when pushing a patient or other object, you should: Group of answer choices push the patient from an overhead position if possible. avoid pushing the patient with your elbows fully extended. push from the area of your body between the knees and hips. kneel if you are pushing an object that is above waist level.

avoid pushing the patient with your elbows fully extended.

Which of the following statements regarding an emergency patient move is correct? Group of answer choices The spine must be fully immobilized prior to performing an emergency move. An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment. The patient is dragged against the body's long axis during an emergency move. It is not possible to perform an emergency move without injuring the patient.

An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment.

In which of the following situations is an emergency patient move indicated? Group of answer choices A patient has an altered mental status or is in shock. The EMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards. The EMT has to gain access to lesser-injured patients in a vehicle. A significant mechanism of injury is involved.

The EMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards.

Which of the following steps is not proper procedure when performing an emergency move? Group of answer choices Using a long-axis body drag during the move Pulling the patient on a blanket or similar object Pulling the patient's clothing in the shoulder area Lifting the patient by the belt to move him or her

Lifting the patient by the belt to move him or her

You and your partner enter the residence of an elderly couple, both of whom are found unconscious in their bed. There is no evidence of trauma. As you begin your assessment, you and your partner notice the smell of natural gas in the residence. Which of the following should be your most appropriate action? Group of answer choices Perform a rapid assessment and then move the patients from their residence. Request another ambulance to assist with lifting and moving the patients. Quickly exit the residence and request the fire department to move the patients. Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag.

Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag

Which of the following situations would require an urgent patient move? Group of answer choices Conscious patient with abrasions and a possibly fractured humerus Imminent risk of a fire or explosion in or near the patient's vehicle Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock Stable patient who is blocking access to a critically injured patient

Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock

A critical aspect of the rapid extrication technique is to: Group of answer choices maintain stabilization of the spine at all times. move the patient as quickly as you possibly can. extricate the patient with one coordinated move. apply a vest-style device before moving the patient.

maintain stabilization of the spine at all times.

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should: Group of answer choices direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head. apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with a clothes drag. apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient. slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board.

direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head.

Situations in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following, except: Group of answer choices a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle. a patient who blocks access to another seriously injured patient. a patient who needs immediate care that requires a supine position. a patient whose condition requires immediate transport to the hospital.

a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle.

When performing the rapid extrication technique to remove a patient from his or her vehicle, you should: Group of answer choices apply a vest-style extrication device prior to moving the patient. apply a cervical collar and immobilize the patient on a short backboard. grasp the patient by the clothing and drag him or her from the car. apply a cervical collar and remove the patient on a long backboard.

apply a cervical collar and remove the patient on a long backboard.

The most serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: Group of answer choices unnecessarily wasting time. injury to you or your patient. causing patient anxiety or fear. confusion among team members.

injury to you or your patient

A 56-year-old female is found supine in a narrow hallway of her mobile home. She complains of severe weakness and dizziness, and states that she is unable to walk. There is no evidence of trauma, and the patient states that she did not fall. How should you and your partner move this patient to a more spacious area? Group of answer choices Direct carry Extremity lift Scoop stretcher Emergency move

Extremity lift

In which of the following situations would a direct ground lift be the most appropriate method of moving a patient? Group of answer choices A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain A patient who complains of hip pain following a fall A pedestrian with back pain after being struck by a car An unconscious patient with a possible ischemic stroke

A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain

The extremity lift would not be appropriate to use on a patient: Group of answer choices without a spinal injury. with a deformed humerus. who complains of nausea. with forearm lacerations.

with a deformed humerus.

The direct carry is used to transfer a patient: Group of answer choices with multiple long bone injuries. with a possible cervical spine injury. from a bed to the ambulance stretcher. who cannot be placed on a backboard.

from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.

Which is the most appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to a wheeled stretcher? Group of answer choices Log roll Direct carry Extremity carry Draw sheet method

Draw sheet method

Which of the following conditions or situations presents the most unique challenge to the EMT when immobilizing an elderly patient on a long backboard? Group of answer choices Joint flexibility Patient disorientation Naturally deformed bones Abnormal spinal curvature

Abnormal spinal curvature

An 81-year-old female fell and struck her head. You find the patient lying on her left side. She is conscious and complains of neck and upper back pain. As you are assessing her, you note that she has a severely kyphotic spine. What is the most appropriate method of immobilizing this patient? Group of answer choices Apply a cervical collar and place her in a sitting position on the wheeled stretcher. Immobilize her in a supine position on a long backboard and secure her with straps. Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard. Move her to a supine position and immobilize her with a scoop stretcher and padding.

Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard.

In most instances, you should move a patient on a wheeled ambulance stretcher by: Group of answer choices pushing the foot of the stretcher while your partner guides the head. pushing the head of the stretcher while your partner guides the foot. slightly lifting the stretcher to prevent unnecessary patient movement. retracting the undercarriage and carrying the stretcher to the ambulance.

pushing the head of the stretcher while your partner guides the foot.

In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include: Group of answer choices a collapsible undercarriage. weight capacity of up to 650 pounds. increased stability from a wider wheelbase. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher.

increased stability from a wider wheelbase.

A folding or portable stretcher is most beneficial when: Group of answer choices a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance. an injured patient cannot be placed on a long board due to severe back pain. a conscious, alert patient must be carried down several flights of steep stairs. a patient requires full spinal immobilization when spinal injury is suspected.

a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance.

You have two patients who were involved in a motor vehicle crash when their SUV struck a tree Group of answer choices Immobilize both patients with a cervical collar and long backboard based on the mechanism of injury; place one on the wheeled stretcher and the other on the squad bench. Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with the deformed femur on a folding stretcher secured to the squad bench. Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the squad bench; allow the patient with the deformed femur to sit on the wheeled stretcher. Apply a traction splint to the patient with the deformed femur and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with neck and back pain on the squad bench immobilized with a cervical collar and scoop stretcher.

Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the squad bench; allow the patient with the deformed femur to sit on the wheeled stretcher.

An unrestrained patient is sitting in his car after an automobile crash. He is conscious and alert, has no visible trauma, and is complaining of neck and back pain. Before removing him from his car, you should: Group of answer choices slide a scoop stretcher under his buttocks and rotate him laterally. apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device. perform a detailed head-to-toe assessment and apply a cervical collar. maintain manual stabilization of his head and grasp him by the clothes.

apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device.

The most appropriate carrying device to use when moving a patient across rough or uneven terrain is the: Group of answer choices stair chair. wheeled stretcher. scoop stretcher. basket stretcher.

basket stretcher.

Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is not correct? Group of answer choices The construction of the scoop stretcher prohibits X-rays while the patient is on it. You must fully secure the patient to the scoop stretcher before moving him or her. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal column. Both sides of the patient must be accessible for a scoop stretcher to be used.

A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal column.

When moving a conscious, weak patient down a flight of stairs, you should: Group of answer choices secure the patient to a scoop stretcher and carry him or her headfirst down the stairs to the awaiting stretcher. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair. collapse the undercarriage of the wheeled stretcher and carefully carry the patient down the stairs on the stretcher. assist the patient in walking down the stairs and place him or her on the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs.

place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair.

Which of the following statements regarding the neonatal isolette is correct? Group of answer choices The isolette serves to keep the neonate warm and protects him or her from excess handling. A freestanding isolette should be used, not one that is secured to the stretcher. The safest type of isolette is one that takes the place of the ambulance stretcher. If an isolette is not available, the neonate can safely be transported on the stretcher.

The isolette serves to keep the neonate warm and protects him or her from excess handling.

It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease. Group of answer choices throw out decontaminate incinerate properly store

decontaminate

After applying medical restraints to a combative patient, you should: inform the patient that the restraints are punishment for their behavior remove them only if the patient verbally commits to calming down. Pick the right answer position the patient prone in order to further prevent injury to yourself. remove them only after hospital personnel have requested you to do so.

remove them only after hospital personnel have requested you to do so.

Which of the following is an example of a symptom? Cyanosis Headache Hypertension Tachycardia

Headache

Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms? Group of answer choices A 49-year-old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears A 55-year-old male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis A 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness

61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis

Which of the following actions would NOT be performed during the scene Size-up? Group of answer choices Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status Noting the position of a crashed motor vehicle Notifying the dispatcher to send fire personnel Asking a neighbor to secure the patient's dog

Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status

While en route to the scene of a shooting, the dispatcher advises you that the perpetrator has fled the scene. You should: Group of answer choices confirm this information with law enforcement personnel at the scene. request law enforcement personnel if the scene is unsafe upon arrival. ask the dispatcher if he or she knows the location of the perpetrator. proceed to the scene as usual but exercise extreme caution upon arrival.

confirm this information with law enforcement personnel at the scene.

Upon arriving at a potentially unsafe scene, you should first: Group of answer choices ensure that you are safe. request another ambulance. remove all bystanders. move the patient to safety.

ensure that you are safe.

You are assessing a 72-year-old man with abdominal pain. The patient is sitting in a chair; he is conscious, alert, and calm. As you are talking to the patient, your partner discreetly directs your attention to a handgun, which is located on a nearby table. You should: Group of answer choices immediately cease all patient care, carefully back out of the residence, and request law enforcement assistance. direct your partner to move the gun to a safe area and then advise the patient that his weapon has been secured. position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance. document the presence of the weapon, including its specific location, and continue your assessment of the patient.

position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance.

Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct? Group of answer choices A significant MOI usually results in patient death or permanent disability. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries. A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma. The exact location of a patient's injuries can be determined by the MOI.

The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries.

The MOST effective way to determine whether your patient's problem is medical or traumatic in origin is to: Group of answer choices perform a careful and thorough assessment. establish the patient's medical history early. ask if bystanders are familiar with the patient. take note of the patient's general appearance.

perform a careful and thorough assessment.

When should you take standard precautions during an EMS call? Group of answer choices Before you load the patient into the ambulance. Immediately after completion of your primary assessment. After it has been determined that the patient is bleeding. Before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact

before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact.

Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after: Group of answer choices all the patients have been triaged. area hospitals have been notified. a physician arrives at the scene. medical control has been contacted.

all the patients have been triaged.

When is it MOST appropriate to consider requesting additional ambulances at an accident scene? Group of answer choices When you determine there are multiple patients After noncritical patients have been identified After you have triaged all the critical patients When all the deceased patients are accounted for

When you determine there are multiple patients

The goal of the primary assessment is to: Group of answer choices determine the need to perform a head-to-toe assessment. identify patients that require transport to a trauma center. identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions. determine if the patient's problem is medical or traumatic.

identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions.

Observations made when forming a general impression of a patient would include all of the following, EXCEPT: Group of answer choices pulse strength. appearance. race and gender. level of distress.

pulse strength.

When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should: Group of answer choices assess his mental status by having him move his head. stand behind him and immediately stabilize his head. ensure that the patient can see you approaching him. approach him from behind and ask him not to move.

ensure that the patient can see you approaching him.

Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness? Group of answer choices Poisoning Inadequate perfusion Drug overdose Acute anxiety

Acute anxiety

Which of the following patients has signs of an altered mental status? Group of answer choices A patient with an acute allergic reaction and dizziness A diabetic who has nausea and severe lightheadedness A patient who overdosed and tells you he tried to kill himself A patient with a head injury who is slow to answer questions

A patient with a head injury who is slow to answer questions

A patient who moves and cries out only when you pinch his or her trapezius muscle is said to be: Group of answer choices responsive to verbal stimuli. responsive to painful stimuli. conscious and alert. completely unresponsive.

responsive to painful stimuli.

An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. You assess her level of consciousness as unresponsive using the AVPU scale. Your initial care should focus on: Group of answer choices obtaining baseline vital signs. providing immediate transport. gathering medical history data. airway, breathing, and circulation.

airway, breathing, and circulation

A patient's short-term memory is MOST likely intact if they correctly answer questions regarding: Group of answer choices person and place. day and event event and person. time and place.

day and event

A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is: Group of answer choices 10. 14. 12. 13.

An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score? Group of answer choices Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain Opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain Eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension

Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain

When you inspect a patient's pupils with a penlight, the pupils should normally react to the light by: Group of answer choices dilating. constricting. fluttering. enlarging.

Constricting

When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to: Group of answer choices become larger. dilate. become smaller. not react.

become smaller.

Which of the following pupillary changes would indicate depressed brain function? Group of answer choices Both pupils constrict when a bright light is introduced. Both pupils react briskly to light instead of sluggishly. Both pupils are sluggish with introduction of a bright light. Both pupils dilate when a bright light is removed.

Both pupils are sluggish with introduction of a bright light.

What maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma? Group of answer choices Head tilt-neck lift maneuver Jaw-thrust maneuver Head tilt-chin lift maneuver Tongue-jaw lift maneuver

Jaw-thrust maneuver

Which of the following statements regarding stridor is correct? Group of answer choices It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound. It is a whistling sound heard in the lower airway. It is caused by incorrect airway positioning. It suggests the presence of fluid in the lungs.

It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound.

Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway? Group of answer choices Unresponsiveness Inspiratory stridor Audible breathing Ability to speak

Ability to speak

You respond to a call for a female pedestrian who has been struck by a car. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a primary assessment. She is unconscious, has ineffective breathing, and has bloody secretions in her mouth. You should: Group of answer choices assist her breathing with a bag-valve mask. quickly insert an oropharyngeal airway. assess the rate and quality of her pulse. immediately suction her oropharynx.

immediately suction her oropharynx.

A 40-year-old male crashed his motorcycle into a tree. He is semiconscious, has snoring respirations, and has a laceration to the forearm with minimal bleeding. You should: Group of answer choices tilt the patient's head back and lift up on his chin. apply a pressure dressing to the patient's arm. open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver. apply a cervical collar and suction his airway.

open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver.

After performing a head tilt-chin lift maneuver to open the airway of an unresponsive patient who has a pulse, you should: Group of answer choices suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct. assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity. place him or her in the recovery position. provide positive-pressure ventilatory assistance.

suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct.

A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing: Group of answer choices without difficulty. with shallow depth. without assistance. at a normal rate.

without assistance.

Supplemental oxygen without assisted ventilation would MOST likely be administered to patients: Group of answer choices who are semiconscious with shallow respirations. with rapid respirations and a reduced tidal volume. who have accessory muscle use and slow breathing. with difficulty breathing and adequate tidal volume.

with difficulty breathing and adequate tidal volume.

You are dispatched to the county jail for an inmate who is "sick." When you arrive, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, unresponsive. His airway is patent, and his respirations are rapid and shallow. Your initial action should be to: Group of answer choices apply a pulse oximeter. assist his ventilations. request a paramedic unit. assess his blood pressure.

assist his ventilations.

If a patient develops difficulty breathing after your primary assessment, you should immediately: Group of answer choices begin assisting his or her breathing. reevaluate his or her airway status. auscultate his or her breath sounds. determine his or her respiratory rate.

reevaluate his or her airway status.

The normal respiratory rate for an adult should range from: Group of answer choices 18 to 24 breaths per minute. 10 to 12 breaths per minute. 12 to 20 breaths per minute. 24 to 28 breaths per minute.

12 to 20 breaths per minute.

The goal of oxygenation for most patients is an oxygen saturation of: Group of answer choices 100% 90% to 94% 88% to 90% 94% to 99%

94% to 99%

Normal respiratory rates should not exceed _______ breaths per minute in toddlers and _______ breaths per minute in infants. Group of answer choices 30, 40 20, 30 40, 60 18, 28

40, 60

Which of the following is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs? Group of answer choices Applying a pulse oximeter and monitoring the SpO 2 Evaluating the patient's chest for cyanosis Looking for the presence of accessory muscle use Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope

Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope

Which of the following abnormal breath sounds indicates obstruction of the upper airway? Group of answer choices Crackles Rales Rhonchi Stridor

Stridor

Clinical signs of labored breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT: Group of answer choices supraclavicular retractions. use of accessory muscles. gasping attempts to breathe. shallow chest movement.

shallow chest movement.

Which of the following occurs when a patient's respirations are shallow? Group of answer choices Oxygenation occurs more efficiently. Chest rise will be easily noticeable. Carbon dioxide elimination is increased. Tidal volume is markedly reduced.

Tidal volume is markedly reduced.

Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is usually observed only in pediatric patients? Group of answer choices Rapid respirations Pursed-lip breathing Seesaw breathing Accessory muscle use

Seesaw breathing

An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will: Group of answer choices exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs. have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths/min. assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing. be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses.

be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses.

You should suspect that a patient is experiencing respiratory failure if he or she: Group of answer choices has an increased heart rate and retractions. has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone. is restless and is working hard to breathe. is anxious, tachycardic, and leaning forward.

has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone.

During the primary assessment, circulation is evaluated by assessing: Group of answer choices blood pressure, pulse rate, and external bleeding. skin quality, blood pressure, and capillary refill. external bleeding, skin condition, and capillary refill. pulse quality, external bleeding, and skin condition.

pulse quality, external bleeding, and skin condition.

A palpable pulse is created by: Group of answer choices pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction. electrical conduction in the heart producing contraction of the atria. the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart. the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the veins.

pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.

Which of the following is the MOST accurate guide to palpating a pulse? Group of answer choices Use your thumb to increase the surface area that you are palpating. Place the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point. Avoid compressing the artery against a bone or solid structure. Apply firm pressure to the artery with your ring and little fingers.

Place the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point.

In responsive patients who are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the ________ artery. Group of answer choices brachial carotid femoral radial

Radial

When palpating the carotid pulse of a responsive patient, you should: Group of answer choices avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously. firmly compress the artery because the pulse is often weak. ensure that his or her head is in a hyperextended position. avoid gentle pressure so that weak pulses can be detected.

avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously.

You receive a call to a daycare center for an unresponsive 8-month-old infant. Upon arrival, you perform an assessment and determine that the infant is not breathing. Your next action should be to: Group of answer choices immediately transport the child to the hospital. open the airway and give two rescue breaths. begin chest compressions and request backup. assess for a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds.

assess for a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds.

If you cannot palpate a pulse in an unresponsive patient whose collapse was not witnessed, you should: Group of answer choices apply an AED at once. palpate at another pulse site. assess for adequate breathing. immediately begin CPR.

immediately begin CPR.

You respond to the residence of a 62-year-old male who is unresponsive. Your primary assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. You should: Group of answer choices perform CPR and transport the patient immediately. notify dispatch and request a paramedic ambulance. start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible. ask the family if the patient has a terminal disease.

start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible.

Which of the following factors would MOST likely cause a patient's pulse rate to be slower than normal? Group of answer choices Internal bleeding from trauma Lack of a regular exercise routine Beta blocker medications Anxiety or severe stress

Beta blocker medications

When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that it is grossly irregular. You should: Group of answer choices count the number of pulsations in 30 seconds and multiply by two. count the number of pulsations in 15 seconds and multiply by four. count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading. count the pulse rate for at least 30 seconds to ensure accuracy.

count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading.

For an adult, the normal resting pulse should be between: Group of answer choices 40 and 50 beats/min. 50 and 60 beats/min. 100 and 110 beats/min. 60 and 100 beats/min.

60 and 100 beats/min.

In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _______ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _______ beats/min. Group of answer choices 60, 100 30, 130 40, 120 50, 110

60, 100

A pulse with a consistent pattern is considered to be: Group of answer choices regular. strong. irregular. weak.

regular.

When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that there is a short interval between pulsations. This indicates that the pulse is: Group of answer choices irregular. thready. slow. rapid.

rapid.

When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. You should administer supplemental oxygen if needed and then: Group of answer choices apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm. transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit. conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age. document your findings and perform a detailed assessment.

transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit.

In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas, such as the: Group of answer choices lips or oral mucosa. forehead and face. back of the neck. dorsum of the hand.

lips or oral mucosa.

In infants and small children, skin color should be assessed on the: Group of answer choices chest and abdomen. palms and soles. forehead. underside of the arms.

palms and soles.

Poor peripheral circulation will cause the skin to appear: Group of answer choices cyanotic. flushed. pink. ashen.

ashen.

When assessing the skin of an unresponsive patient, you note that it has a bluish tint to it. This finding is called: Group of answer choices flushing. mottling. cyanosis. pallor.

cyanosis

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by: Group of answer choices peripheral vasodilation. decreased blood oxygen. increased blood oxygen. venous vasoconstriction.

decreased blood oxygen.

Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be: Group of answer choices pink, warm, and dry. flushed, cool, and dry. pale, cool, and moist. pink, warm, and moist.

pink, warm, and dry.

A patient with high blood pressure would be expected to have skin that is: Group of answer choices mottled and cool. pale and moist. cyanotic and dry. flushed and red.

flushed and red.

A 40-year-old male presents with pain to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect: Group of answer choices gallbladder disease. acute pancreatitis. liver dysfunction. renal insufficiency.

liver dysfunction.

A patient with profuse sweating is referred to as being: Group of answer choices plethoric. diaphoretic. edematous. flushed.

diaphoretic.

When you assess capillary refill time in an infant, normal color to the tested area should return within: Group of answer choices 4 seconds. 2 seconds. 1 second. 3 seconds.

2 seconds.

During your assessment of a 6-month-old male with vomiting and diarrhea, you note that his capillary refill time is approximately 4 seconds. From this information, you should conclude that the infant's: Group of answer choices respiratory status is adequate. skin temperature is abnormally cold. peripheral circulation is decreased. systolic blood pressure is normal.

peripheral circulation is decreased.

With regard to the assessment of a patient's cardiovascular status, capillary refill time is MOST reliable in: Group of answer choices patients who are significantly hypotensive. patients who were exposed to cold temperatures. patients who are younger than 6 years of age. patients who are older than 70 years of age.

patients who are younger than 6 years of age.

External bleeding from an extremity can usually be controlled initially by: Group of answer choices applying direct pressure. applying chemical ice packs. applying a tourniquet. elevating the extremity.

applying direct pressure.

A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious, is screaming in pain, and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should: Group of answer choices ensure that his airway is patent. elevate his legs and keep him warm. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. apply direct pressure to the wound.

apply direct pressure to the wound.

After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to: Group of answer choices look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion. identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment. determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions. find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life.

identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.

A 71-year-old female slipped on a rug and fell. She is conscious but confused and complains of severe pelvic pain. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. What should you do? Group of answer choices Transport her in a seated position Treat her for possible shock Gently palpate her pelvis Transport her on her left side

Treat her for possible shock

When assessing a patient's abdomen, you will evaluate for all of the following, EXCEPT: Group of answer choices subcutaneous emphysema. rigidity and obvious bleeding. open wounds or eviscerations. gross bleeding and tenderness.

subcutaneous emphysema

When assessing a patient's abdomen, you will evaluate for all of the following, EXCEPT: Group of answer choices subcutaneous emphysema. rigidity and obvious bleeding. open wounds or eviscerations.

subcutaneous emphysema.

Which of the following situations or conditions warrants immediate transport? Group of answer choices Decreased ability to move an extremity Ability to follow commands Mild pain in the lower abdomen Severe chest pain and cool, pale skin

Severe chest pain and cool, pale skin

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should: Group of answer choices assess the rest of the body for bleeding. maintain stabilization of the head. look in the ears for gross bleeding. prepare the immobilization equipment.

maintain stabilization of the head.

A 50-year-old male presents with altered mental status. His wife tells you that he had a "small stroke" 3 years ago but has otherwise been in good health. The patient is responsive but unable to follow commands. After administering oxygen if needed, you should: Group of answer choices prepare for immediate transport. perform a head-to-toe assessment. inquire about his family history. repeat the primary assessment.

prepare for immediate transport.

The "Golden Hour" begins when an injury occurs and ends when: the patient is admitted to the ICU. you arrive at the emergency department. the patient receives definitive care. you depart the scene for the hospital.

the patient receives definitive care.

As time progresses following a significant injury: Group of answer choices the patient's blood pressure elevates significantly. most patients will die secondary to internal bleeding. the patient's injuries will most likely be irreparable. the body's ability to compensate for shock decreases.

the body's ability to compensate for shock decreases.

A patient in unstable condition should be reassessed at least every: Group of answer choices 10 minutes. 20 minutes. 15 minutes. 5 minutes.

5 minutes

During a 30-minute transport of a stable patient, you should reassess him or her at least ________ times. Group of answer choices 4 6 3 2

What part of the patient assessment process focuses on obtaining additional information about the patient's chief complaint and any medical problems he or she may have? Group of answer choices Primary assessment General impression Secondary assessment History taking

History taking

The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the: Group of answer choices gross physical signs that you detect on assessment. most life-threatening condition that you discover. most serious thing the patient is concerned about. condition that exacerbates an underlying problem.

most serious thing the patient is concerned about.

Upon arriving at the scene of a patient with difficulty breathing, you determine that the scene is safe. You enter the residence and find the patient sitting in a chair in respiratory distress. Your first action should be to: Group of answer choices assess the patient's airway status. obtain a set of baseline vital signs. ask the patient what's wrong. introduce yourself to the patient.

introduce yourself to the patient.

Which of the following questions is used to determine a patient's chief complaint? Group of answer choices "Do you have a history of diabetes?" "When did the chest pain begin?" "What seems to be the matter?" "Are you having trouble breathing?"

What seems to be the matter?"

When interviewing a patient, you can show him or her that you understand the situation by: Group of answer choices maintaining constant eye contact with him or her. repeating statements back to him or her. using medical terminology whenever possible. interrupting him or her as needed for clarification.

repeating statements back to him or her.

A 50-year-old male is found unconscious in his car. There were no witnesses to the event. When gathering medical history information for this patient, the EMT should: Group of answer choices determine if the patient has a medical alert bracelet or wallet card. wait for family members to arrive before asking any questions. ask law enforcement officials if they are familiar with the patient. defer SAMPLE history questions until you arrive at the hospital.

determine if the patient has a medical alert bracelet or wallet card.

Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation? Group of answer choices "Does your mother have diabetes?" "Has this ever happened to you before?" "Does the pain stay in your chest?" "Are there medications that you cannot take?"

Does your mother have diabetes?"

Which of the following questions would you ask a patient to ascertain the "M" in the SAMPLE history? Group of answer choices "Have you ever had any major surgeries?" "How much Tylenol do you take each day?" "How long have you had your chest pain?" "When was the last time you ate a meal?"

"How much Tylenol do you take each day?"

Which of the following patient responses would establish the "E" in the SAMPLE history? Group of answer choices "I am not having any difficulty breathing." "I was in the hospital a week ago." "The chest pain started about 45 minutes ago." "I was mowing the lawn when the pain began."

"I was mowing the lawn when the pain began."

Palliating factors regarding a patient's pain involve those that: Group of answer choices alleviate the pain. initiate the pain. worsen the pain. change the pain.

alleviate the pain.

Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be: Group of answer choices palliating. referred. provoking. radiating.

radiating.

In which of the following situations is a pertinent negative identified? Group of answer choices A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath. A 56-year-old woman states that her chest hurts when she takes a deep breath. A 53-year-old man with dizziness also tells you that he has vomited three times. A 50-year-old woman states that nothing makes her chest pain better or worse.

A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath.

When evaluating a patient with multiple complaints, the EMT's responsibility is to: Group of answer choices assess each complaint based on the patient's perception of its seriousness. determine which complaint poses the greatest threat to the patient's life. direct his or her attention to the most obvious signs and symptoms. definitively rule out serious causes of each of the patient's complaints.

determine which complaint poses the greatest threat to the patient's life.

Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct? Group of answer choices A secondary assessment should always be performed, even if you must continually manage life threats that were identified in the primary assessment. During the secondary assessment, the EMT's primary focus should be on taking the patient's vital signs and obtaining a SAMPLE history. The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint. The secondary assessment should be performed en route to the hospital, regardless of the severity of the patient's condition.

The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint.

Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct? Group of answer choices The purpose of the secondary assessment is to systematically examine every patient from head to toe, regardless of the severity of his or her injury. A focused secondary assessment would be the most appropriate approach for a patient who experienced significant trauma to multiple body systems. If your general impression of a patient does not reveal any obvious life threats, you should proceed directly to the secondary assessment. You may not have time to perform a secondary assessment if you must continually manage life threats that were identified during the primary assessment.

You may not have time to perform a secondary assessment if you must continually manage life threats that were identified during the primary assessment.

When using the pulse oximeter as part of your assessment of a patient, it is important to remember that: Group of answer choices any situation that causes vasoconstriction or loss of red blood cells, such as anemia or bleeding, may result in an inaccurate or misleading value. as long as the patient's oxygen saturation is greater than 95%, oxygen is usually not necessary, even if the patient is experiencing respiratory distress. pulse oximetry is especially useful in patients who have cold extremities because vasoconstriction forces blood to the capillary beds. carbon monoxide has no effect on pulse oximetry readings because the pulse oximeter presumes that oxygen is saturating the hemoglobin.

any situation that causes vasoconstriction or loss of red blood cells, such as anemia or bleeding, may result in an inaccurate or misleading value.

Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions? Group of answer choices Noninvasive blood pressure monitoring Assessment of oxygen saturation Systematic head-to-toe examination Focused secondary assessment

Systematic head-to-toe examination

The goal of the systematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to: Group of answer choices locate injuries not found in the primary assessment. definitively rule out significant internal injuries. detect and treat all non-life-threatening injuries. assess only the parts of the body that are injured.

locate injuries not found in the primary assessment.

You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision. Upon arrival, you find the driver, a young female, sitting on the curb. She is confused; is in obvious respiratory distress; and has pale, moist skin. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you perform a primary assessment. After performing any immediate life-saving treatment, you should: Group of answer choices identify the specific areas of her injuries and focus your assessment on those areas. perform a detailed head-to-toe exam and prepare for immediate transport. fully immobilize her spine, load her into the ambulance, and assess her vital signs. assess her vital signs, secure her to a backboard, and transport her immediately.

perform a detailed head-to-toe exam and prepare for immediate transport.

When performing the secondary assessment on a trauma patient, you note the presence of Battle sign. This is defined as: Group of answer choices bruising behind the ear. fluid drainage from the nose. unequal pupils. swelling to the orbital area.

bruising behind the ear.

A decrease in blood pressure may indicate: Group of answer choices arterial constriction. increased blood volume. loss of vascular tone. forceful cardiac contraction.

loss of vascular tone.

The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the: Group of answer choices systolic pressure. apical pulse. diastolic pressure. pulse pressure.

systolic pressure.

The diastolic blood pressure represents the: Group of answer choices increased arterial pressure that occurs during ventricular contraction. minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries. average pressure against the arterial walls during a cardiac cycle. difference in pressure between ventricular contraction and relaxation.

minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries.

While evaluating a patient with chest pain, your partner tells you that the patient's blood pressure is 140/94 mm Hg. The lower number represents the pressure from the: Group of answer choices ventricles relaxing. ventricles contracting. atria relaxing. atria contracting.

ventricles relaxing.

A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a: Group of answer choices falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading. falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading. falsely low systolic and diastolic reading.

falsely high systolic and diastolic reading.

A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover: Group of answer choices one third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow. the entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow. one half the length between the armpit and the crease at the elbow.

two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.

Which of the following statements regarding the blood pressure is correct? Group of answer choices Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age. Blood pressure falls early in patients with hypoperfusion. Blood pressure is the most reliable indicator of perfusion. The systolic pressure represents ventricular relaxation.

Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age.

When auscultating the blood pressure in a patient's upper extremity, you should place the diaphragm (head) of the stethoscope over the _________ artery. Group of answer choices femoral brachial radial apical

brachial

When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the: Group of answer choices cardiac output pressure. pulse pressure. diastolic blood pressure. systolic blood pressure

systolic blood pressure

When assessing motor function in a conscious patient's lower extremities, you should expect the patient to: Group of answer choices feel you touching the extremity. wiggle his or her toes on command. identify different types of stimuli. note any changes in temperature.

wiggle his or her toes on command.

A crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin is called: Group of answer choices crepitus rhonchi. Korotkoff sounds. subcutaneous emphysema.

subcutaneous emphysema

Jugular venous distention suggests a problem with blood returning to the heart if the patient is: Group of answer choices in a recumbent position. in a prone position. sitting up at a 45° angle. in a supine position.

sitting up at a 45° angle.

Which of the following MOST accurately describes paradoxical movement of the chest wall? Group of answer choices Multiple rib fractures that cause a marked deformity of the chest wall One side of the chest wall moves opposite the direction of the other Only one section of the chest rises on inspiration, while another area falls A marked decrease in chest wall movement due to abdominal breathing

Only one section of the chest rises on inspiration, while another area falls

Reassessment is performed to determine all of the following, EXCEPT: Group of answer choices the reason why the patient called EMS. the nature of any newly identified problems. whether or not the patient is deteriorating. the patient's response to your treatment.

the reason why the patient called EMS

When performing a reassessment of your patient, you should first: Group of answer choices repeat the primary assessment. confirm medical history findings. reassess your interventions. obtain updated vital signs.

repeat the primary assessment.

The systematic head-to-toe assessment should be performed on: Group of answer choices stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened. patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients. responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI. all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport.

patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients.

Which of the following assessments would be the MOST useful in determining the possible cause of a patient's altered mental status? Group of answer choices Capillary refill time Blood pressure Blood glucose level Respiratory rate

Blood glucose level

Capnography is used to: Group of answer choices determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled. assess how much oxygen is reaching the body's tissues. trend a patient's blood pressure and assess for shock. assess how much oxygen is bound to the hemoglobin. I

determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled.

The pulse oximeter is an assessment tool used to evaluate the: Group of answer choices quantity of red blood cells. level of carbon dioxide. saturation level of arterial blood. amount of exhaled carbon dioxide.

saturation level of arterial blood.

position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance.

responsive to painful stimuli.

For which of the following patients is spinal immobilization clearly indicated? Group of answer choices Man with an arrow impaled in his leg and no pulse distal to the injury Man with altered mental status after being exposed to blunt force trauma Woman who fell from a standing position and has a deformed shoulder Woman in a minor motor-vehicle collision who complains of severe knee pain

Man with altered mental status after being exposed to blunt force trauma

A patient is sitting in a chair, leaning forward on his outstretched arms. His head and chin are thrust forward. This position indicates that he: Group of answer choices has abdominal muscle spasms. has a decreased level of consciousness. is experiencing difficulty breathing. is experiencing severe back pain.

is experiencing difficulty breathing.

60, 100

You should avoid palpating a patient's pelvis if: Group of answer choices the patient is older than 50 years of age. the MOI suggests trauma to the pelvis. the patient complains of pelvic pain. the pelvis does not appear deformed.

the patient complains of pelvic pain.

When performing a rapid exam on a supine patient, what part of the body is typically assessed last? Group of answer choices Anterior chest Extremities Abdomen Posterior

Posterior

"How much Tylenol do you take each day?"

Test Prep Week 2 Chapter 6-10 Flashcards

(382 cards)