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1
Q

The rules, habits, and customs a society uses to enforce conformity to its norms.

A

Social Control

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2
Q

The violation of the laws of a society by a person or a group of people who are subject to the laws of that society.

A

Crime

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3
Q

The administering of punishment or reward in accordance with morals that a given society considers to be correct.

A

Justice

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4
Q

A social institution that has the mission of controlling crime by detecting, detaining, adjudication, and punishing and/or rehabilitating people who break the law.

A

Criminal Justice

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5
Q

When law enforcement detains and holds a criminal suspect or suspects.

A

Arrest

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6
Q

The idea that the must look beyond the obvious to evaluate how our social location influences how we perceive society.

A

Sociological Imagination

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7
Q

The suspension of all or part of a sentence subject to certain conditions and supervision in the community.

A

Probation

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8
Q

To administer a legal process of judging and to pronounce a judgment.

A

Adjudication

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9
Q

The conditional release of a prison inmate who has served part of a sentence and who remains under the court’s control.

A

Parole

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10
Q

A model proposed by legal scholar Herbert L. Packer to describe the public’s expectation of a just and fair criminal justice system.

A

Due Process Model

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11
Q

A model proposed by legal scholar Herbert L. Packer to describe the public’s expectation of an efficient criminal justice system.

A

Crime Control Model

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12
Q

The power of a criminal justice official to make decisions on issues within legal guidelines.

A

Discretion

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13
Q

Small-scale, personal offenses such as single-victim homicide, rape, robbery, assault, burglary, and vandalism.

A

Street Crime

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14
Q

Governmental policy aimed at reducing the sale and use of illegal drugs.

A

War on Drugs

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15
Q

Offenses committed by a corporation’s officers who pursue illegal activity in the corporation’s name.

A

Corporate Crime

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16
Q

A nonviolent criminal offense committed during the course of business for financial gain.

A

White-Collar Crime

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17
Q

A form of theft in which an offender takes possessions that do not belong to him or her with the intent of keeping them.

A

Larceny

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18
Q

Any willful or malicious burning or attempt to burn a dwelling, public building, motor vehicle, aircraft, or personal property of another.

A

Arson

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19
Q

Breaking into and entering a structure or vehicle with intent to commit a felony or a theft.

A

Burglary

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20
Q

The taking or attempting to take anything of value from the care, custody, or control of a person or persons by force or threat of force or violence and/or by putting the victim in fear.

A

Robbery

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21
Q

A minor criminal offense punishable by a fine and/or jail time for up to one year.

A

Misdemeanor

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22
Q

An offense punishable by a sentence of more than a year in state or federal prison and sometimes by death.

A

Felony

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23
Q

Sexual contact that is committed without the other party’s consent or whit a party who is not capable of giving consent.

A

Sexual Assault

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24
Q

Sexual activity, usually sexual intercourse, that is forced on another person without his or her consent, usually under threat of harm. Also, sexual activity conducted with a person who is incapable of valid consent.

A

Rape

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25
Q

The murder of a series of victims during three or more separate events over an extended period of time.

A

Serial Murder

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26
Q

The murder of three or more people in a single incident.

A

Mass Murder

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27
Q

The use or threat of violence against a state or other political entity in order to coerce.

A

Terrorism

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28
Q

Behavior that are deemed undesirable because they offend community standards rather than directly harm people or property.

A

Victimless Crime

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29
Q

A term describing crime that is unreported and never quantified.

A

Dark Figure of Crime

30
Q

An annual publication by the Federal Bureau of Investigation that uses data from all participating law enforcement agencies in the United States to summarize the incidence and rate of reported crimes.

A

Uniform Crime Reports (UCR)

31
Q

The number of crime index offenses divided by the population of an area, usually given as a rate of crimes per 100,000 people.

A

Crime Rate

32
Q

When more than one criminal offense is committed in a given incident, but only the offense that is highest on the hierarchy list is reported to the FBI’s Uniform Crime Report.

A

Hierarchy Rule

33
Q

A crime-reporting system in which each separate offense in a crime is described, including data describing the offender(s), victim(s), and property.

A

National Incident-Based Reporting System (NIBRS)

34
Q

A survey that is the primary source of information on criminal victimization in the United States and attempts to measure that extent of crime by interviewing crime victims.

A

National Crime Victimization Survey (NCVS)

35
Q

Research in which individuals are asked about criminal offenses they have committed, even those they have never been arrested for or charged with.

A

Self-Report Study

36
Q

“(A) person that has suffered direct physical, emotional, or pecuniary harm as a result of the commission of a crime.”

A

Victim

37
Q

A situation in which a crime victim plays an active role in initiating a crime or escalating it.

A

Victim Precipitation

38
Q

An account given by the victim, the victim’s family, or others affected by the offense that expresses the effects of the offense, including economic losses, the extent of physical or psychological injuries, and major life changes.

A

Victim-Impact Statement

39
Q

In the context of criminal justice, the government cannot punish any individual without strict adherence to clear, fair, and defined rules, laws, and procedures.

A

Rule of Law

40
Q

An ancient code instituted by Hammurabi, a ruler of Babylonia, dealing with criminal and civil matters.

A

Code of Hammurabi

41
Q

“Great Charter”; a guarantee of liberties signed by King John of England in 1215 that influenced many modern legal and constitutional principles.

A

Magna Carta

42
Q

An order to have a prisoner/detainee brought before the court to determine if it is legal to hold the prisoner/detainee.

A

Habeas Corpus

43
Q

Laws that are based on customs and general principles and that may be used as precedent or for matters not addressed by statute.

A

Common Law

44
Q

The type of law that is enacted by legislatures, as opposed to common law.

A

Statutory Law

45
Q

A prior legal decision used as a basis for deciding a later, similar case.

A

Precedent

46
Q

The doctrine under which courts adhere to legal precedent.

A

Stare Decisis

47
Q

The first 10 amendments to the U.S. Constitution, which guarantee fundamental rights and privileges to citizens.

A

Bill or Rights

48
Q

A law enacted by a legislature.

A

Statute

49
Q

A code of laws that deals with crimes and the punishments for them.

A

Penal Code

50
Q

The published decisions of courts that create new interpretations of the law and can be cited as precedent.

A

Case Law

51
Q

The law specifying the prosecution by the government of a person or people for an act that has been classified as a criminal offense.

A

Criminal Law

52
Q

An area of the law that deals with civil acts that cause harm and injury, including libel, slander, assault, trespass, and negligence.

A

Tort Law

53
Q

Prosecution of a defendant in the same jurisdiction for an offense for which the defendant has already been prosecuted and convicted or acquitted.

A

Double Jeopardy

54
Q

The burden of proof in a civil trial, which requires that more than 50 percent of the evidence be in the plaintiff’s favor.

A

Preponderance of the evidence

55
Q

The highest level of proof required to win a case; necessary in criminal cases to procure a guilty verdict.

A

Beyond a reasonable doubt

56
Q

Law that describes which behaviors have been defined as criminal offense.

A

Substantive Law

57
Q

An offense composed of acts necessary to commit another offense.

A

Inchoate Offense

58
Q

“Guilty deed”; the physical action of a criminal offense.

A

Actus Reus

59
Q

“Guilty mind”; intent or knowledge to break the law.

A

Mens Rea

60
Q

The coexistence of actus reus and mens rea

A

Concurrence

61
Q

“Body of the crime”; the criminal offense.

A

Corpus Delicti

62
Q

Additional conditions that define a given criminal offense.

A

Attendant Circumstance

63
Q

In most jurisdictions, a minor civil offense that is not serious enough to warrant curtailing an offender’s freedom.

A

Infraction

64
Q

Responsibility for a criminal offense without intention to break the law.

A

Strict Liability

65
Q

A defense in which the defendant must provide evidence that excuses the legal consequences of an act that the defendant has been proven to have committed.

A

Affirmative Defense

66
Q

A defense that involves the defendant(s) claiming not to have been at the scene of a criminal offense when it was committed.

A

Alibi

67
Q

A defense that attempts to give physical or psychological reasons that a defendant cannot comprehend his or her criminal actions, their harms(s), or their punishment.

A

Insanity Defense

68
Q

In legal terminology, the state of a child who has not yet reached a specific age; almost all states end infancy at age 18.

A

Infancy

69
Q

Sexual activity conducted with a person who is younger than a specified age or incapable of valid consent because of mental illness, mental handicap, intoxication, unconsciousness, or deception.

A

Statutory Rape

70
Q

The use of extreme means by law enforcement to pressure someone to break the law.

A

Entrapment

Criminal Justice 101 (4 decks)

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