Test Prep Week 2 Chapter 6-10

Question 1

The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge is called:

the standard of care.

the continuum of care.

patient care advocacy.

the scope of practice.

Answer 1

the continuum of care.

Question 2

Health care teams that infrequently train and work together:

can create delays in patient care.

need less-explicit verbal direction.

often work better under pressure.

are unable to accomplish their tasks

Answer 2

can create delays in patient care

Question 3

Health care providers who infrequently work together can function effectively as a team if they work in an environment that supports and promotes:

discipline.

competition.

collaboration.

rigid protocols.

Answer 3

collaboration.

Question 4

In contrast to a health care group, a health care team:

works independently.

works interdependently.

is not assigned specific roles.

does not function under protocols.

Answer 4

works interdependently.

Question 5

When working as an independent health care group member, the EMT should expect that he or she:

will receive no support or guidance from an EMS supervisor.

will be specifically instructed on how to perform a specific task.

does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task.

will rely on the group leader for making virtually all decisions.

Answer 5

does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task.

Question 6

EMTs and other health care providers function as a true team when they work:

dependently.

independently.

interdependently.

under standing orders.

Answer 6

interdependently

Question 7

The effectiveness of pit crew CPR is dependent on:

defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received.

protocols that allow the EMT to function without medical control.

a team leader who is capable of performing all of the patient care tasks.

rapidly assessing the patient before assigning roles and responsibilities.

Answer 7

defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received.

Question 8

Which of the following is an example of closed-loop communication?

The EMT requests permission from medical control to assist a patient with his prescribed nitroglycerin.

EMTs decide not to attempt resuscitation because the patient has rigor mortis and is cold to the touch.

The EMT corrects the team leader, who states that chest compressions should be greater than 3 inches deep.

The team leader assigns the EMT a task, and the EMT repeats the request back to the team leader.

Answer 8

The team leader assigns the EMT a task, and the EMT repeats the request back to the team leader.

Question 9

During a resuscitation attempt, the team leader asks the EMT to ventilate the patient at a rate of 20 breaths/min, and the EMT replies, “Actually, sir, the correct ventilation rate is 10 breaths/min.” This is an example of:
Group of answer choices

situational awareness.

constructive intervention.

closed-loop communication.

quality assurance monitoring.

Answer 9

constructive intervention.

Question 10

While providing care to a patient, the EMT informs her partner that a shotgun is leaning against the wall in the corner of the room. In making this observation, the EMT has demonstrated:
Group of answer choices

situational awareness.

closed-loop communication.

crew resource management.

constructive intervention.

Answer 10

situational awareness.

Question 11

A team of EMTs is caring for a critically injured patient. The team leader advises the EMT that transport will not begin until the patient’s closed forearm fracture is splinted. Utilizing the crew resource management model, the EMT should:
Group of answer choices

repeat the request back to the team leader and then splint the patient’s arm.

ensure that the entire team is aware that transport will be delayed for splinting.

disregard the team leader’s request and contact medical control for guidance.

advise the team leader that immediate transport is more important than splinting.

Answer 11

advise the team leader that immediate transport is more important than splinting.

Question 12

EMTs arrive at the scene of an ill person. The EMR, who arrived before the EMTs, advises that the patient had a syncopal episode. The patient is conscious and alert and remains so throughout transport. When transferring patient care to the emergency department nurse, the EMT should advise the nurse that:
Group of answer choices

the patient had a reported syncopal episode.

she should contact the EMR about the incident.

the EMR was probably mistaken about the episode.

there is no evidence to support the syncopal episode

Answer 12

the patient had a reported syncopal episode.

Question 13

Which of the following would MOST likely facilitate an accurate and effective verbal handoff report at the hospital?
Group of answer choices

Brief pause in care to provide the verbal report.

Clearly identifying your EMS certification level.

Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format.

Providing the handoff report only to a physician.

Answer 13

Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format.

Question 14

After assuming care of a cardiac arrest patient from an EMT, the paramedic should remember that:
Group of answer choices

BLS efforts must continue throughout the patient care continuum.

the BLS care provided by the EMT is the “first steps” of ALS care.

ALS interventions are the core interventions around which BLS care is provided.

ALS interventions are fundamentally more critical than BLS interventions.

Answer 14

BLS efforts must continue throughout the patient care continuum

Question 15

When the EMT assists a paramedic with an advanced intervention, he or she should recall that the focus of the intervention is on:
Group of answer choices

following local protocol.

solving a clinical problem.

completing the procedure.

learning to perform the skill.

Answer 15

solving a clinical problem.

Question 16

Which of the following would the EMT MOST likely be asked to do when assisting a paramedic with endotracheal intubation?
Group of answer choices

Visualization of the vocal cords

Placement of the endotracheal tube

Suction under direct laryngoscopy

Preoxygenation with a BVM

Answer 16

Preoxygenation with a BVM

Question 17

Which of the following would the paramedic be LEAST likely to ask the EMT to do?
Group of answer choices

Assess blood glucose

Obtain vital signs

Apply a tourniquet

Intubate a patient

Answer 17

Intubate a patient

Question 18

For patient handoff, it is important for EMTs and hospital staff to use:
Group of answer choices

common language.

common goals.

metric-sized tools.

shared training.

Answer 18

common language.

Question 19

Which of the following would the paramedic be LEAST likely to ask the EMT to do?
Group of answer choices

Assess blood glucose

Obtain vital signs

Apply a tourniquet

Intubate a patient

Answer 19

Intubate a patient

Question 20

In an independent group, you would have:
Group of answer choices

parallel work.

a common set of tasks.

shared transportation.

your own work area.

Answer 20

your own work area.

Question 21

In an interdependent group, when one person fails:
Group of answer choices

everyone fails.

that person is fired.

management will be changed.

pay is withheld.

Answer 21

everyone fails.

Question 22

When assisting an ALS worker, a BLS worker who performs a skill outside his or her level of certification:
Group of answer choices

risks a lawsuit.

is striving for promotion to ALS.

plays a team role.

needs incident command authorization.

Answer 22

risks a lawsuit.

Question 23

When assisting an ALS worker, a BLS worker who performs a skill outside his or her level of certification:
Group of answer choices

risks a lawsuit.

is striving for promotion to ALS.

plays a team role.

needs incident command authorization.

Answer 23

risks a lawsuit.

Question 24

To be a great EMT, strive for:
Group of answer choices

foundational knowledge.

retraining.

management work.

the chance to replace an EMR.

Answer 24

foundational knowledge.

Question 25

Which comes first in EMS decision making?
Group of answer choices

Data gathering

Data interpretation

Planning

Team communication

Answer 25

Data gathering

Question 26

Which step in EMS decision making comes after a patient has been transferred?
Group of answer choices

Data gathering

Outcome evaluation

Planning

Team communication

Answer 26

Outcome evaluation

Question 27

Premature diagnosis during a call can be due to what error?
Group of answer choices

Streamlining

Bias

Overconfidence

Anchoring

Answer 27

Anchoring

Question 28

If a problem with a team member is not directly or immediately impacting patient care, the team leader should:
Group of answer choices

engage the team member at once.

discuss the problem after the call.

contact the medical director at once.

ignore the problem to avoid conflict.

Answer 28

discuss the problem after the call.

Question 29

While caring for a patient, the EMT states to her partner, “Why even splint the patient’s leg if they’re only going to remove it in the ED?” This statement indicates that:
Group of answer choices

the EMT’s focus is not on the common goal.

the patient’s leg does not require splinting.

the EMT does not trust the hospital staff.

the EMT is being realistic in her thinking.

Answer 29

the EMT’s focus is not on the common goal.

Question 30

An effective team leader should:
Group of answer choices

command his or her team.

perform all difficult interventions.

refrain from any direct patient care.

help the team accomplish goals.

Answer 30

help the team accomplish goals.

Question 31

While transferring patient care to another health care provider, you should be:
Group of answer choices

assertive.

patient.

respectful.

aggressive.

Answer 31

respectful.

Question 32

While transferring a patient to ALS staff, interference should be:
• optimized for care.

• minimized overall.

• O kept in place.

• transformed by coordination.

Answer 32

• minimized overall.

Question 33

An infant’s blood pressure typically increases with age because:
Group of answer choices

the infant’s total blood volume decreases with age.

his or her normal heart rate usually increases with age.

as the infant gets older, his or her blood vessels dilate.

blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight.

Answer 33

blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight.

Question 34

Which of the following statements regarding an infant’s vital signs is correct?
Group of answer choices

An infant’s heart rate generally ranges between 70 and 110 beats/min.

An infant’s normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler’s normal body temperature.

By six months of age, an infant’s normal tidal volume is 2 to 4 mL/kg.

An infant’s normal heart rate increases by 10 beats/min each month.

Answer 34

An infant’s normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler’s normal body temperature

Question 35

You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that:
Group of answer choices

small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times.

assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs.

the infant’s proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction.

an infant’s head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction.

Answer 35

small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times.

Question 36

Infants are often referred to as “belly breathers” because:
Group of answer choices

their rib cage is less rigid, and the ribs sit horizontally.

an infant’s ribs are brittle and are less able to expand.

their intercostal muscles are not functional.

their diaphragm does not receive impulses from the brain.

Answer 36

their rib cage is less rigid, and the ribs sit horizontally

Question 37

Which of the following is an anatomic difference between children and adults?
Group of answer choices

The rib cage of an infant is less flexible than an adult’s rib cage.

An infant’s tongue is proportionately larger than an adult’s tongue.

The trachea of an infant is proportionately longer than an adult’s trachea.

An infant’s head accounts for less body weight than an adult’s head.

Answer 37

An infant’s tongue is proportionately larger than an adult’s tongue

Question 38

An infant or small child’s airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because:
Group of answer choices

the back of the head is flat, which prevents a neutral position.

he or she has a long neck, which makes the trachea prone to collapse.

the occiput is proportionately large, and the trachea is flexible.

the tongue is proportionately small and can fall back into the throat.

Answer 38

the occiput is proportionately large, and the trachea is flexible

Question 39

Which of the following describes the Moro reflex?
Group of answer choices

When something touches a neonate’s cheek, he or she instinctively turns his or her head toward the touch.

The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled.

An infant’s heart rate decreases secondary to hypoxia because he or she depends heavily on the heart rate to perfuse the body.

When the sole of the foot is stroked with a blunt object, the big toe lifts upward and the other toes fan outward.

Answer 39

The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled.

Question 40

The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of:
Group of answer choices

3 and 4 months.

6 and 8 months.

7 and 14 months.

9 and 18 months.

Answer 40

9 and 18 months.

Question 41

You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will most likely find that she:
Group of answer choices

is unable to track your movements with her eyes.

responds to her name but is fearful of your presence.

will readily allow you to separate her from her mother.

has bulging fontanelles secondary to severe dehydration.

Answer 41

responds to her name but is fearful of your presence.

Question 42

Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant?
Group of answer choices

Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up

Knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance

Responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently

Walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions

Answer 42

Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up

Question 43

In contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child:
Group of answer choices

becomes acutely anxious in the presence of strangers or in unfamiliar surroundings.

clings to a parent or caregiver because he or she knows that the person can be trusted.

shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection.

reaches out and explores because he or she knows that the parents are there as a safety net.

Answer 43

shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection.

Question 44

At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children?
Group of answer choices

6 to 8 months

10 to 18 months

18 to 24 months

24 to 36 months

Answer 44

10 to 18 months

Question 45

An infant or small toddler would most likely gain trust in a person who:
Group of answer choices

provides an organized, routine environment.

maintains eye contact, even if the person is a stranger.

frequently changes the infant or toddler’s regular routine.

does not tower over him or her and avoids painful procedures.

Answer 45

provides an organized, routine environment

Question 46

Which of the following statements regarding toddlers and preschoolers is correct?
Group of answer choices

The normal respiratory rate in toddlers and preschoolers is between 12 and 20 breaths/min.

Toddlers and preschoolers have well-developed lung musculature, even though they have less lung tissue.

Muscle mass and bone density decrease in toddlers and preschoolers because of increased physical activity.

Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of the loss of passive immunity.

Answer 46

Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of the loss of passive immunity.

Question 47

The pulse rate of a child from ages 6 to 12 years is approximately:
Group of answer choices

60 to 100 beats/min.

70 to 120 beats/min.

90 to 140 beats/min.

100 to 150 beats/min.

Answer 47

70 to 120 beats/min.

Question 48

In preconventional reasoning, children:
Group of answer choices

make decisions based on their conscience.

look for approval from their peers and society.

act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want.

blame their actions on what they have observed in older children.

Answer 48

act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want.

Question 49

Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescent age group?
Group of answer choices

Secondary sexual development begins.

Muscle and bone growth both decrease.

The normal pulse rate steadily increases.

The systolic blood pressure decreases.

Answer 49

Secondary sexual development begins.

Question 50

A 16-year-old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should:
Group of answer choices

obtain the majority of your information from one of her parents.

inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible.

avoid asking questions that she will feel uncomfortable answering.

recall that patients in this age group prefer not to be treated as adults.

Answer 50

inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible.

Question 51

Which of the following statements regarding psychosocial development in the adolescent age group is correct?
Group of answer choices

Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak around 14 to 16 years of age.

Family conflict decreases as the adolescent gains control of his or her own life.

Adolescents are less fixated on their public image than younger children.

Because they think rationally, adolescents are at the lowest risk for suicide.

Answer 51

Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak around 14 to 16 years of age.

Question 52

The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of:
Group of answer choices

18 and 22 years.

19 and 25 years.

21 and 30 years.

25 and 35 years.

Answer 52

19 and 25 years

Question 53

The low normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year-old is:
Group of answer choices

60 mm Hg.

70 mm Hg.

80 mm Hg.

90 mm Hg.

Answer 53

90 mm Hg.

Question 54

Physical changes that typically occur in early adults include an:
Group of answer choices

increase in muscle strength and reflexes.

increase in height because of spinal disc expansion.

increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain.

increase in respiratory rate due to increased metabolism.

Answer 54

increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain.

Question 55

The average pulse rate of persons between 19 and 40 years of age is typically:
Group of answer choices

60 beats/min.

70 beats/min.

80 beats/min.

90 beats/min.

Answer 55

70 beats/min.

Question 56

Which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct?
Group of answer choices

Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer.

Women in the middle adult age group typically experience menopause in their late 50s or early 60s.

Significant impairments in hearing and vision begin to occur in persons between the ages of 41 and 44 years.

Increased cholesterol levels in the middle adult age group often do not respond to exercise and diet.

Answer 56

Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer.

Question 57

Why do middle adults commonly experience financial concerns?
Group of answer choices

They are typically receiving social security and must budget with a fixed income.

Most people in the middle adult age group have chronic illnesses and cannot work.

They are preparing for retirement but must still manage everyday financial demands.

The majority of middle adults still have small children who live at home with them.

Answer 57

They are preparing for retirement but must still manage everyday financial demands.

Question 58

At present, the average life expectancy is ________ years, while the maximum life expectancy is estimated at ________ years.
Group of answer choices

68, 100

70, 102

72, 110

78, 120

Answer 58

78, 120

Question 59

Which of the following is not a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient’s vital signs?
Group of answer choices

Medications

Overall health

Increased weight

Medical conditions

Answer 59

Increased weight

Question 60

The decline in cardiac function that commonly occurs in late adulthood is most often related to:
Group of answer choices

hypotension.

medication use.

kidney failure.

atherosclerosis.

Answer 60

atherosclerosis.

Question 61

You suspect that a 75-year-old man has internal injuries after he fell and struck his ribs and abdomen on the corner of a table. When assessing and treating an injured patient of this age, you must recall that:
Group of answer choices

his ability to physiologically compensate for his injury might be impaired due to an inability to increase cardiac output.

it is not uncommon to observe heart rates in excess of 150 beats/min in elderly patients with internal injuries.

blood pressure is usually adequately maintained because the blood vessels of older people can contract easily.

functional blood volume in patients of this age steadily increases due to increased production of red blood cells.

Answer 61

his ability to physiologically compensate for his injury might be impaired due to an inability to increase cardiac output.

Question 62

With increasing age, the heart must work harder to move the blood effectively because:
Group of answer choices

the blood vessels become stiff.

the arteries dilate significantly.

diastolic blood pressure decreases.

the blood thickens as a person ages.

Answer 62

the blood vessels become stiff.

Question 63

When assessing an 80-year-old patient in shock, it is important to remember that:
Group of answer choices

it is common to see a more significant increase in heart rate than what would be expected in younger adults.

age-related changes in the cardiovascular system might make the patient less able to compensate for decreased perfusion.

the patient’s cardiac output is able to increase by nearly 200% in response to the decrease in perfusion.

in older adults, it is especially common to observe a significant decrease in heart rate in response to shock.

Answer 63

age-related changes in the cardiovascular system might make the patient less able to compensate for decreased perfusion.

Question 64

Breathing is often more difficult in older adults because the:
Group of answer choices

elasticity of the lungs decreases.

surface area of the alveoli increases.

overall size of the airway decreases.

diaphragm and intercostal muscles enlarge.

Answer 64

elasticity of the lungs decreases.

Question 65

Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, except:
Group of answer choices

a loss of respiratory muscle mass.

increased stiffness of the thoracic cage.

decreased residual volume.

increased surface area available for air exchange.

Answer 65

increased surface area available for air exchange.

Question 66

In late adults, the amount of air left in the lungs after expiration of the maximum amount of air:
Group of answer choices

remains unchanged because the lungs have become accustomed to years of breathing pollution.

decreases, resulting in widespread collapsing of the alveoli and impaired diffusion of gases.

increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli.

decreases, which increases diffusion in the lungs and causes an accumulation of carbon dioxide.

Answer 66

increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli.

Question 67

Why does the incidence of diabetes mellitus increase with age?
Group of answer choices

Decreased food intake, decreased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels

Decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production

Increased physical activity, increased food intake, and increased insulin production

Decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels

Answer 67

Decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production

Question 68

Age-related changes in the renal system result in:
Group of answer choices

a significant increase in filtration, which causes the excretion of large amounts of water from the body.

a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed.

the formation of large amounts of urine secondary to an increase in kidney mass of up to 20%.

dilation of the blood vessels that supply the nephrons, which allows the kidneys to maintain their function.

Answer 68

a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed.

Question 69

Age-related changes in the renal system result in:
Group of answer choices

a significant increase in filtration, which causes the excretion of large amounts of water from the body.

a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed.

the formation of large amounts of urine secondary to an increase in kidney mass of up to 20%.

dilation of the blood vessels that supply the nephrons, which allows the kidneys to maintain their function.

Answer 69

a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed.

Question 70

Which of the following statements regarding age-related changes in the nervous system is correct?
Group of answer choices

Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons.

The metabolic rate in the brain increases with age, but the consumption of oxygen decreases significantly.

Generally speaking, the brain increases in size by 10% to 20% by the time a person reaches 80 years of age.

Because of a decrease in the number of brain cells, a person’s level of intelligence decreases with age.

Answer 70

Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons.

Question 71

The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is most directly related to:
Group of answer choices

blood vessel dilation.

a decrease in neurons.

meningeal deterioration.

shrinkage of the brain.

Answer 71

shrinkage of the brain.

Question 72

Which of the following statements regarding age-related changes in the nervous system is correct?
Group of answer choices

Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons.

The metabolic rate in the brain increases with age, but the consumption of oxygen decreases significantly.

Generally speaking, the brain increases in size by 10% to 20% by the time a person reaches 80 years of age.

Because of a decrease in the number of brain cells, a person’s level of intelligence decreases with age.

Answer 72

Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons.

Question 73

When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that:
Group of answer choices

deafness and blindness are a normal part of the process of aging.

most older patients are confused due to a decrease in brain cells.

age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears.

the majority of older patients experience a loss of low-frequency hearing.

Answer 73

age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears.

Question 74

Mental function often begins to decline within ___ year(s) before death.
Group of answer choices

one

three

five

eight

Answer 74

5

Question 75

The nose, chin, umbilicus (navel), and spine are examples of ___________ anatomic structures.
Group of answer choices

proximal

superior

midaxillary

midline

Answer 75

Midline

Question 76

The ___________ plane separates the body into left and right halves.
Group of answer choices

transverse

coronal

midsagittal

sagittal

Answer 76

midsagittal

Question 77

The axial skeleton is composed of the:
Group of answer choices

skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column.

bones that constitute the pelvic girdle.

arms, legs, and pelvis.

lower part of the torso and the legs.

Answer 77

skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column.

Question 78

The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the:
Group of answer choices

vertebral foramen.

foramen magnum.

spinous foramen.

foramen ovale.

Answer 78

foramen magnum

Question 79

Which of the following is not a facial bone?
Group of answer choices

Zygoma

Maxilla

Mandible

Mastoid

Answer 79

Mastoid

Question 80

The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium.
Group of answer choices

orbit

occiput

sphenoid

mastoid

Answer 80

Orbit

Question 81

The atlas is the:
Group of answer choices

seventh cervical vertebra, which is easily palpable.

point where the ribs attach to the sternum.

attachment between the first and second cervical vertebrae.

first cervical vertebra, which articulates with the skull.

Answer 81

first cervical vertebra, which articulates with the skull.

Question 82

The cervical spine is composed of ___________ vertebrae.
Group of answer choices

five

seven

four

six

Answer 82

7

Question 83

Twelve pairs of ribs attach to the ___________ section of the spinal column.
Group of answer choices

lumbar

coccyx

sacral

Thoracic

Answer 83

Thoracic

Question 84

The ___________ portion of the spinal column is joined to the iliac bones of the pelvis.
Group of answer choices

coccyx

thoracic

sacrum

lumbar

Answer 84

Sacrum

Question 85

The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the:
Group of answer choices

coccyx.

ischium.

sacrum.

ilium.

Answer 85

Coccyx

Question 86

The areas of the spinal column, in descending order, are:
Group of answer choices

cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccyx.

cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx.

cervical, thoracic, coccyx, lumbar, and sacral.

cervical, thoracic, sacral, lumbar, and coccyx.

Answer 86

cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx.

Question 87

The most superior section of the sternum is called the:
Group of answer choices

angle of Louis.

costal arch.

xiphoid process.

manubrium.

Answer 87

Manubrium

Question 88

The inferior cartilaginous tip of the sternum is called the:
Group of answer choices

jugular notch.

angle of Louis.

sternal notch.

xiphoid process.

Answer 88

xiphoid process.

Question 89

The three bones that make up the shoulder girdle are the:
Group of answer choices

clavicle, scapula, and humerus.

acromion, clavicle, and scapula.

acromion, scapula, and humerus.

acromion, humerus, and clavicle.

Answer 89

clavicle, scapula, and humerus.

Question 90

The ____________ is a muscular dome that separates the thorax from the abdomen.
Group of answer choices

costal arch

costovertebral angle

diaphragm

mediastinum

Answer 90

diaphragm

Question 91

The large, flat, triangular bone that overlies the posterior thoracic wall is called the:
Group of answer choices

glenoid.

scapula.

clavicle.

acromion.

Answer 91

scapula

Question 92

The bones of the forearm are called the:
Group of answer choices

radius and ulna.

radius and humerus.

humerus and ulna.

tibia and radius.

Answer 92

radius and ulna.

Question 93

The carpal bones form the:
Group of answer choices

hand.

wrist.

ankle.

foot.

Answer 93

Wrist

Question 94

The pelvic bones are formed by the fusion of the:
Group of answer choices

pubis and acetabulum.

ilium, pubis, and sacrum.

sacrum and ischium.

ilium, ischium, and pubis.

Answer 94

ilium, ischium, and pubis.

Question 95

The femoral head forms a ball-and-socket joint with the:
Group of answer choices

acetabulum.

femoral condyle.

ilium.

ischium.

Answer 95

acetabulum

Question 96

The bony prominence on the lateral/superior aspect of the thigh is called the:
Group of answer choices

greater trochanter.

sacral symphysis.

iliac crest.

sacroiliac joint.

Answer 96

greater trochanter.

Question 97

The bones that constitute the fingers and toes are called:
Group of answer choices

metacarpals.

phalanges.

metatarsals

carpals.

Answer 97

phalanges

Question 98

Anterior to the knee is a specialized bone called the:
Group of answer choices

calcaneus.

tibia.

patella.

femur.

Answer 98

patella.

Question 99

The distal aspect of the tibia forms the:
Group of answer choices

lateral condyle.

medial malleolus.

lateral malleolus.

Achilles tendon.

Answer 99

medial malleolus.

Question 100

The elbow is an example of a ____________ joint.
Group of answer choices

ball-and-socket

saddle

gliding

hinge

Answer 100

Hinge

Question 101

A person’s bones will become brittle if he or she is deficient in:
Group of answer choices

magnesium.

potassium.

sodium.

calcium.

Answer 101

Calcium

Question 102

The elbow is an example of a ____________ joint.
Group of answer choices

ball-and-socket

saddle

gliding

hinge

Answer 102

Hinge

Question 103

Which of the following statements regarding smooth muscle is correct?
Group of answer choices

Smooth muscle is under control of the voluntary nervous system.

A person has no voluntary control over smooth muscle.

Smooth muscle is found exclusively within blood vessels.

The biceps and quadriceps are examples of smooth muscle.

Answer 103

A person has no voluntary control over smooth muscle.

Question 104

Which of the following structures does not contain smooth muscle?
Group of answer choices

Urinary system

Blood vessels

Skeletal system

Gastrointestinal tract

Answer 104

Skeletal system

Question 105

Skeletal muscle is also called:
Group of answer choices

smooth muscle.

voluntary muscle.

autonomic muscle.

involuntary muscle.

Answer 105

voluntary muscle.

Question 106

A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is:
Group of answer choices

oxygen.

heat.

nitrogen.

lactic acid.

Answer 106

Heat

Question 107

Which of the following is a function of the upper airway?
Group of answer choices

Exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide

Creates sound from vocal cord vibration

Relaxes smooth muscle in the bronchioles

Warms and humidifies inhaled air

Answer 107

Warms and humidifies inhaled air

Question 108

The vocal cords are located in the:
Group of answer choices

nasopharynx.

larynx.

oropharynx.

pharynx.

Answer 108

Larynx

Question 109

The leaf-shaped flap of cartilage that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing is called the:
Group of answer choices

vallecula.

uvula.

epiglottis.

pharynx.

Answer 109

epiglottis.

Question 110

The firm cartilaginous ring that forms the inferior portion of the larynx is called the:
Group of answer choices

costal cartilage.

tracheal cartilage.

thyroid cartilage.

cricoid cartilage.

Answer 110

cricoid cartilage.

Question 111

Together, the right and left lungs contain ____________ lobes.
Group of answer choices

five

four

six

three

Answer 111

5

Question 112

As the bronchus divides into smaller bronchioles, the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the:
Group of answer choices

alveoli.

bronchi.

capillaries.

pleura.

Answer 112

alveoli

Question 113

The diaphragm is unique because it:
Group of answer choices

is both a voluntary and an involuntary muscle.

does not receive impulses from the brain.

is the exclusive muscle of breathing.

does not have striations like skeletal muscle.

Answer 113

is both a voluntary and an involuntary muscle

Question 114

The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract during:
Group of answer choices

exhalation.

respiration.

inhalation.

ventilation.

Answer 114

inhalation

Question 115

Negative-pressure breathing involves:
Group of answer choices

a drop in pressure within the chest cavity.

relaxing the respiratory muscles.

increasing airway resistance during breathing.

pushing or forcing air into the lungs.

Answer 115

a drop in pressure within the chest cavity

Question 116

How does respiration differ from ventilation?
Group of answer choices

Respiration occurs when the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract, whereas ventilation occurs when those same muscles relax.

Respiration occurs when oxygen is delivered to the cells of the body, whereas ventilation occurs when carbon dioxide is removed.

Respiration is the process of gas exchange, whereas ventilation is the movement of air between the lungs and the environment.

Ventilation occurs when air is forced into the lungs, whereas respiration occurs when air is drawn or sucked into the lungs.

Answer 116

Respiration is the process of gas exchange, whereas ventilation is the movement of air between the lungs and the environment.

Question 117

Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called:
Group of answer choices

diffusion.

ventilation.

breathing.

osmosis.

Answer 117

Diffusion

Question 118

Breathing occurs as the result of a(n):
Group of answer choices

decrease in oxygen, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

decrease in carbon dioxide, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

increase in oxygen, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

Answer 118

increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

Question 119

Which of the following statements regarding the medulla oblongata is correct?
Group of answer choices

The medulla reduces the rate and depth of breathing if it detects an increase in carbon dioxide levels.

The medulla’s primary role is to increase the body’s level of oxygen, not to decrease its level of carbon dioxide.

The medulla is sensitive to pH changes and sends messages via the phrenic nerve to contract the diaphragm.

The medulla is a portion of the cerebrum and primarily responds to an increase in the pH of cerebrospinal fluid.

Answer 119

The medulla is sensitive to pH changes and sends messages via the phrenic nerve to contract the diaphragm.

Question 120

Relative to an adult’s airway anatomy, the child’s:
Group of answer choices

mouth and nose are proportionately larger.

trachea is smaller, softer, and less flexible.

pharynx is smaller and less deeply curved.

tongue takes up less space in the pharynx.

Answer 120

pharynx is smaller and less deeply curved.

Question 121

The body’s backup system of respiratory control, which is based on low concentrations of oxygen in the blood, is called the:
Group of answer choices

oxyhemoglobin drive.

hypoxic drive.

pneumotaxic drive.

hypocarbic drive.

Answer 121

hypoxic drive.

Question 122

Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is typically unique to infants and children?
Group of answer choices

Irregular breathing pattern

Unequal chest expansion

Seesaw respirations

Unequal breath sounds

Answer 122

Seesaw respirations

Question 123

Both areas of the pons are used to:
Group of answer choices

ensure that the lungs do not overinflate during breathing.

set the base rate and depth of breathing in a healthy person.

provide forced inspiration or expiration as needed.

augment respirations during emotional or physical stress.

Answer 123

augment respirations during emotional or physical stress.

Question 124

The amount of air that remains in the lungs simply to keep them open is called the:
Group of answer choices

inspiratory reserve volume.

residual volume.

tidal volume.

expiratory reserve volume.

Answer 124

residual volume.

Question 125

Dead space is the portion of the respiratory system that:
Group of answer choices

receives oxygen but is unable to release carbon dioxide.

includes the alveoli and capillaries surrounding the alveoli.

must be filled with air before gas exchange can take place.

contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange.

Answer 125

contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange.

Question 126

If a patient’s chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient’s respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that:
Group of answer choices

inspiratory reserve is increased.

overall tidal volume is increased.

minute volume is decreased.

expiratory reserve volume is decreased.

Answer 126

minute volume is decreased.

Question 127

Signs of adequate breathing in the adult include all of the following, except:
Group of answer choices

rhythmic inhalation and exhalation.

bilaterally clear breath sounds.

respirations of 18 breaths/min.

a reduction in tidal volume.

Answer 127

a reduction in tidal volume.

Question 128

Which of the following is most characteristic of adequate breathing in an adult?
Group of answer choices

Respirations of 20 breaths/min and bilateral chest movement

Cool, clammy skin and retractions above the clavicles

Use of the accessory muscles in the neck and cyanosis

Respirations of 30 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume

Answer 128

Respirations of 20 breaths/min and bilateral chest movement

Question 129

Which of the following statements regarding agonal respirations is correct?
Group of answer choices

Agonal respirations typically occur before the heart stops.

Agonal respirations are characterized by fast, irregular breaths.

Agonal respirations result in excessive tidal volume.

Agonal respirations are ineffective and need to be assisted.

Answer 129

Agonal respirations are ineffective and need to be assisted.

Question 130

Which of the following statements regarding the heart is correct?
Group of answer choices

The heart relies on an external electrical source to function correctly.

The heart receives its blood supply from the pulmonary arteries.

The heart can tolerate an interruption of oxygen for five minutes.

The heart is under the control of the autonomic nervous system.

Answer 130

The heart is under the control of the autonomic nervous system.

Question 131

The muscle tissue of the heart is called the:
Group of answer choices

pericardium.

epicardium.

myocardium.

endocardium.

Answer 131

myocardium.

Question 132

The primary function of the right atrium is to:
Group of answer choices

receive blood from the pulmonary veins.

receive blood from the vena cava.

pump blood to the pulmonary artery.

pump blood to the lungs for reoxygenation.

Answer 132

receive blood from the vena cava.

Question 133

Contraction of the right ventricle causes:
Group of answer choices

closure of the mitral and aortic valves.

ejection of blood into the systemic circulation.

a return of blood from the pulmonary veins.

blood to flow into the pulmonary circulation.

Answer 133

blood to flow into the pulmonary circulation.

Question 134

The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the:
Group of answer choices

pulmonary arteries.

inferior venae cavae.

pulmonary veins.

superior venae cavae.

Answer 134

pulmonary veins.

Question 135

Contraction of the right ventricle causes:
Group of answer choices

closure of the mitral and aortic valves.

ejection of blood into the systemic circulation.

a return of blood from the pulmonary veins.

blood to flow into the pulmonary circulation.

Answer 135

blood to flow into the pulmonary circulation.

Question 136

At rest, the normal adult heart rate should not exceed:
Group of answer choices

80 beats/min.

90 beats/min.

100 beats/min.

70 beats/min.

Answer 136

100 beats/min.

Question 137

During each heartbeat, ___________ of blood is ejected from the adult heart, an amount called the stroke volume.
Group of answer choices

70 to 80 mL

90 to 100 mL

40 to 50 mL

100 to 120 mL

Answer 137

70 to 80 mL

Question 138

Cardiac output (CO) is affected by:
Group of answer choices

heart rate only.

stroke volume and heart rate.

blood pressure.

stroke volume only.

Answer 138

stroke volume and heart rate.

Question 139

The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the:
Group of answer choices

sinoatrial node.

bundle of His.

Purkinje fibers.

atrioventricular node.

Answer 139

sinoatrial node.

Question 140

What happens when blood volume is lost from the body?
Group of answer choices

The veins dilate to increase systemic perfusion.

Widespread vasodilation causes blood pressure to decrease.

Arterial blood is diverted to the skin and muscles.

The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure.

Answer 140

The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure.

Question 141

The major artery that supplies all other arteries with blood is the:
Group of answer choices

aorta.

femoral.

carotid.

brachial.

Answer 141

Aorta

Question 142

The smooth muscles that cause the artery to contract are found in the:
Group of answer choices

tunica adventitia.

tunica intima.

lumen.

tunica media.

Answer 142

tunica media.

Question 143

Which of the following are central pulses?
Group of answer choices

Popliteal and ulnar

Femoral and carotid

Brachial and radial

Temporal and pedal

Answer 143

Femoral and carotid

Question 144

Which of the following arteries does not carry highly oxygenated blood?
Group of answer choices

Femoral

Aorta

Renal

Pulmonary

Answer 144

Pulmonary

Question 145

The artery that can be palpated on the anterior surface of the foot is the:
Group of answer choices

posterior tibial.

anterior tibial.

ventral pedis.

dorsalis pedis.

Answer 145

dorsalis pedis.

Question 146

The exchange of oxygen and nutrients for waste products of metabolism occurs at the cellular level in the:
Group of answer choices

arteries.

arterioles.

venules.

capillaries.

Answer 146

capillaries.

Question 147

The descending aorta branches into the:
Group of answer choices

external carotid arteries.

internal carotid arteries.

deep femoral arteries.

common iliac arteries.

Answer 147

common iliac arteries.

Question 148

Bleeding is normally stopped by:
Group of answer choices

activation of platelets.

capillary rupture.

increased white blood cells.

arterial dilation.

Answer 148

activation of platelets.

Question 149

Deoxygenated blood from the abdomen, pelvis, and lower extremities is returned to the right atrium via the:
Group of answer choices

common iliac vein.

coronary sinus vein.

superior vena cava.

inferior vena cava.

Answer 149

inferior vena cava.

Question 150

Worn-out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered from the blood by the:
Group of answer choices

pancreas.

liver.

spleen.

kidney.

Answer 150

Spleen

Question 151

Which of the following statements regarding plasma is correct?
Group of answer choices

Plasma has no role in the body’s blood-clotting mechanism.

Plasma transports the blood cells and nutrients.

Most of the body’s plasma is contained within the large veins.

Approximately 45% of the blood is composed of plasma.

Answer 151

Plasma transports the blood cells and nutrients.

Question 152

Hemoglobin is a molecule that attaches to ___________ and carries oxygen.
Group of answer choices

monocytes

thrombocytes

erythrocytes

leukocytes

Answer 152

erythrocytes

Question 153

White blood cells, which are also called leukocytes, function by:
Group of answer choices

producing blood-clotting factors.

protecting the body from infection.

producing the body’s erythrocytes.

carrying oxygen and other nutrients.

Answer 153

protecting the body from infection.

Question 154

What is the function of platelets?
Group of answer choices

Transport of oxygen and nutrients

Initial formation of a blood clot

Defense against invading organisms

Transport of cellular waste materials

Answer 154

Initial formation of a blood clot

Question 155

The phase of the cardiac cycle in which the ventricles fill with blood is called:
Group of answer choices

systole.

diastole

stroke volume.

cardiac output.

Answer 155

diastole

Question 156

A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The “130” in this measurement represents:
Group of answer choices

atrial contraction.

ventricular contraction.

ventricular filling.

ventricular relaxation.

Answer 156

ventricular contraction.

Question 157

The average adult has approximately ___________ of blood in his or her vascular system.
Group of answer choices

5 L

4 L

6 L

3 L

Answer 157

6l

Question 158

The circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells’ current needs is called:
Group of answer choices

metabolism.

perfusion.

cardiac output.

respiration.

Answer 158

Perfusion

Question 159

___________ pressure is the pressure exerted by a liquid that occurs when blood moves through an artery at relatively high pressures.
Group of answer choices

Diffusion

Oncotic

Osmotic

Hydrostatic

Answer 159

Hydrostatic

Question 160

Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include:
Group of answer choices

acetylcholine and insulin.

norepinephrine and acetylcholine.

epinephrine and norepinephrine.

glucagon and noradrenaline.

Answer 160

epinephrine and norepinephrine.

Question 161

Stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors results in:
Group of answer choices

constriction of the blood vessels.

increased heart rate.

increased cardiac contractility.

dilation of the blood vessels.

Answer 161

constriction of the blood vessels.

Question 162

An increase in heart rate and contractility occurs due to stimulation of:
Group of answer choices

beta-2 receptors.

alpha-1 receptors.

alpha-2 receptors.

beta-1 receptors.

Answer 162

beta-1 receptors.

Question 163

Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system would result in:
Group of answer choices

a slower heart rate.

tachycardia.

vasoconstriction.

a strong pulse.

Answer 163

a slower heart rate.

Question 164

Which of the following statements regarding nervous system control of the cardiovascular system is correct?
Group of answer choices

Alpha-adrenergic receptors are located exclusively in the heart and are stimulated by epinephrine.

When stimulated, the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for increasing the heart rate.

The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems work together to perform the same function.

Baroreceptors located throughout the body provide information to the brain regarding the blood pressure.

Answer 164

Baroreceptors located throughout the body provide information to the brain regarding the blood pressure.

Question 165

Activities such as walking, talking, and writing are regulated by the:
Group of answer choices

somatic nervous system.

autonomic nervous system.

involuntary nervous system.

central nervous system.

Answer 165

somatic nervous system.

Question 166

The central nervous system is composed of the:
Group of answer choices

motor and sensory nerves.

spinal cord and sensory nerves.

brain and spinal cord.

brain and sensory nerves.

Answer 166

brain and spinal cord.

Question 167

The autonomic nervous system controls all of the following functions, except:
Group of answer choices

vessel dilation.

breathing.

breath holding.

digestion.

Answer 167

breath holding.

Question 168

The largest portion of the brain is the ___________, which is commonly referred to as the “gray matter.”
Group of answer choices

diencephalon

cerebellum

cerebrum

brain stem

Answer 168

cerebrum

Question 169

The part of the brain that controls the left side of the body is the:
Group of answer choices

left-side cerebrum.

left parietal lobe.

right-side cerebrum.

right temporal lobe.

Answer 169

right-side cerebrum.

Question 170

Trauma to the __________ lobe of the brain would likely result in visual disturbances.
Group of answer choices

occipital

temporal

parietal

frontal

Answer 170

occipital

Question 171

Which part of the central nervous system is responsible for coordinating bodily movements such as writing or sewing?
Group of answer choices

Hypothalamus

Brain stem

Cerebellum

Cerebrum

Answer 171

Cerebellum

Question 172

All critical life functions are coordinated in which part of the brain?
Group of answer choices

Cerebellum

Cerebrum

Brainstem

Gray matter

Answer 172

Brainstem

Question 173

Your ability to remain awake is a function of the:
Group of answer choices

limbic system.

reticular activating system.

pons and medulla.

cerebellum.

Answer 173

reticular activating system.

Question 174

Which of the following skin layers contains sweat and oil glands, hair follicles, blood vessels, and nerve endings?
Group of answer choices

Dermis

Epidermis

Sebaceous

Subcutaneous

Answer 174

Dermis

Question 175

Which layer of the skin is composed of fatty tissue and serves as an insulator for the body?
Group of answer choices

Sebaceous

Dermal

Subcutaneous

Epidermis

Answer 175

Subcutaneous

Question 176

Which of the following is not a function of the skin?
Group of answer choices

Pressure and pain perception

Metabolic coordination

Temperature regulation

Sensory reception

Answer 176

Metabolic coordination

Question 177

Which of the following organs is not part of the digestive system?
Group of answer choices

Stomach

Gallbladder

Kidney

Pancreas

Answer 177

Kidney

Question 178

The __________ fills the entire anteroposterior depth of the right upper quadrant of the abdomen.
Group of answer choices

spleen

stomach

liver

pancreas

Answer 178

Liver

Question 179

Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen?
Group of answer choices

Stomach

Cecum

Liver

Spleen

Answer 179

Spleen

Question 180

Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space?
Group of answer choices

Gallbladder

Spleen

Kidneys

Ascending aorta

Answer 180

Kidney

Question 181

The kidneys and pancreas are called retroperitoneal organs because they:
Group of answer choices

are located behind the abdominal cavity.

sit in front of the liver, spleen, and stomach.

are protected by the anterior rib cage.

lie just anterior to the costovertebral angle.

Answer 181

are located behind the abdominal cavity.

Question 182

The exocrine gland of the pancreas secretes:
Group of answer choices

insulin.

bile.

pancreatic juice.

glucose.

Answer 182

pancreatic juice.

Question 183

Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the:
Group of answer choices

pancreas.

stomach.

kidneys.

gallbladder.

Answer 183

Gallbladder

Question 184

The primary organ responsible for absorption of products of digestion is the:
Group of answer choices

gallbladder.

pancreas.

small intestine.

large intestine.

Answer 184

small intestine.

Question 185

Which of the following systems is responsible for releasing hormones that regulate body activities?
Group of answer choices

Reproductive

Endocrine

Skeletal

Nervous

Answer 185

Endocrine

Question 186

Abnormalities in metabolism are most likely to be caused by dysfunction of the:
Group of answer choices

parathyroid gland.

pancreas.

adrenal gland.

thyroid gland.

Answer 186

thyroid gland.

Question 187

Which of the following glands regulates the function of all other endocrine glands in the body?
Group of answer choices

Pituitary

Parathyroid

Thyroid

Adrenal

Answer 187

Pituitary

Question 188

Which of the following statements regarding the kidneys is correct?
Group of answer choices

Both kidneys are located in the anterior abdominal cavity and lie in between the liver and the spleen.

Because the kidneys require little oxygen, only 5% of the body’s blood volume passes through them each minute.

A series of small blood vessels attach the kidneys directly to the superior vena cava and renal arteries.

The kidneys eliminate toxic waste products from the body and control the body’s fluid balance.

Answer 188

The kidneys eliminate toxic waste products from the body and control the body’s fluid balance.

Question 189

Urine is transported from the kidneys to the urinary bladder via the:
Group of answer choices

prostate.

urethra.

ureters.

renal duct.

Answer 189

Ureters

Question 190

What is the function of the fallopian tubes?
Group of answer choices

To produce progesterone and estrogen

To connect the ovaries

To supply blood to the uterine lining

To transport a mature egg to the uterus

Answer 190

To transport a mature egg to the uterus

Question 191

Large amounts of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) are generated when:
Group of answer choices

the cells function with adequate oxygen.

circulating blood glucose levels fall.

the cells function without oxygen.

carbon dioxide levels in the blood are high.

Answer 191

the cells function with adequate oxygen.

Question 192

The waste products of aerobic metabolism include:
Group of answer choices

carbon dioxide and water.

ATP and glucose.

glucose and lactic acid.

uric acid and nitrogen.

Answer 192

carbon dioxide and water.

Question 193

Which of the following statements regarding anaerobic metabolism is correct?
Group of answer choices

Without anaerobic metabolism, perfusion to the body will suffer and cellular death will occur.

The body functions optimally and produces maximum ATP during anaerobic metabolism.

Anaerobic metabolism produces lactic acid and occurs when cellular oxygen is limited.

Anaerobic metabolism can be supported in most of the body’s cells for up to 10 minutes.

Answer 193

Anaerobic metabolism produces lactic acid and occurs when cellular oxygen is limited.

Question 194

Pathophysiology is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular:
Group of answer choices

medication.

protocol.

disease.

assessment.

Answer 194

disease

Question 195

The air you breathe is _______ oxygen, and the air you exhale is _______ oxygen.
Group of answer choices

25%; 32%

16%; 25%

21%; 35%

21%; 16%

Answer 195

21% 16%

Question 196

A patient has a large accumulation of blood in the sac surrounding the heart. Which of the following types of shock would this condition cause?
Group of answer choices

Obstructive

Cardiogenic

Neurogenic

Hypovolemic

Answer 196

Obstructive

Question 197

Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is a product of:
Group of answer choices

heart rate and systemic vascular resistance.

cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance.

stroke volume and systemic vascular resistance.

heart rate and stroke volume.

Answer 197

cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance.

Question 198

In an otherwise healthy adult, blood loss would cause:
Group of answer choices

vascular constriction and tachycardia.

vascular dilation and bradycardia.

vascular dilation and tachycardia.

vascular constriction and bradycardia.

Answer 198

vascular constriction and tachycardia.

Question 199

Which set of nerves is responsible for carrying information from the body to the central nervous system?
Group of answer choices

Motor

Cranial

Sensory

Vertebral

Answer 199

Sensory

Question 200

The amount of air that remains in the lungs simply to keep them open is called the:

Answer 200

residual volume.

Question 201

The _________ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle.
Group of answer choices

coccyx

sacrum

thorax

ischium

Answer 201

Sacrum

Question 202

When a person is standing upright, the weight of anything being lifted and carried in the hands is first reflected onto the:
Group of answer choices

pelvic girdle.

spinal column.

thigh muscles.

shoulder girdle.

Answer 202

shoulder girdle

Question 203

When the shoulder girdle is aligned over the pelvis during lifting:
Group of answer choices

the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae.

the hands can be held further apart from the body.

the muscles of the back experience increased strain.

the risk of back injuries is significantly increased.

Answer 203

the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae.

Question 204

An EMT might injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the:
Group of answer choices

back is bent forward at the hips.

hands are held close to the legs.

shoulder is aligned over the pelvis.

force is exerted straight down the spine.

Answer 204

back is bent forward at the hips.

Question 205

The first rule of safe lifting is to:
Group of answer choices

always lift with your palms facing down.

spread your legs approximately 20″ apart.

keep your back in a slightly curved position.

keep your back in a straight, vertical position.

Answer 205

keep your back in a straight, vertical position.

Question 206

Which of the following statements regarding the power lift is correct?
Group of answer choices

It involves using your lower back instead of your legs to lift.

The leg muscles should remain relaxed during the power lift.

It is the safest and most powerful method of lifting a patient.

It is not recommended for people with weak knees or thighs.

Answer 206

It is the safest and most powerful method of lifting a patient.

Question 207

The proper technique for using the power grip is to:
Group of answer choices

lift with your palms up.

rotate your palms down.

hold the handle with your fingers.

position your hands about 6″ apart.

Answer 207

lift with your palms up.

Question 208

Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct?
Group of answer choices

The majority of a horizontal patient’s weight is in the torso.

Most of the patient’s weight rests on the foot end of the stretcher.

A semi-sitting patient’s weight is equally distributed on both ends.

The EMT at the patient’s head will bear the least amount of weight.

Answer 208

The majority of a horizontal patient’s weight is in the torso.

Question 209

General guidelines for carrying a patient on a stretcher include:
Group of answer choices

maintaining slight flexion of your back.

leaning back from your waist when lifting.

slightly twisting your body when carrying.

constant communication with your partners.

Answer 209

constant communication with your partners.

Question 210

To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should:
Group of answer choices

flex at the waist instead of the hips.

avoid the use of log rolls or body drags.

use a direct carry whenever possible.

keep the weight as close to your body as possible.

Answer 210

keep the weight as close to your body as possible.

Question 211

Which of the following most accurately describes the correct position of the EMTs who are executing the diamond carry technique?
Group of answer choices

Two at the head, two at the feet, and a fifth EMT balancing the torso

One at the head, two at the feet, and a fourth EMT balancing the torso

One at the head, one at the feet, and one on each side of the patient’s torso

Two at the head, one at the feet, and one on the left side of the patient’s torso

Answer 211

One at the head, one at the feet, and one on each side of the patient’s torso

Question 212

When carrying a patient on a backboard up or down stairs:
Group of answer choices

keep your palms facing down.

keep the head end elevated.

carry the patient headfirst.

keep the foot end elevated.

Answer 212

keep the head end elevated.

Question 213

When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid:
Group of answer choices

flexing your body at the knees.

the use of more than two EMTs.

using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible.

the use of a long backboard or scoop stretcher.

Answer 213

using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible

Question 214

Which of the following is the most appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury?
Group of answer choices

Long backboard

Scoop stretcher

Portable stretcher

Wheeled stretcher

Answer 214

Long backboard

Question 215

To facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should:
Group of answer choices

be positioned at the feet so the team can hear.

use preparatory commands to initiate any moves.

speak softly but clearly to avoid startling the patient.

never become involved in the move, only direct the move.

Answer 215

use preparatory commands to initiate any moves.

Question 216

With proper technique, you and your partner should be able to safely lift a patient who weighs up to ______ pounds.
Group of answer choices

150

175

190

220

Answer 216

220

Question 217

You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 pounds with fewer than _______ rescuers, regardless of individual strength.
Group of answer choices

three

four

five

six

Answer 217

4

Question 218

You and your partner respond to the scene of a 49-year-old male with acute abdominal pain. As you enter his residence, you find him lying on the floor in severe pain. He is conscious and alert. The patient appears to weigh in excess of 350 pounds. Your first action should be to:
Group of answer choices

request the fire department if one attempt to move him fails.

encourage the patient to walk himself to the awaiting ambulance.

assess him and then move him to the stretcher with a direct carry.

request additional personnel before making any attempts to lift him.

Answer 218

request additional personnel before making any attempts to lift him.

Question 219

As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should:
Group of answer choices

reposition your hands and continue to move the patient.

stop the move and request additional lifting assistance.

guide your partner while moving the chair backwards.

stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs.

Answer 219

stop the move and request additional lifting assistance.

Question 220

When pulling a patient, you should extend your arms no more than ________ in front of your torso.
Group of answer choices

5″ to 10″

10″ to 15″

15″ to 20″

20″ to 30″

Answer 220

15- 20

Question 221

When using a body drag to pull a patient who is on the ground, you should:
Group of answer choices

kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over.

extend your elbows as far beyond your anterior torso as possible.

bend your back laterally to maximize your amount of pulling power.

avoid situations involving strenuous effort lasting more than five minutes.

Answer 221

kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over.

Question 222

To avoid injury when pushing a patient or other object, you should:
Group of answer choices

push the patient from an overhead position if possible.

avoid pushing the patient with your elbows fully extended.

push from the area of your body between the knees and hips.

kneel if you are pushing an object that is above waist level.

Answer 222

avoid pushing the patient with your elbows fully extended.

Question 223

Which of the following statements regarding an emergency patient move is correct?
Group of answer choices

The spine must be fully immobilized prior to performing an emergency move.

An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment.

The patient is dragged against the body’s long axis during an emergency move.

It is not possible to perform an emergency move without injuring the patient.

Answer 223

An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment.

Question 224

In which of the following situations is an emergency patient move indicated?
Group of answer choices

A patient has an altered mental status or is in shock.

The EMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards.

The EMT has to gain access to lesser-injured patients in a vehicle.

A significant mechanism of injury is involved.

Answer 224

The EMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards.

Question 225

Which of the following steps is not proper procedure when performing an emergency move?
Group of answer choices

Using a long-axis body drag during the move

Pulling the patient on a blanket or similar object

Pulling the patient’s clothing in the shoulder area

Lifting the patient by the belt to move him or her

Answer 225

Lifting the patient by the belt to move him or her

Question 226

You and your partner enter the residence of an elderly couple, both of whom are found unconscious in their bed. There is no evidence of trauma. As you begin your assessment, you and your partner notice the smell of natural gas in the residence. Which of the following should be your most appropriate action?
Group of answer choices

Perform a rapid assessment and then move the patients from their residence.

Request another ambulance to assist with lifting and moving the patients.

Quickly exit the residence and request the fire department to move the patients.

Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag.

Answer 226

Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag

Question 227

Which of the following situations would require an urgent patient move?
Group of answer choices

Conscious patient with abrasions and a possibly fractured humerus

Imminent risk of a fire or explosion in or near the patient’s vehicle

Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock

Stable patient who is blocking access to a critically injured patient

Answer 227

Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock

Question 228

A critical aspect of the rapid extrication technique is to:
Group of answer choices

maintain stabilization of the spine at all times.

move the patient as quickly as you possibly can.

extricate the patient with one coordinated move.

apply a vest-style device before moving the patient.

Answer 228

maintain stabilization of the spine at all times.

Question 229

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should:
Group of answer choices

direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient’s head.

apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with a clothes drag.

apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient.

slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board.

Answer 229

direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient’s head.

Question 230

Situations in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following, except:
Group of answer choices

a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle.

a patient who blocks access to another seriously injured patient.

a patient who needs immediate care that requires a supine position.

a patient whose condition requires immediate transport to the hospital.

Answer 230

a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle.

Question 231

When performing the rapid extrication technique to remove a patient from his or her vehicle, you should:
Group of answer choices

apply a vest-style extrication device prior to moving the patient.

apply a cervical collar and immobilize the patient on a short backboard.

grasp the patient by the clothing and drag him or her from the car.

apply a cervical collar and remove the patient on a long backboard.

Answer 231

apply a cervical collar and remove the patient on a long backboard.

Question 232

The most serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is:
Group of answer choices

unnecessarily wasting time.

injury to you or your patient.

causing patient anxiety or fear.

confusion among team members.

Answer 232

injury to you or your patient

Question 233

A 56-year-old female is found supine in a narrow hallway of her mobile home. She complains of severe weakness and dizziness, and states that she is unable to walk. There is no evidence of trauma, and the patient states that she did not fall. How should you and your partner move this patient to a more spacious area?
Group of answer choices

Direct carry

Extremity lift

Scoop stretcher

Emergency move

Answer 233

Extremity lift

Question 234

In which of the following situations would a direct ground lift be the most appropriate method of moving a patient?
Group of answer choices

A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain

A patient who complains of hip pain following a fall

A pedestrian with back pain after being struck by a car

An unconscious patient with a possible ischemic stroke

Answer 234

A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain

Question 235

The extremity lift would not be appropriate to use on a patient:
Group of answer choices

without a spinal injury.

with a deformed humerus.

who complains of nausea.

with forearm lacerations.

Answer 235

with a deformed humerus.

Question 236

The direct carry is used to transfer a patient:
Group of answer choices

with multiple long bone injuries.

with a possible cervical spine injury.

from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.

who cannot be placed on a backboard.

Answer 236

from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.

Question 237

Which is the most appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to a wheeled stretcher?
Group of answer choices

Log roll

Direct carry

Extremity carry

Draw sheet method

Answer 237

Draw sheet method

Question 238

Which of the following conditions or situations presents the most unique challenge to the EMT when immobilizing an elderly patient on a long backboard?
Group of answer choices

Joint flexibility

Patient disorientation

Naturally deformed bones

Abnormal spinal curvature

Answer 238

Abnormal spinal curvature

Question 239

An 81-year-old female fell and struck her head. You find the patient lying on her left side. She is conscious and complains of neck and upper back pain. As you are assessing her, you note that she has a severely kyphotic spine. What is the most appropriate method of immobilizing this patient?
Group of answer choices

Apply a cervical collar and place her in a sitting position on the wheeled stretcher.

Immobilize her in a supine position on a long backboard and secure her with straps.

Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard.

Move her to a supine position and immobilize her with a scoop stretcher and padding.

Answer 239

Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard.

Question 240

In most instances, you should move a patient on a wheeled ambulance stretcher by:
Group of answer choices

pushing the foot of the stretcher while your partner guides the head.

pushing the head of the stretcher while your partner guides the foot.

slightly lifting the stretcher to prevent unnecessary patient movement.

retracting the undercarriage and carrying the stretcher to the ambulance.

Answer 240

pushing the head of the stretcher while your partner guides the foot.

Question 241

In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include:
Group of answer choices

a collapsible undercarriage.

weight capacity of up to 650 pounds.

increased stability from a wider wheelbase.

two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher.

Answer 241

increased stability from a wider wheelbase.

Question 242

A folding or portable stretcher is most beneficial when:
Group of answer choices

a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance.

an injured patient cannot be placed on a long board due to severe back pain.

a conscious, alert patient must be carried down several flights of steep stairs.

a patient requires full spinal immobilization when spinal injury is suspected.

Answer 242

a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance.

Question 243

You have two patients who were involved in a motor vehicle crash when their SUV struck a tree
Group of answer choices

Immobilize both patients with a cervical collar and long backboard based on the mechanism of injury; place one on the wheeled stretcher and the other on the squad bench.

Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with the deformed femur on a folding stretcher secured to the squad bench.

Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the squad bench; allow the patient with the deformed femur to sit on the wheeled stretcher.

Apply a traction splint to the patient with the deformed femur and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with neck and back pain on the squad bench immobilized with a cervical collar and scoop stretcher.

Answer 243

Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the squad bench; allow the patient with the deformed femur to sit on the wheeled stretcher.

Question 244

An unrestrained patient is sitting in his car after an automobile crash. He is conscious and alert, has no visible trauma, and is complaining of neck and back pain. Before removing him from his car, you should:
Group of answer choices

slide a scoop stretcher under his buttocks and rotate him laterally.

apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device.

perform a detailed head-to-toe assessment and apply a cervical collar.

maintain manual stabilization of his head and grasp him by the clothes.

Answer 244

apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device.

Question 245

The most appropriate carrying device to use when moving a patient across rough or uneven terrain is the:
Group of answer choices

stair chair.

wheeled stretcher.

scoop stretcher.

basket stretcher.

Answer 245

basket stretcher.

Question 246

Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is not correct?
Group of answer choices

The construction of the scoop stretcher prohibits X-rays while the patient is on it.

You must fully secure the patient to the scoop stretcher before moving him or her.

A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient’s spinal column.

Both sides of the patient must be accessible for a scoop stretcher to be used.

Answer 246

A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient’s spinal column.

Question 247

When moving a conscious, weak patient down a flight of stairs, you should:
Group of answer choices

secure the patient to a scoop stretcher and carry him or her headfirst down the stairs to the awaiting stretcher.

place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair.

collapse the undercarriage of the wheeled stretcher and carefully carry the patient down the stairs on the stretcher.

assist the patient in walking down the stairs and place him or her on the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs.

Answer 247

place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair.

Question 248

Which of the following statements regarding the neonatal isolette is correct?
Group of answer choices

The isolette serves to keep the neonate warm and protects him or her from excess handling.

A freestanding isolette should be used, not one that is secured to the stretcher.

The safest type of isolette is one that takes the place of the ambulance stretcher.

If an isolette is not available, the neonate can safely be transported on the stretcher.

Answer 248

The isolette serves to keep the neonate warm and protects him or her from excess handling.

Question 249

It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease.
Group of answer choices

throw out

decontaminate

incinerate

properly store

Answer 249

decontaminate

Question 250

After applying medical restraints to a combative patient, you should:

inform the patient that the restraints are punishment for their behavior

remove them only if the patient verbally commits to calming down.
Pick the right answer

position the patient prone in order to further prevent injury to yourself.

remove them only after hospital personnel have requested you to do so.

Answer 250

remove them only after hospital personnel have requested you to do so.

Question 251

Which of the following is an example of a symptom?

Cyanosis

Headache

Hypertension

Tachycardia

Answer 251

Headache

Question 252

Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms?
Group of answer choices

A 49-year-old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears

A 55-year-old male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea

A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis

A 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness

Answer 252

61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis

Question 253

Which of the following actions would NOT be performed during the scene Size-up?
Group of answer choices

Rapidly assessing a patient’s respiratory status

Noting the position of a crashed motor vehicle

Notifying the dispatcher to send fire personnel

Asking a neighbor to secure the patient’s dog

Answer 253

Rapidly assessing a patient’s respiratory status

Question 254

While en route to the scene of a shooting, the dispatcher advises you that the perpetrator has fled the scene. You should:
Group of answer choices

confirm this information with law enforcement personnel at the scene.

request law enforcement personnel if the scene is unsafe upon arrival.

ask the dispatcher if he or she knows the location of the perpetrator.

proceed to the scene as usual but exercise extreme caution upon arrival.

Answer 254

confirm this information with law enforcement personnel at the scene.

Question 255

Upon arriving at a potentially unsafe scene, you should first:
Group of answer choices

ensure that you are safe.

request another ambulance.

remove all bystanders.

move the patient to safety.

Answer 255

ensure that you are safe.

Question 256

You are assessing a 72-year-old man with abdominal pain. The patient is sitting in a chair; he is conscious, alert, and calm. As you are talking to the patient, your partner discreetly directs your attention to a handgun, which is located on a nearby table. You should:
Group of answer choices

immediately cease all patient care, carefully back out of the residence, and request law enforcement assistance.

direct your partner to move the gun to a safe area and then advise the patient that his weapon has been secured.

position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance.

document the presence of the weapon, including its specific location, and continue your assessment of the patient.

Answer 256

position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance.

Question 257

Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct?
Group of answer choices

A significant MOI usually results in patient death or permanent disability.

The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient’s injuries.

A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma.

The exact location of a patient’s injuries can be determined by the MOI.

Answer 257

The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient’s injuries.

Question 258

The MOST effective way to determine whether your patient’s problem is medical or traumatic in origin is to:
Group of answer choices

perform a careful and thorough assessment.

establish the patient’s medical history early.

ask if bystanders are familiar with the patient.

take note of the patient’s general appearance.

Answer 258

perform a careful and thorough assessment.

Question 259

When should you take standard precautions during an EMS call?
Group of answer choices

Before you load the patient into the ambulance.

Immediately after completion of your primary assessment.

After it has been determined that the patient is bleeding.

Before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact

Answer 259

before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact.

Question 260

Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after:
Group of answer choices

all the patients have been triaged.

area hospitals have been notified.

a physician arrives at the scene.

medical control has been contacted.

Answer 260

all the patients have been triaged.

Question 261

When is it MOST appropriate to consider requesting additional ambulances at an accident scene?
Group of answer choices

When you determine there are multiple patients

After noncritical patients have been identified

After you have triaged all the critical patients

When all the deceased patients are accounted for

Answer 261

When you determine there are multiple patients

Question 262

The goal of the primary assessment is to:
Group of answer choices

determine the need to perform a head-to-toe assessment.

identify patients that require transport to a trauma center.

identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions.

determine if the patient’s problem is medical or traumatic.

Answer 262

identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions.

Question 263

Observations made when forming a general impression of a patient would include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Group of answer choices

pulse strength.

appearance.

race and gender.

level of distress.

Answer 263

pulse strength.

Question 264

When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should:
Group of answer choices

assess his mental status by having him move his head.

stand behind him and immediately stabilize his head.

ensure that the patient can see you approaching him.

approach him from behind and ask him not to move.

Answer 264

ensure that the patient can see you approaching him.

Question 265

Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness?
Group of answer choices

Poisoning

Inadequate perfusion

Drug overdose

Acute anxiety

Answer 265

Acute anxiety

Question 266

Which of the following patients has signs of an altered mental status?
Group of answer choices

A patient with an acute allergic reaction and dizziness

A diabetic who has nausea and severe lightheadedness

A patient who overdosed and tells you he tried to kill himself

A patient with a head injury who is slow to answer questions

Answer 266

A patient with a head injury who is slow to answer questions

Question 267

A patient who moves and cries out only when you pinch his or her trapezius muscle is said to be:
Group of answer choices

responsive to verbal stimuli.

responsive to painful stimuli.

conscious and alert.

completely unresponsive.

Answer 267

responsive to painful stimuli.

Question 268

An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. You assess her level of consciousness as unresponsive using the AVPU scale. Your initial care should focus on:
Group of answer choices

obtaining baseline vital signs.

providing immediate transport.

gathering medical history data.

airway, breathing, and circulation.

Answer 268

airway, breathing, and circulation

Question 269

A patient’s short-term memory is MOST likely intact if they correctly answer questions regarding:
Group of answer choices

person and place.

day and event

event and person.

time and place.

Answer 269

day and event

Question 270

A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is:
Group of answer choices

10.

14.

12.

13.

Answer 270

13

Question 271

An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score?
Group of answer choices

Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain

Opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion

Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain

Eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension

Answer 271

Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain

Question 272

When you inspect a patient’s pupils with a penlight, the pupils should normally react to the light by:
Group of answer choices

dilating.

constricting.

fluttering.

enlarging.

Answer 272

Constricting

Question 273

When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to:
Group of answer choices

become larger.

dilate.

become smaller.

not react.

Answer 273

become smaller.

Question 274

Which of the following pupillary changes would indicate depressed brain function?
Group of answer choices

Both pupils constrict when a bright light is introduced.

Both pupils react briskly to light instead of sluggishly.

Both pupils are sluggish with introduction of a bright light.

Both pupils dilate when a bright light is removed.

Answer 274

Both pupils are sluggish with introduction of a bright light.

Question 275

What maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma?
Group of answer choices

Head tilt-neck lift maneuver

Jaw-thrust maneuver

Head tilt-chin lift maneuver

Tongue-jaw lift maneuver

Answer 275

Jaw-thrust maneuver

Question 276

Which of the following statements regarding stridor is correct?
Group of answer choices

It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound.

It is a whistling sound heard in the lower airway.

It is caused by incorrect airway positioning.

It suggests the presence of fluid in the lungs.

Answer 276

It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound.

Question 277

Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway?
Group of answer choices

Unresponsiveness

Inspiratory stridor

Audible breathing

Ability to speak

Answer 277

Ability to speak

Question 278

You respond to a call for a female pedestrian who has been struck by a car. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a primary assessment. She is unconscious, has ineffective breathing, and has bloody secretions in her mouth. You should:
Group of answer choices

assist her breathing with a bag-valve mask.

quickly insert an oropharyngeal airway.

assess the rate and quality of her pulse.

immediately suction her oropharynx.

Answer 278

immediately suction her oropharynx.

Question 279

A 40-year-old male crashed his motorcycle into a tree. He is semiconscious, has snoring respirations, and has a laceration to the forearm with minimal bleeding. You should:
Group of answer choices

tilt the patient’s head back and lift up on his chin.

apply a pressure dressing to the patient’s arm.

open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver.

apply a cervical collar and suction his airway.

Answer 279

open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver.

Question 280

After performing a head tilt-chin lift maneuver to open the airway of an unresponsive patient who has a pulse, you should:
Group of answer choices

suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct.

assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity.

place him or her in the recovery position.

provide positive-pressure ventilatory assistance.

Answer 280

suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct.

Question 281

A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing:
Group of answer choices

without difficulty.

with shallow depth.

without assistance.

at a normal rate.

Answer 281

without assistance.

Question 282

Supplemental oxygen without assisted ventilation would MOST likely be administered to patients:
Group of answer choices

who are semiconscious with shallow respirations.

with rapid respirations and a reduced tidal volume.

who have accessory muscle use and slow breathing.

with difficulty breathing and adequate tidal volume.

Answer 282

with difficulty breathing and adequate tidal volume.

Question 283

You are dispatched to the county jail for an inmate who is “sick.” When you arrive, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, unresponsive. His airway is patent, and his respirations are rapid and shallow. Your initial action should be to:
Group of answer choices

apply a pulse oximeter.

assist his ventilations.

request a paramedic unit.

assess his blood pressure.

Answer 283

assist his ventilations.

Question 284

If a patient develops difficulty breathing after your primary assessment, you should immediately:
Group of answer choices

begin assisting his or her breathing.

reevaluate his or her airway status.

auscultate his or her breath sounds.

determine his or her respiratory rate.

Answer 284

reevaluate his or her airway status.

Question 285

The normal respiratory rate for an adult should range from:
Group of answer choices

18 to 24 breaths per minute.

10 to 12 breaths per minute.

12 to 20 breaths per minute.

24 to 28 breaths per minute.

Answer 285

12 to 20 breaths per minute.

Question 286

The goal of oxygenation for most patients is an oxygen saturation of:
Group of answer choices

100%

90% to 94%

88% to 90%

94% to 99%

Answer 286

94% to 99%

Question 287

Normal respiratory rates should not exceed _______ breaths per minute in toddlers and _______ breaths per minute in infants.
Group of answer choices

30, 40

20, 30

40, 60

18, 28

Answer 287

40, 60

Question 288

Which of the following is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs?
Group of answer choices

Applying a pulse oximeter and monitoring the SpO 2

Evaluating the patient’s chest for cyanosis

Looking for the presence of accessory muscle use

Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope

Answer 288

Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope

Question 289

Which of the following abnormal breath sounds indicates obstruction of the upper airway?
Group of answer choices

Crackles

Rales

Rhonchi

Stridor

Answer 289

Stridor

Question 290

Clinical signs of labored breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Group of answer choices

supraclavicular retractions.

use of accessory muscles.

gasping attempts to breathe.

shallow chest movement.

Answer 290

shallow chest movement.

Question 291

Which of the following occurs when a patient’s respirations are shallow?
Group of answer choices

Oxygenation occurs more efficiently.

Chest rise will be easily noticeable.

Carbon dioxide elimination is increased.

Tidal volume is markedly reduced.

Answer 291

Tidal volume is markedly reduced.

Question 292

Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is usually observed only in pediatric patients?
Group of answer choices

Rapid respirations

Pursed-lip breathing

Seesaw breathing

Accessory muscle use

Answer 292

Seesaw breathing

Question 293

An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will:
Group of answer choices

exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs.

have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths/min.

assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing.

be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses.

Answer 293

be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses.

Question 294

You should suspect that a patient is experiencing respiratory failure if he or she:
Group of answer choices

has an increased heart rate and retractions.

has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone.

is restless and is working hard to breathe.

is anxious, tachycardic, and leaning forward.

Answer 294

has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone.

Question 295

During the primary assessment, circulation is evaluated by assessing:
Group of answer choices

blood pressure, pulse rate, and external bleeding.

skin quality, blood pressure, and capillary refill.

external bleeding, skin condition, and capillary refill.

pulse quality, external bleeding, and skin condition.

Answer 295

pulse quality, external bleeding, and skin condition.

Question 296

A palpable pulse is created by:
Group of answer choices

pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.

electrical conduction in the heart producing contraction of the atria.

the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart.

the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the veins.

Answer 296

pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.

Question 297

Which of the following is the MOST accurate guide to palpating a pulse?
Group of answer choices

Use your thumb to increase the surface area that you are palpating.

Place the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point.

Avoid compressing the artery against a bone or solid structure.

Apply firm pressure to the artery with your ring and little fingers.

Answer 297

Place the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point.

Question 298

In responsive patients who are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the ________ artery.
Group of answer choices

brachial

carotid

femoral

radial

Answer 298

Radial

Question 299

When palpating the carotid pulse of a responsive patient, you should:
Group of answer choices

avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously.

firmly compress the artery because the pulse is often weak.

ensure that his or her head is in a hyperextended position.

avoid gentle pressure so that weak pulses can be detected.

Answer 299

avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously.

Question 300

You receive a call to a daycare center for an unresponsive 8-month-old infant. Upon arrival, you perform an assessment and determine that the infant is not breathing. Your next action should be to:
Group of answer choices

immediately transport the child to the hospital.

open the airway and give two rescue breaths.

begin chest compressions and request backup.

assess for a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds.

Answer 300

assess for a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds.

Question 301

If you cannot palpate a pulse in an unresponsive patient whose collapse was not witnessed, you should:
Group of answer choices

apply an AED at once.

palpate at another pulse site.

assess for adequate breathing.

immediately begin CPR.

Answer 301

immediately begin CPR.

Question 302

You respond to the residence of a 62-year-old male who is unresponsive. Your primary assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. You should:
Group of answer choices

perform CPR and transport the patient immediately.

notify dispatch and request a paramedic ambulance.

start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible.

ask the family if the patient has a terminal disease.

Answer 302

start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible.

Question 303

Which of the following factors would MOST likely cause a patient’s pulse rate to be slower than normal?
Group of answer choices

Internal bleeding from trauma

Lack of a regular exercise routine

Beta blocker medications

Anxiety or severe stress

Answer 303

Beta blocker medications

Question 304

When palpating a patient’s pulse, you note that it is grossly irregular. You should:
Group of answer choices

count the number of pulsations in 30 seconds and multiply by two.

count the number of pulsations in 15 seconds and multiply by four.

count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading.

count the pulse rate for at least 30 seconds to ensure accuracy.

Answer 304

count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading.

Question 305

For an adult, the normal resting pulse should be between:
Group of answer choices

40 and 50 beats/min.

50 and 60 beats/min.

100 and 110 beats/min.

60 and 100 beats/min.

Answer 305

60 and 100 beats/min.

Question 306

In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _______ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _______ beats/min.
Group of answer choices

60, 100

30, 130

40, 120

50, 110

Answer 306

60, 100

Question 307

A pulse with a consistent pattern is considered to be:
Group of answer choices

regular.

strong.

irregular.

weak.

Answer 307

regular.

Question 308

When palpating a patient’s pulse, you note that there is a short interval between pulsations. This indicates that the pulse is:
Group of answer choices

irregular.

thready.

slow.

rapid.

Answer 308

rapid.

Question 309

When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. You should administer supplemental oxygen if needed and then:
Group of answer choices

apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm.

transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit.

conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age.

document your findings and perform a detailed assessment.

Answer 309

transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit.

Question 310

In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas, such as the:
Group of answer choices

lips or oral mucosa.

forehead and face.

back of the neck.

dorsum of the hand.

Answer 310

lips or oral mucosa.

Question 311

In infants and small children, skin color should be assessed on the:
Group of answer choices

chest and abdomen.

palms and soles.

forehead.

underside of the arms.

Answer 311

palms and soles.

Question 312

Poor peripheral circulation will cause the skin to appear:
Group of answer choices

cyanotic.

flushed.

pink.

ashen.

Answer 312

ashen.

Question 313

When assessing the skin of an unresponsive patient, you note that it has a bluish tint to it. This finding is called:
Group of answer choices

flushing.

mottling.

cyanosis.

pallor.

Answer 313

cyanosis

Question 314

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by:
Group of answer choices

peripheral vasodilation.

decreased blood oxygen.

increased blood oxygen.

venous vasoconstriction.

Answer 314

decreased blood oxygen.

Question 315

Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be:
Group of answer choices

pink, warm, and dry.

flushed, cool, and dry.

pale, cool, and moist.

pink, warm, and moist.

Answer 315

pink, warm, and dry.

Question 316

A patient with high blood pressure would be expected to have skin that is:
Group of answer choices

mottled and cool.

pale and moist.

cyanotic and dry.

flushed and red.

Answer 316

flushed and red.

Question 317

A 40-year-old male presents with pain to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect:
Group of answer choices

gallbladder disease.

acute pancreatitis.

liver dysfunction.

renal insufficiency.

Answer 317

liver dysfunction.

Question 318

A patient with profuse sweating is referred to as being:
Group of answer choices

plethoric.

diaphoretic.

edematous.

flushed.

Answer 318

diaphoretic.

Question 319

When you assess capillary refill time in an infant, normal color to the tested area should return within:
Group of answer choices

4 seconds.

2 seconds.

1 second.

3 seconds.

Answer 319

2 seconds.

Question 320

During your assessment of a 6-month-old male with vomiting and diarrhea, you note that his capillary refill time is approximately 4 seconds. From this information, you should conclude that the infant’s:
Group of answer choices

respiratory status is adequate.

skin temperature is abnormally cold.

peripheral circulation is decreased.

systolic blood pressure is normal.

Answer 320

peripheral circulation is decreased.

Question 321

With regard to the assessment of a patient’s cardiovascular status, capillary refill time is MOST reliable in:
Group of answer choices

patients who are significantly hypotensive.

patients who were exposed to cold temperatures.

patients who are younger than 6 years of age.

patients who are older than 70 years of age.

Answer 321

patients who are younger than 6 years of age.

Question 322

External bleeding from an extremity can usually be controlled initially by:
Group of answer choices

applying direct pressure.

applying chemical ice packs.

applying a tourniquet.

elevating the extremity.

Answer 322

applying direct pressure.

Question 323

External bleeding from an extremity can usually be controlled initially by:
Group of answer choices

applying direct pressure.

applying chemical ice packs.

applying a tourniquet.

elevating the extremity.

Answer 323

applying direct pressure.

Question 324

A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious, is screaming in pain, and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should:
Group of answer choices

ensure that his airway is patent.

elevate his legs and keep him warm.

administer 100% supplemental oxygen.

apply direct pressure to the wound.

Answer 324

apply direct pressure to the wound.

Question 325

After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to:
Group of answer choices

look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion.

identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.

determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions.

find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life.

Answer 325

identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.

Question 326

A 71-year-old female slipped on a rug and fell. She is conscious but confused and complains of severe pelvic pain. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. What should you do?
Group of answer choices

Transport her in a seated position

Treat her for possible shock

Gently palpate her pelvis

Transport her on her left side

Answer 326

Treat her for possible shock

Question 327

When assessing a patient’s abdomen, you will evaluate for all of the following, EXCEPT:
Group of answer choices

subcutaneous emphysema.

rigidity and obvious bleeding.

open wounds or eviscerations.

gross bleeding and tenderness.

Answer 327

subcutaneous emphysema

Question 328

When assessing a patient’s abdomen, you will evaluate for all of the following, EXCEPT:
Group of answer choices

subcutaneous emphysema.

rigidity and obvious bleeding.

open wounds or eviscerations.

Answer 328

subcutaneous emphysema.

Question 329

Which of the following situations or conditions warrants immediate transport?
Group of answer choices

Decreased ability to move an extremity

Ability to follow commands

Mild pain in the lower abdomen

Severe chest pain and cool, pale skin

Answer 329

Severe chest pain and cool, pale skin

Question 330

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should:
Group of answer choices

assess the rest of the body for bleeding.

maintain stabilization of the head.

look in the ears for gross bleeding.

prepare the immobilization equipment.

Answer 330

maintain stabilization of the head.

Question 331

A 50-year-old male presents with altered mental status. His wife tells you that he had a “small stroke” 3 years ago but has otherwise been in good health. The patient is responsive but unable to follow commands. After administering oxygen if needed, you should:
Group of answer choices

prepare for immediate transport.

perform a head-to-toe assessment.

inquire about his family history.

repeat the primary assessment.

Answer 331

prepare for immediate transport.

Question 332

The “Golden Hour” begins when an injury occurs and ends when:

the patient is admitted to the ICU.

you arrive at the emergency department.

the patient receives definitive care.

you depart the scene for the hospital.

Answer 332

the patient receives definitive care.

Question 333

As time progresses following a significant injury:
Group of answer choices

the patient’s blood pressure elevates significantly.

most patients will die secondary to internal bleeding.

the patient’s injuries will most likely be irreparable.

the body’s ability to compensate for shock decreases.

Answer 333

the body’s ability to compensate for shock decreases.

Question 334

A patient in unstable condition should be reassessed at least every:
Group of answer choices

10 minutes.

20 minutes.

15 minutes.

5 minutes.

Answer 334

5 minutes

Question 335

During a 30-minute transport of a stable patient, you should reassess him or her at least ________ times.
Group of answer choices

4

6

3

2

Answer 335

2

Question 336

What part of the patient assessment process focuses on obtaining additional information about the patient’s chief complaint and any medical problems he or she may have?
Group of answer choices

Primary assessment

General impression

Secondary assessment

History taking

Answer 336

History taking

Question 337

The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the:
Group of answer choices

gross physical signs that you detect on assessment.

most life-threatening condition that you discover.

most serious thing the patient is concerned about.

condition that exacerbates an underlying problem.

Answer 337

most serious thing the patient is concerned about.

Question 338

Upon arriving at the scene of a patient with difficulty breathing, you determine that the scene is safe. You enter the residence and find the patient sitting in a chair in respiratory distress. Your first action should be to:
Group of answer choices

assess the patient’s airway status.

obtain a set of baseline vital signs.

ask the patient what’s wrong.

introduce yourself to the patient.

Answer 338

introduce yourself to the patient.

Question 339

Which of the following questions is used to determine a patient’s chief complaint?
Group of answer choices

“Do you have a history of diabetes?”

“When did the chest pain begin?”

“What seems to be the matter?”

“Are you having trouble breathing?”

Answer 339

What seems to be the matter?”

Question 340

When interviewing a patient, you can show him or her that you understand the situation by:
Group of answer choices

maintaining constant eye contact with him or her.

repeating statements back to him or her.

using medical terminology whenever possible.

interrupting him or her as needed for clarification.

Answer 340

repeating statements back to him or her.

Question 341

A 50-year-old male is found unconscious in his car. There were no witnesses to the event. When gathering medical history information for this patient, the EMT should:
Group of answer choices

determine if the patient has a medical alert bracelet or wallet card.

wait for family members to arrive before asking any questions.

ask law enforcement officials if they are familiar with the patient.

defer SAMPLE history questions until you arrive at the hospital.

Answer 341

determine if the patient has a medical alert bracelet or wallet card.

Question 342

Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation?
Group of answer choices

“Does your mother have diabetes?”

“Has this ever happened to you before?”

“Does the pain stay in your chest?”

“Are there medications that you cannot take?”

Answer 342

Does your mother have diabetes?”

Question 343

Which of the following questions would you ask a patient to ascertain the “M” in the SAMPLE history?
Group of answer choices

“Have you ever had any major surgeries?”

“How much Tylenol do you take each day?”

“How long have you had your chest pain?”

“When was the last time you ate a meal?”

Answer 343

“How much Tylenol do you take each day?”

Question 344

Which of the following patient responses would establish the “E” in the SAMPLE history?
Group of answer choices

“I am not having any difficulty breathing.”

“I was in the hospital a week ago.”

“The chest pain started about 45 minutes ago.”

“I was mowing the lawn when the pain began.”

Answer 344

“I was mowing the lawn when the pain began.”

Question 345

Palliating factors regarding a patient’s pain involve those that:
Group of answer choices

alleviate the pain.

initiate the pain.

worsen the pain.

change the pain.

Answer 345

alleviate the pain.

Question 346

Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be:
Group of answer choices

palliating.

referred.

provoking.

radiating.

Answer 346

radiating.

Question 347

In which of the following situations is a pertinent negative identified?
Group of answer choices

A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath.

A 56-year-old woman states that her chest hurts when she takes a deep breath.

A 53-year-old man with dizziness also tells you that he has vomited three times.

A 50-year-old woman states that nothing makes her chest pain better or worse.

Answer 347

A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath.

Question 348

When evaluating a patient with multiple complaints, the EMT’s responsibility is to:
Group of answer choices

assess each complaint based on the patient’s perception of its seriousness.

determine which complaint poses the greatest threat to the patient’s life.

direct his or her attention to the most obvious signs and symptoms.

definitively rule out serious causes of each of the patient’s complaints.

Answer 348

determine which complaint poses the greatest threat to the patient’s life.

Question 349

Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct?
Group of answer choices

A secondary assessment should always be performed, even if you must continually manage life threats that were identified in the primary assessment.

During the secondary assessment, the EMT’s primary focus should be on taking the patient’s vital signs and obtaining a SAMPLE history.

The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint.

The secondary assessment should be performed en route to the hospital, regardless of the severity of the patient’s condition.

Answer 349

The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint.

Question 350

Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct?
Group of answer choices

The purpose of the secondary assessment is to systematically examine every patient from head to toe, regardless of the severity of his or her injury.

A focused secondary assessment would be the most appropriate approach for a patient who experienced significant trauma to multiple body systems.

If your general impression of a patient does not reveal any obvious life threats, you should proceed directly to the secondary assessment.

You may not have time to perform a secondary assessment if you must continually manage life threats that were identified during the primary assessment.

Answer 350

You may not have time to perform a secondary assessment if you must continually manage life threats that were identified during the primary assessment.

Question 351

When using the pulse oximeter as part of your assessment of a patient, it is important to remember that:
Group of answer choices

any situation that causes vasoconstriction or loss of red blood cells, such as anemia or bleeding, may result in an inaccurate or misleading value.

as long as the patient’s oxygen saturation is greater than 95%, oxygen is usually not necessary, even if the patient is experiencing respiratory distress.

pulse oximetry is especially useful in patients who have cold extremities because vasoconstriction forces blood to the capillary beds.

carbon monoxide has no effect on pulse oximetry readings because the pulse oximeter presumes that oxygen is saturating the hemoglobin.

Answer 351

any situation that causes vasoconstriction or loss of red blood cells, such as anemia or bleeding, may result in an inaccurate or misleading value.

Question 352

Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions?
Group of answer choices

Noninvasive blood pressure monitoring

Assessment of oxygen saturation

Systematic head-to-toe examination

Focused secondary assessment

Answer 352

Systematic head-to-toe examination

Question 353

The goal of the systematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to:
Group of answer choices

locate injuries not found in the primary assessment.

definitively rule out significant internal injuries.

detect and treat all non-life-threatening injuries.

assess only the parts of the body that are injured.

Answer 353

locate injuries not found in the primary assessment.

Question 354

You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision. Upon arrival, you find the driver, a young female, sitting on the curb. She is confused; is in obvious respiratory distress; and has pale, moist skin. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you perform a primary assessment. After performing any immediate life-saving treatment, you should:
Group of answer choices

identify the specific areas of her injuries and focus your assessment on those areas.

perform a detailed head-to-toe exam and prepare for immediate transport.

fully immobilize her spine, load her into the ambulance, and assess her vital signs.

assess her vital signs, secure her to a backboard, and transport her immediately.

Answer 354

perform a detailed head-to-toe exam and prepare for immediate transport.

Question 355

When performing the secondary assessment on a trauma patient, you note the presence of Battle sign. This is defined as:
Group of answer choices

bruising behind the ear.

fluid drainage from the nose.

unequal pupils.

swelling to the orbital area.

Answer 355

bruising behind the ear.

Question 356

A decrease in blood pressure may indicate:
Group of answer choices

arterial constriction.

increased blood volume.

loss of vascular tone.

forceful cardiac contraction.

Answer 356

loss of vascular tone.

Question 357

The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the:
Group of answer choices

systolic pressure.

apical pulse.

diastolic pressure.

pulse pressure.

Answer 357

systolic pressure.

Question 358

The diastolic blood pressure represents the:
Group of answer choices

increased arterial pressure that occurs during ventricular contraction.

minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries.

average pressure against the arterial walls during a cardiac cycle.

difference in pressure between ventricular contraction and relaxation.

Answer 358

minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries.

Question 359

While evaluating a patient with chest pain, your partner tells you that the patient’s blood pressure is 140/94 mm Hg. The lower number represents the pressure from the:
Group of answer choices

ventricles relaxing.

ventricles contracting.

atria relaxing.

atria contracting.

Answer 359

ventricles relaxing.

Question 360

A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient’s arm will give a:
Group of answer choices

falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading.

falsely high systolic and diastolic reading.

falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading.

falsely low systolic and diastolic reading.

Answer 360

falsely high systolic and diastolic reading.

Question 361

A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover:
Group of answer choices

one third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.

the entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow.

two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.

one half the length between the armpit and the crease at the elbow.

Answer 361

two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.

Question 362

Which of the following statements regarding the blood pressure is correct?
Group of answer choices

Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age.

Blood pressure falls early in patients with hypoperfusion.

Blood pressure is the most reliable indicator of perfusion.

The systolic pressure represents ventricular relaxation.

Answer 362

Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age.

Question 363

When auscultating the blood pressure in a patient’s upper extremity, you should place the diaphragm (head) of the stethoscope over the _________ artery.
Group of answer choices

femoral

brachial

radial

apical

Answer 363

brachial

Question 364

When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the:
Group of answer choices

cardiac output pressure.

pulse pressure.

diastolic blood pressure.

systolic blood pressure

Answer 364

systolic blood pressure

Question 365

When assessing motor function in a conscious patient’s lower extremities, you should expect the patient to:
Group of answer choices

feel you touching the extremity.

wiggle his or her toes on command.

identify different types of stimuli.

note any changes in temperature.

Answer 365

wiggle his or her toes on command.

Question 366

A crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin is called:
Group of answer choices

crepitus

rhonchi.

Korotkoff sounds.

subcutaneous emphysema.

Answer 366

subcutaneous emphysema

Question 367

Jugular venous distention suggests a problem with blood returning to the heart if the patient is:
Group of answer choices

in a recumbent position.

in a prone position.

sitting up at a 45° angle.

in a supine position.

Answer 367

sitting up at a 45° angle.

Question 368

Which of the following MOST accurately describes paradoxical movement of the chest wall?
Group of answer choices

Multiple rib fractures that cause a marked deformity of the chest wall

One side of the chest wall moves opposite the direction of the other

Only one section of the chest rises on inspiration, while another area falls

A marked decrease in chest wall movement due to abdominal breathing

Answer 368

Only one section of the chest rises on inspiration, while another area falls

Question 369

Reassessment is performed to determine all of the following, EXCEPT:
Group of answer choices

the reason why the patient called EMS.

the nature of any newly identified problems.

whether or not the patient is deteriorating.

the patient’s response to your treatment.

Answer 369

the reason why the patient called EMS

Question 370

When performing a reassessment of your patient, you should first:
Group of answer choices

repeat the primary assessment.

confirm medical history findings.

reassess your interventions.

obtain updated vital signs.

Answer 370

repeat the primary assessment.

Question 371

The systematic head-to-toe assessment should be performed on:
Group of answer choices

stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened.

patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients.

responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI.

all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport.

Answer 371

patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients.

Question 372

Which of the following assessments would be the MOST useful in determining the possible cause of a patient’s altered mental status?
Group of answer choices

Capillary refill time

Blood pressure

Blood glucose level

Respiratory rate

Answer 372

Blood glucose level

Question 373

Capnography is used to:
Group of answer choices

determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled.

assess how much oxygen is reaching the body’s tissues.

trend a patient’s blood pressure and assess for shock.

assess how much oxygen is bound to the hemoglobin. I

Answer 373

determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled.

Question 374

The pulse oximeter is an assessment tool used to evaluate the:
Group of answer choices

quantity of red blood cells.

level of carbon dioxide.

saturation level of arterial blood.

amount of exhaled carbon dioxide.

Answer 374

saturation level of arterial blood.

Question 375

You are assessing a 72-year-old man with abdominal pain. The patient is sitting in a chair; he is conscious, alert, and calm. As you are talking to the patient, your partner discreetly directs your attention to a handgun, which is located on a nearby table. You should:
Group of answer choices

immediately cease all patient care, carefully back out of the residence, and request law enforcement assistance.

direct your partner to move the gun to a safe area and then advise the patient that his weapon has been secured.

position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance.

document the presence of the weapon, including its specific location, and continue your assessment of the patient.

Answer 375

position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance.

Question 376

A patient who moves and cries out only when you pinch his or her trapezius muscle is said to be:
Group of answer choices

responsive to verbal stimuli.

responsive to painful stimuli.

conscious and alert.

completely unresponsive.

Answer 376

responsive to painful stimuli.

Question 377

For which of the following patients is spinal immobilization clearly indicated?
Group of answer choices

Man with an arrow impaled in his leg and no pulse distal to the injury

Man with altered mental status after being exposed to blunt force trauma

Woman who fell from a standing position and has a deformed shoulder

Woman in a minor motor-vehicle collision who complains of severe knee pain

Answer 377

Man with altered mental status after being exposed to blunt force trauma

Question 378

A patient is sitting in a chair, leaning forward on his outstretched arms. His head and chin are thrust forward. This position indicates that he:
Group of answer choices

has abdominal muscle spasms.

has a decreased level of consciousness.

is experiencing difficulty breathing.

is experiencing severe back pain.

Answer 378

is experiencing difficulty breathing.

Question 379

In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _______ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _______ beats/min.
Group of answer choices

60, 100

30, 130

40, 120

50, 110

Answer 379

60, 100

Question 380

You should avoid palpating a patient’s pelvis if:
Group of answer choices

the patient is older than 50 years of age.

the MOI suggests trauma to the pelvis.

the patient complains of pelvic pain.

the pelvis does not appear deformed.

Answer 380

the patient complains of pelvic pain.

Question 381

When performing a rapid exam on a supine patient, what part of the body is typically assessed last?
Group of answer choices

Anterior chest

Extremities

Abdomen

Posterior

Answer 381

Posterior

Question 382

Which of the following questions would you ask a patient to ascertain the “M” in the SAMPLE history?
Group of answer choices

“Have you ever had any major surgeries?”

“How much Tylenol do you take each day?”

“How long have you had your chest pain?”

“When was the last time you ate a meal?”

Answer 382

“How much Tylenol do you take each day?”