Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

A method of penal control pioneered by Philadelphia’s Eastern State Penitentiary in which inmates were kept from seeing or talking to one another. This method is comparable to solitary confinement in modern prisons.

A

Separate-and-silent system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A style of penal control pioneered by the Auburn System, in which inmates were allowed to eat and work together during the day but were forbidden to speak to each other and were locked alone in their cells at night.

A

Congregate-and-silent system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A prison term that is determined by a parol board and does not state a specific period of time to be served or date of release.

A

Indeterminate Sentence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

An incarceration philosophy developed by Alexander Maconochie in which inmates earned the right to be released, as well as privileges, goods, and services.

A

Marks-of-commendation system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A system in the late 19th and early 20th centuries in which companies and individuals could purchase the labor of prison inmates from state and county governments.

A

Convict Lease System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Established within the Department of Justice in 1930, this federal agency manages and regulates all federal penal and correctional institutions.

A

Federal Bureau of Prisons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A prison term that is determined by law and states a specific period of time to be served.

A

Determinate Sentence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In reference to criminal justice, a term that describes state laws that require an offender’s third felony to be punishable by a severe sentence, including life imprisonment.

A

Three Strikes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A method of control in which an offender is prevented from committing more crimes by either imprisonment or death.

A

Specific Deterrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A method of control in which the punishment of a single offender sets an example for the rest of society.

A

General Deterrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A philosophy that states that an offender who commits a heinous crime deserves death.

A

Just Deserts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A style of control in which offenders are punished as severely as possible for a crime and in which rehabilitation is not attempted.

A

Retribution Model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A closed environment in which every aspect, including the movement and behavior of the people within, is controlled and structured.

A

Total Institution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Deprivation that define the punitive nature of imprisonment.

A

Pains of Imprisonment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

An extremely secure type of prison that strictly limits inmate contact with other inmates, correctional staff, and the outside world.

A

Supermax Prison

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A sociological term that describes how an individual’s actions are transmitted into group actions that can exceed what any of the individuals in the group intended.

A

Collective Behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Groups established by women in prison to imitate familial roles in society.

A

Pseudofamilies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Legislation that restricts litigation by prison inmates based on the conditions of their confinement.

A

Prison Litigation Reform Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The judicial attitude toward prisons before the 1960s in which courts did not become involved in prison affairs or inmate rights.

A

Hands-off Doctrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A secure facility that typically holds arrestees, criminal suspects, and inmates serving sentences less than a year.

A

Jail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A form of corrections in which criminal offenders are managed in the community instead of in correctional facilities.

A

Community Correction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Punishment that is considered to be deserved.

A

Retribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A perspective that considers recidivism to be a consequence, in part, of the negative labels applied to offenders.

A

Labeling Theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A phenomenon through which criminal justice programs pull more clients into the system than would otherwise be involved without the program.

A

Net-Widening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The suspension of all or part of a sentence to certain conditions and supervision in the community.

A

Probation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A compromise reached by the defendant, the defendant’s attorney, and the prosecutor in which the defendant agrees to plead guilty or no contest in return for a reduction of the charges severity, dismissal of some charges, further information about the offense or about others involved in it, or the prosecutor’s agreement to recommend a desired sentence.

A

Plea Bargain

27
Q

The report prepared by a probation officer to assist a judge in sentencing; also called a pre-sentence report.

A

Pre-sentence Investigation

28
Q

A form of probation supervision that is contracted to for-profit private agencies by the state.

A

Private Probation

29
Q

The conditional release of a prison inmate who has served part of a sentence and who remains under the court’s control.

A

Parole

30
Q

The time deducted from an inmate’s prison sentence for good behavior.

A

Good Time

31
Q

Time deducted from an inmate’s sentence for doing something special or extra, such as getting a GED.

A

Meritorious Time

32
Q

A personal status that overwhelms all others.

A

Master Status

33
Q

A form of supervision that requires frequent meetings between the client and probation officer.

A

Intensive-Supervision Probations (ISP)

34
Q

The practice of sentencing offenders to prison, allowing them to serve a short time, and then granting them probation without their prior knowledge.

A

Shock Probation

35
Q

Continuing to break the criminal law and returning to the criminal justice system after being processed for past offenses.

A

Recidivism

36
Q

A person, usually under the age of 18, who is determined to have committed a criminal offense of status offense in states in which a minor is declared to lack responsibility and cannot be sentenced as an adult.

A

Juvenile Delinquent

37
Q

Latin for “father of the country”, the philosophy that the government is the ultimate guardian of all children or disabled adults.

A

Parens Patriae

38
Q

A session that takes place without a jury before a judge or magistrate in which evidence and/or arguments are presented to determine some factual or legal issue.

A

Hearing

39
Q

Guarantees by the Fifth, Sixth, and Fourteenth Amendments that establish legal procedure that recognize the protection of an individual’s life, liberty, and property.

A

Due-Process Rights

40
Q

An act that is considered a legal offense only when committed by a juvenile and that can be adjudicated only in a juvenile court.

A

Status Offense

41
Q

A perspective that considers recidivism to be a consequence, in part, of the negative labels applied to offenders.

A

Labeling Theory

42
Q

Similar to a “charge” in the adult system in which an authority, usually the police, parents, or the school, determines that a youth needs intervention from the juvenile court.

A

Referral

43
Q

When the parties to a lawsuit accept a judge’s order that is based on an agreement made by them instead of continuing the case through a trial or hearing.

A

Consent Decree

44
Q

A period during which a juvenile is required to stay out of trouble or make restitution before a case is dropped.

A

Informal Probation

45
Q

The effort to deinstitutionalize delinquent and neglected children.

A

Diversion

46
Q

A phenomenon through which criminal justice programs pull more clients into the system than would otherwise be involved without the program.

A

Net-Widening

47
Q

The process in which a juvenile court determines whether the allegations in a petition are supported by evidence.

A

Adjudicatory Hearing

48
Q

A term describing the manner in which U.S. criminal trial courts operate; a system that requires two sides, a prosecution and a defense.

A

Adversarial Process

49
Q

A person who files a lawsuit; also called a plaintiff

A

Petitioner

50
Q

An order by a judge upon conviction or before a trial that sends a person to jail or prison. Also, a judge’s order that sends a mentally unstable person to a mental institution.

A

Commitment

51
Q

The party who must reply to a petitioner’s complaint. Equivalent to a defendant in a lawsuit.

A

Respondent

52
Q

Any sentence of a juvenile delinquent to a residential facility where the juvenile is closely monitored.

A

Residential placement

53
Q

A form of waiving a juvenile to criminal court in which a judge sent the juvenile to adult court.

A

Judicial Waiver

54
Q

Provisions that exclude, without hearing or waiver, juveniles who meet certain age, offense, or past-record criteria from the jurisdiction of the juvenile court.

A

Statutory Exclusion

55
Q

A form of waiving a juvenile to criminal court in which a prosecutor has the discretion to file charges in either juvenile or criminal court.

A

Direct Filing

56
Q

The rate of ex-offenders who commit new offenses and are returned to prison.

A

Recidivism Rate

57
Q

The policy of removing mentally ill people from public mental-health institutions and closing part or all of those institutions.

A

Deinstitutionalization

58
Q

The theft or taking of money or property by a person who is charged by an employer or other authority to be responsible for those assets.

A

Embezzlement

59
Q

The increased reliance on incarceration, surveillance, and law enforcement in the United States and its relationship to the establishment of for-profit incarceration and probation/parole services, and businesses that supply goods and services to prison and jails.

A

Prison-Industrial Complex

60
Q

Emendation of laws or statutes to lessen or remove penalties for specific acts subject to criminal prosecution, arrest, and imprisonment.

A

Decriminalization

61
Q

The total removal of legal prohibitions on specific acts that were perviously proscribed and punishable by law.

A

Legalization

62
Q

The use of information technology to analyze vast amounts of data to allow law enforcement to better target their resources toward potential crime.

A

Predictive Policing

63
Q

A law signed by President George W. Bush on October 26, 2001, in response to the terror attacks of September 11, 2001.

A

USA Patriot Act

64
Q

A law signed by President Obama in 2015 that reauthorized parts of the USA Patriot Act but limited the bulk collection of U.S. residents phone records and Internet data.

A

USA Freedom Act