TEST 7 (ORTHO-PEDO) Flashcards

1
Q

Incisors not be extracted because __________

A. Permanent incisors will not erupt
B. Gingiva will be swollen thus poor prognosis of the extraction site
C. Tendency to develop abnormally deep bite
D. Tendency of spacing in between tooth

A

C. Tendency to develop abnormally deep bite

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2
Q

By birth, the cranial height dimension has attained how many percentage of its adult status?

A. 55 %
B. 60 %
C. 65 %
D. 70 %

A

D. 70 %

NOTES:
Cranial length/depth- 60%
Cranial width- 65%
Cranial height- 70%

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3
Q

Why are rounded internal line angles desirable in the preparation of amalgam restorations in primary teeth?

A. They increase retention
B. They conserve tooth structure
C. They increase resistance
D. They decreases internal stresses in the restorative material

A

D. They decreases internal stresses in the restorative material

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4
Q

Class II elastics:

A. Maxillary canine to mandibular molar
B. Maxillary molar to mandibular canine
C. Maxillary canine to maxillary molar
D. Mandibular molar to maxillary canine

A

A. Maxillary canine to mandibular molar

NOTES:
Class I: INTRA
Maxillary canine to Maxillary Molar
Mandibular canine to Mandibular Molar
Class II: INTER
Maxillary canine to Mandibular molar
Class III: INTER
Mandibular canine to Maxillary molar

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5
Q

What rule of the pediatric dosage formula is by weight in lbs.?

A. Clark’s rule
B. Ivan’s rule
C. Baker’s rule
D. Young’s rule

A

A. Clark’s rule

NOTES:
Clark’s rule- weight in pounds
Young’s rule- age in years

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6
Q

A 4 year old child has severe, acute dental pain. So many teeth are carious that the determination of the offending tooth is difficult. The best diagnostic tool to be used is

A. Percussion
B. Radiographs
C. Electric pulp testing
D. The patient’s identification of the offending tooth

A

A. Percussion

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7
Q

“Leeway space” is _____.

A. The space between the permanent central incisors before eruption of the permanent
canines
B. The vertical space between the maxillary and mandibular central incisors during rest position
C. The difference between the sum of the mesial widths of the primary first and second molars and canines in a quadrant and the sum of the mesiodistal widths of the succedaneous premolars and canine
D. The space between the primary maxillary lateral incisors and canines

A

C. The difference between the sum of the mesial widths of the primary first and second molars and canines in a quadrant and the sum of the mesiodistal widths of the succedaneous premolars and canine

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8
Q

If the fluoride level in the drinking water is greater than 0.6 ppm at any age, no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated.

If the patient is less than 12 months old, no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated, whatever the water fluoride level.

A. The first statement is true and the second statement is true.
B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
C. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.
D. The first statement is false and the second statement is false.

A

B. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
If the patient is less than 12 months old, no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated, whatever the water fluoride level.❌
If the patient is less than 6 months old, no supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated, whatever the water fluoride level.

NOTES:
Rule of 6
No supplemental systemic fluoride is indicated when:
- Fluoride is >0.6 ppm
- Px is <6 months old
- Px is >16 years old

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9
Q

Your patient is 8 years old. Teeth #8 and #9 have approximately 50% of their crowns erupted. One month ago, the patient fell from a skateboard and hit teeth #8 and #9 on the sidewalk. The radiograph today shows open apices of these teeth, normal pdl, and no apparent periapical radiolucency. The patient has no reaction to electrical pulp tests. What is your treatment of choice?

A. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy
B. Formocresol apexification technique
C. Calcium hydroxide apexification technique
D. Reappoint for exam and radiographs in 6 weeks

A

D. Reappoint for exam and radiographs in 6 weeks

NOTES:
EPT (++)
- incompletely erupted tooth
- ortho treatment

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10
Q

A tissue borne functional appliance which expands the arch by “padding” against cheeks and lips’ pressure on the teeth.

A. Herbst appliance
B. Activator
C. Bionator
D. Frankel

A

D. Frankel

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11
Q

What are the special requirements for dental care that must or may be needed when treating a child who has profound mental disability?

A. Mild to moderate sedation may be beneficial
B. Treat as normal child; mild sedation or nitrous oxide oxygen analgesia may be beneficial
C. Use restraints and positive reinforcement; general anesthesia may be indicated in cases of severe, generalized, dental decay
D. A & C

A

D. A & C

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12
Q

Point b is synonymous to:

A. Nasion
B. Subspinale
C. Sella turcica
D. Supramentale

A

D. Supramentale

NOTES:
Nasion- external junction of the nasofrontal suture in the median plane

Subspinale (POINT A) - deepest point of the curvature of the anterior maxilla between the ANS and the alveolar crest

Sella turcica- midpoint of the hypophyseal fossa; ovoid area of the sphenoid bone that contains the pituitary gland

Supramentale (POINT B)- most posterior point on the outer curveof the mandibular alveolar process between the alveolar crest and the bony chin

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13
Q

Which statement is true regarding invisalign treatment?

A. Aligners are worn 24 hours a day and taken off for eating, drinking, and oral hygiene.
B. Change set of new aligners every two weeks.
C. Focus is esthetic and functional alignment without utilization of complex orthodontic auxiliary treatments.
D. Treatment is focused on straight forward cases (20 aligners or less).
E. All of the above are true.

A

E. All of the above are true.

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14
Q

Why are implants not generally performed on a 12-year-old patient with congenitally missing lateral incisors?

A. The patient would likely not be able to tolerate the surgical procedure.
B. Waiting for the crowns is too much of an esthetic issue with most children that age.
C. The gingival tissue will recede as the child gets older.
D. The implants will appear to submerge as the child gets older.

A

D. The implants will appear to submerge as the child gets older.

NOTES:
Implants
- osteointegrated
- behaves as ankylosed teeth

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15
Q

Which of the following is usually the result of a severely crowded mandibular incisor?

A. Tooth size-arch length discrepancy
B. Mesial migration of teeth
C. Premature loss of primary teeth
D. Presence of supernumerary teeth

A

A. Tooth size-arch length discrepancy

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16
Q

The pulp tissue of primary teeth _____.

  1. In general, is smaller proportionately than permanent pulps in relation to tooth crown size.
  2. Is closer to the outer surface of the tooth than the permanent teeth.
  3. Follows the general surface contour of the crown.
  4. Has the mesial pulp horn closer to the surface than the distal pulp horn.

A. Only 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
B. Only 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
C. Only 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct

A

B. Only 2, 3, and 4 are correct

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17
Q

Indirect pulp capping procedures on primary molars are indicated when

A. Removal of decay has exposed the pulp
B. A tooth has a large, long-standing lesion with a history of continuous pain
C. The carious lesion has just penetrated the dentinoenamel junction
D. The carious lesion is suspected of producing an exposure of the pulp

A

D. The carious lesion is suspected of producing an exposure of the pulp

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18
Q

When deciduous teeth have been lost prematurely, it is most important to hold space for

A. An upper incisor
B. A lower bicuspid
C. A lower incisor
D. All of the above

A

B. A lower bicuspid; because late eruption USUALLY causes crowding

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19
Q

Frankfort horizontal is a reference plane constructed by joining which of the following landmarks?

A. Nasion and sella
B. Porion and sella
C. Porion and nasion
D. Porion and orbitale

A

D. Porion and orbitale

NOTES:
Frankfurt horizontal Plane- connects the lowest point of the orbit to the superior point if the external auditory meatus.

frankPOrt= Porion + Orbitale

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20
Q

The wrist–hand radiograph is used by orthodontists to predict the time of the pubertal growth spurt and thus jaw growth. What is examined in the wrist–hand radiograph?

A. Carpal bones of the wrist
B. Metacarpal bones of the hand
C. Phalanges of the fingers
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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21
Q

An understanding of the development of human behavior requires a knowledge of the basic concepts of:

A. Generalization and facilitation
B. Dependence and independence
C. Maturation and learning
D. Masculinity and femininity

A

C. Maturation and learning

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22
Q

In cephalometric analysis of children with malocclusion, the angle ANB is frequently used. In patients with severe class ii malocclusion, this angle is

A. Greater than the norm
B. Less than the norm
C. Normal
D. Unrelated

A

A. Greater than the norm

NOTES:
ANB: Point A, Nasion, Point B
Class 1: 2
Class 2: >4
Class 3: <0

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23
Q

Which of the following is the best space maintainer?

A. Nance holding arch
B. Band and loop appliance
C. Pulpectomized primary molar
D. Fixed lingual arch

A

C. Pulpectomized primary molar

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24
Q

The purpose of a removable maxillary expansion appliance is to

A. Correct an anterior crossbite
B. Open the maxillary suture
C. Tip maxillary posterior teeth in a lateral direction
D. Move maxillary posterior teeth bodily in lateral direction

A

C. Tip maxillary posterior teeth in a lateral direction

NOTES:
Removable appliance
- do not cause bodily movement, ONLY TIPPING

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25
Q

Which of the following is most frequently utilized route of administration for sedation in pediatric patients?

A. Oral
B. Inhalation
C. IV
D. IM

A

B. Inhalation
- quick induction
- quick recovery
- non-invasive

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26
Q

Clinical studies demonstrate that acidulated phosphate fluoride is most effective at what ph?

A. 1.0
B. 2.5
C. 3.5
D. 5.5

A

C. 3.5

NOTES:
APF= 3.5
NaF= 9.2
SnF2= 2.1-2.3

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27
Q

The crowns of all 20 primary teeth begin to calcify between open bite in the primary dentition is most often associated with:

A. 1.5 to 2 months in utero
B. 3.5 to 6 months in utero
C. 7.5 to 9 months in utero
D. 10 to 12 months in utero

A

B. 3.5 to 6 months in utero

NOTES:
AGE OF CALCIFICATION OF PRIMARY TEETH
(4-6 months, 4-14 weeks, 2nd trimester)
14- A
15- D
16- B
17- C
18- E

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28
Q

The permanent mandibular first molar has a morphology that closely resembles

A. Primary mandibular first molar
B. Primary mandibular second molar
C. Primary maxillary first molar
D. Primary maxillary second molar

A

B. Primary mandibular second molar

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29
Q

By what mechanism does the mandible grow downward and forward as viewed on successive superimposed head films?

A. Growth of the alveolar process
B. Condylar growth
C. Growth of the frontonassal process
D. Sutural growth

A

B. Condylar growth

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30
Q

Tad means

A. Temporary anchorage device
B. Temporary attachment device
C. Titanium anchorage device
D. Titanium attachment device

A

A. Temporary anchorage device

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31
Q

Transpalatal arch (tpa) as space maintenance appliance can be used in obtaining desired molar rotations and root torque changes via sequential unilateral activation of tpa.

Tpa also is helpful for molar position’s stabilization

A. First statement is true, second is false
B. First statement is false, second is true
C. Both are false
D. Both are true

A

D. Both are true

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32
Q

Type of cleft lip where as a unilateral notching of the vermilion not extending into the lip is observed.

A. Class 4
B. Class 2
C. Class 1
D. Class 3

A

C. Class 1

NOTES:
CLEFT LIP
Class 1: Notching on the vermillion border
Class 2: Cleft lip not exetending the nose
Class 3: Cleft lip extending the nose
Class 4: Bilateral

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33
Q

Which of the following is the definition of conscious sedation?

A. A minimally depressed level of consciousness that retains the patient’s ability to independently and continuously maintain an airway and respond appropriately to physical stimulation or verbal command.
B. A significantly depressed level of consciousness that retains the patient’s ability to independently and continuously maintain an airway and respond appropriately to physical stimulation or verbal command.
C. A minimally depressed level of consciousness that retains the patient’s ability to independently and continuously maintain an airway.
D. A significantly depressed level of consciousness that retains the patient’s ability to independently and continuously maintain an airway.

A

A. A minimally depressed level of consciousness that retains the patient’s ability to independently and continuously maintain an airway and respond appropriately to physical stimulation or verbal command.

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34
Q

What is the best medium to use for an avulsed tooth?

A. Salt water
B. Hydrogen peroxide
C. Milk
D. Hanks balanced salt solution

A

D. Hanks balanced salt solution

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35
Q

A behavior problem in the dental office is traced to the fact that a 3 year old girl heard about
dental difficulties from her mother; the most satisfactory method of handling the situation is to

A. Use firmness
B. Modify the fear by familiarization, using tell-show-do techniques
C. Use nitrous oxide-oxygen analgesia
D. Introduce another child as a good example
E. Administer very small doses of barbiturates

A

B. Modify the fear by familiarization, using tell-show-do techniques

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36
Q

Rectangular wire is basically used in orthodontic appliance to _____.

A. Diminish the stress on the premolars
B. Avert buccal and lingual tooth movement
C. Augment the strength of the appliance
D. Thwart irritation of the

A

B. Avert buccal and lingual tooth movement

NOTES:
Rectangular wire- is used for more controlled BUCCO-LINGUAL root movement

Stainless steal: rigid
NiTi: flexible

16ss- Round
16ss x 16ss- Rectangular

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37
Q

All of the following are fixed orthodontic appliance except one. Which one is the exception?

A. Lingual archwires
B. Whip-spring appliances
C. Palate-separating devices
D. Frankel’s appliance
E. Edgewise mechanism

A

D. Frankel’s appliance❌ (REMOVABLE)

NOTES:
Frankel’s appliance- employed in case of abnormal or hyperactive soft issue pattern

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38
Q

In the primary dentition, the mandibular foramen is located where in relation to the plane of occlusion?

A. Higher than the plane of occlusion
B. Much higher than the plane of occlusion
C. Lower than the plane of occlusion
D. The same level as the plane of occlusion

A

C. Lower than the plane of occlusion

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39
Q

Advantages of fixed wire retention compared to a removable hawley-type retainer include which of the following?

A. Does not require the patient to remember to wear it.
B. Is easier to clean.
C. The design can be altered to achieve minor tooth movements.
D. It can incorporate an acrylic bite plate to avoid relapse of overbite correction

A

A. Does not require the patient to remember to wear it.

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40
Q

When using a cervical-pull headgear, the forces generated on the maxillary first molar cause this tooth to move in which of the following ways?

A. Mesially and to extrude
B. Distally and to extrude
C. Mesially and to intrude
D. Distally and to intrude

A

B. Distally and to extrude

NOTES:
High Pull HG- Distally and Intrude
Straight Pull HG- Distally
Cervical Pull HG- Distally and Extrude

41
Q

Which of the following is the best method of preserving arch length?

A. Placing a lingual arch
B. Placing a cast gold restoration
C. Placing a acrylic removable maintainer
D. Restoring carious teeth

A

D. Restoring carious teeth

42
Q

The most damaging characteristics of class ii, division 2 malocclusion is______.

A. Crowding of the mandibular incisors
B. Impaction of the maxillary lateral incisors
C. Deep overbite
D. Class ii relationship of the molars

A

C. Deep overbite

43
Q

What is considered to be the best space maintainer?

A. Crown and crib
B. Fixed space maintainer
C. Functional space maintainer
D. Well-restored deciduous teeth

A

D. Well-restored deciduous teeth

44
Q

Controlled crown tipping is characterized by which of the following?

A. Great lingual movement
B. Minimal movement of the root
C. Greater movement of crown than the root
D. Center of rotation as the apex

A

B. Minimal movement of the root

45
Q

Which of the following local anesthetic techniques is recommended for anesthetizing a primary mandibular second molar which will be extracted?

A. Buccal and lingual infiltration adjacent to the second primary molar
B. Inferior alveolar nerve block
C. Inferior alveolar nerve block and lingual nerve block
D. Inferior alveolar, lingual, and buccal nerve block

A

D. Inferior alveolar, lingual, and buccal nerve block

46
Q

During the first appointment the dentist can begin to train a nervous child to be a good dental patient by

  1. Maintaining a quiet, controlled office
  2. Showing, telling and doing with each instrument and piece of equipment
  3. Making sudden unexplained adjustments in the dental chair
  4. Separating the child from the mother without warning
  5. Expressing appreciation of good behavior by means of gift

A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 5
C. 2, 4 and 5
D. 3 and 4
E. 4 and 5

A

B. 1, 2 and 5

47
Q

Which appliance is probably the most widely used today by orthodontists?

A. The beg appliance
B. The edgewise appliance
C. The universal appliance
D. None of the above

A

B. The edgewise appliance

48
Q

When is the good timing for the treatment of cleft lip and cleft palate in an infant?

A. ≥10 weeks old
B. ≥10 g/dl hemoglobin
C. ≥10 lbs
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

49
Q

Anterior crossbite dentition is usually indicative of _____.

A. Posterior occlusal interface
B. A skeletal growth problem
C. A self-correcting condition
D. Early eruption

A

B. A skeletal growth problem

50
Q

Deep bite cases in young children can be treated with:

A. Fixed braces
B. Bite plane
C. Extraoral force appliance
D. Space maintainer

A

B. Bite plane

NOTES:
Types of Deep bite:
- Extruded Maxillary Incisors, Intruded Mandibular Incisors
- Intruded Molars

Bite Plane- for deep bite
Inclined Plane- for anterior crossbite

51
Q

Extensive crown fracture with pulpal exposure among anteriors is classified as:

A. Class II injury
B. Class III injury
C. Class I injury
D. None of those answers

A

B. Class III injury

NOTES:
ELLIS CLASSIFICATION
I- Enamel
II- Enamel and Dentin
III- Enamel, Dentin and Pulp
IV- Non-vital tooth without the loss of tooth structure
V- Avulsed tooth
VI- Root Fracture with or without loss of crown
VII- Subluxation without loss of crown/root fracture
VIII: Fracture of the crown
IX: Fracture of deciduos teeth

52
Q

Your patient exhibits enamel hypoplasia near the incisal edges of all permanent incisors and cuspids, except for the maxillary lateral incisors, which appear normal. At what age would you suspect some kind of systemic problem?

A. Prior to birth
B. From birth to 1 year of age
C. From 1 to 2 years of age
D. From 2 to 3 years of age

A

B. From birth to 1 year of age

53
Q

What is the most efficient way to move teeth, reinforce anchorage, and avoid friction in the appliance system?

A. Apply gentle constant force.
B. Incorporate springs into archwire.
C. Incorporate interarch elastic.
D. Bond magnets to individual teeth.
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

54
Q

A 20-month-old female presents with her mother to your office for her first check-up. Her mother is concerned because her daughter only has a few erupted teeth. Upon examining the patient, which teeth should you expect to find?

A. Primary centrals and laterals only
B. Primary centrals, laterals, canines
C. Primary centrals, laterals, first molars, second molars
D. Primary centrals, laterals, first molars
E. Primary centrals, laterals, first molars, canines

A

E. Primary centrals, laterals, first molars, canines

NOTES:
7 months= A
(+4) 11 months= A, B
(+4) 15 months= A, B, C
(+4) 19 months= A, B, C, D
(+4) 23 months= A, B, C, D, E

55
Q

The tooth movement most readily accomplished with a removable appliance is:

A. Tipping
B. Torquing
C. Root movement
D. Bodily movement

A

A. Tipping

56
Q

A 5-year old patient has all his deciduous teeth intact with no spaces between them. The orthodontist can assume that

A. There will be anterior crossbite
B. There will be crowding in the permanent teeth
C. The child will be develop a class 2 malocclusion
D. Overjet of the permanent incisors will be excessive

A

B. There will be crowding in the permanent teeth

NOTES:
Lack of space for permanent teeth
- No presence of primate spaces
- No interdental spaces

57
Q

Of the following, which is the last reliable way to predict the trimming of the peak of the adolescent growth spurt for an individual?

A. Plotting changes in height overtime on a growth curve
B. Taking a hand -wrist radiograph to assess skeletal development
C. Observing changes in secondary sex characteristics
D. Following eruption timing of the dentition

A

B. Taking a hand -wrist radiograph to assess skeletal development

58
Q

A 5-year-old girl lives in an area with 0.4 ppm f in the city drinking water. How much supplemental fluoride should you prescribe for the patient to consume the optimal amount of fluoride?

A. 0
B. 0.25 mg
C. 0.33 mg
D. 0.5 mg
E. 1.0 mg

A

B. 0.25 mg

59
Q

What percentage of 6-year-old children have a median (maxillary) diastema?

A. 78%
B. 98%
C. 49%
D. Less than 25%

A

B. 98%

NOTES:
Cause of midline diastema:
- Tooth size discrepancy
- Mesiodens
- Abnormal frenum attachment
- Normal stage of development

It is prevalent in MIXED dentition stage.

60
Q

Which of the following malocclusions is the easies to maintain after orthodontic treatment?

A. Expansion
B. Rotation
C. Anterior crossbite
D. Generalized spacing
E. Generalized crowding

A

C. Anterior crossbite

61
Q

Which of the following drugs modifies fear and anxiety?

A. Seconal
B. Celestamine
C. Ethamizid
D. Flanax

A

A. Seconal

NOTES:
Seconal- barbituate used to short-term to treat insomia/ seeative before surgery

Celestamine- prevents inflammation and allergy

Ethamizid- antibiotic used for tuberculosis

Flanax- analgesic, no anxielytic property

62
Q

When a simple tipping force is applied to the crown of a single-rooted tooth, the center of rotation is usually located:

A. At the apex
B. At the cervical line
C. One-third the root length from the apex
D. Two-thirds the root length from the apex

A

D. Two-thirds the root length from the apex

NOTES:
The force should be near the center of rotation

63
Q

To achieve ideal sedation with nitrous oxide-oxygen inhalation, how many percentage of nitrous oxide is required?

A. 10-20 %
B. 30-40 %
C. 20-30 %
D. 40-50 %

A

B. 30-40 %

64
Q

When is the best time for a child to see a dentist?

A. When the 1st tooth erupts
B. When all the permanent teeth are complete
C. At 6 years of age
D. When all the deciduous teeth have erupted

A

A. When the 1st tooth erupts

65
Q

When primary mandibular right first and second molar of a 7-year old patient are lost, the space is best maintained by constructing and placing a _____.

A. Functional removable appliances
B. Band on remaining teeth
C. Multiple space maintainer
D. Unilateral fixed band and loop

A

D. Unilateral fixed band and loop

66
Q

Which oral abnormality is commonly found in children with cleidocranial dysostosis?

A. Alveolar clefts
B. Premature loss of primary teeth
C. Micrognathia
D. High caries incidence
E. Multiple supernumerary and unerupted teeth

A

E. Multiple supernumerary and unerupted teeth

67
Q

Intraoral anchorage reinforcement

A. Lingual plate
B. Band and loop
C. Nance appliance
D. Palatal crib

A

C. Nance appliance (maxillary)

NOTES:
Lingual Holding Arch- mandibular

68
Q

Which of the following may cause extrusion of the maxillary first molars which can cause an open bite?

A. Straight-pull headgear
B. Reverse-pull headgear
C. Cervical-pull headgear
D. High-pull headgear

A

C. Cervical-pull headgear

NOTES:
High Pull HG
- Distally and Intrude
- Class 2 MO with increase vertical dimention and minimal overbite

Straight Pull HG
- Distally
- Class 2 division 1 MO

Cervical Pull HG
- Distally and Extrude
- For class 2 with deep bite

Reverse Pull HG
- Class 3 MO

Chin cup
- Class 2 MO due to excessive mandibular growth

69
Q

What are the active growth sites of the mandible?

A. Posterior border of the ramus
B. Condyle, coronoid process
C. Alveolar process
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

70
Q

Which pulpotomy medicament demonstrates better success rates than formocresol?

A. Mineral trioxide aggregate
B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Resin-modified glass ionomer cement
D. Fifth-generation bonding agents

A

A. Mineral trioxide aggregate

71
Q

Where do lesions commonly occur in the primary form of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis?

A. Buccal mucosa
B. Tonsils, hard and soft palate
C. Tongue
D. Gingiva
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

NOTES:
Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
- usually seen in a child

72
Q

What is the rationale for selective early removal of deciduous teeth in cases involving deficient arch length?

A. To promote permanent tooth alignment by creating space
B. To hasten eruption of underlying permanent teeth
C. To reduce subsequent orthodontic treatment time
D. To begin the several steps leading to selected bicuspid extractions
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

73
Q

An example of extraoral anchorage is

A. Chin cup
B. Cervical headgear
C. Occipital headgear
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

NOTES:
INTRAORAL ANCHORAGE
- Nance appliance (maxillary)
- Lingual holding arch (mandibular)

74
Q

In tooth preparation for a steel crown, the surface requiring the least amount of reduction is the

A. Distal
B. Buccal
C. Mesial
D. Lingual
E. Occlusal

A

D. Lingual

NOTES:
SSC- snap fit
SOC- passive fit

75
Q

A rare congenital birth defect that presents with short mandible and cleft palate

A. Kleinfelter syndrome
B. Pierre robin syndrome
C. Treacher collins syndrome
D. Micromandibular palatinosis syndrome\

A

B. Pierre robin syndrome

76
Q

While excavating carious dentin in a permanent first molar of a 7 year old child, a pulp exposure about the size of a no. 6 bur is discovered. There is no periapical involvement of the tooth. The pulp is vital. The treatment of choice is to

A. Cap the exposure
B. Perform a pulpotomy
C. Perform a pulpectomy
D. Extract the tooth and place a space maintainer

A

B. Perform a pulpotomy

77
Q

In accessing overall facial growth, what are important considerations in treatment planning?

A. Amount of growth to be expected
B. Direction of growth expected
C. General physical development
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

78
Q

Dewel’s order of extraction of tooth in serial extraction procedure

A. Bicuspid only
B. Bicuspids, primary cuspids, and the first primary molar
C. Primary cuspid, first primary molar, and bicuspids
D. First primary molar, bicuspid and primary cuspid

A

C. Primary cuspid, first primary molar, and bicuspids (CD4)

79
Q

Tweed’s order of extraction of tooth in serial extraction procedure

A. Bicuspid only
B. Bicuspids, primary cuspids, and the first primary molar
C. Primary cuspid, first primary molar, and bicuspids
D. First primary molar, bicuspid and primary cuspid

A

D. First primary molar, bicuspid and primary cuspid (D4C)

80
Q

Extra-oral anchorage’s advantage

A. Less force can be applied
B. It has direct reciprocal action on the opposing arch
C. More force can be applied
D. It permits posterior movement of the teeth in one arch without disturbing the opposite arch

A

D. It permits posterior movement of the teeth in one arch without disturbing the opposite arch

81
Q

What is the classification of malocclusion if a patient has an anb value of -2.0 degrees?

A. Class i
B. Class iv
C. Class ii
D. Class iii

A

D. Class iii

82
Q

What is the classification of malocclusion if a patient has an anb value of 5 degrees?

A. Class i
B. Class iv
C. Class ii
D. Class iii

A

C. Class ii

83
Q

A landmark seen in a cephalogram which represents the most forward point of maxilla

A. Anterior nasal spine
B. Subspinale
C. Sella turcica
D. Supramentale

A

B. Subspinale (point)

NOTES:
Anterior nasal spine- most forward plane

84
Q

A landmark seen in a cephalogram which contains the pituitary gland found on the ovoid area of sphenoid bone.

A. Anterior nasal spine
B. Subspinale
C. Sella turcica
D. Supramentale

A

C. Sella turcica

85
Q

What is the measurement of leeway space on one side of the maxillary arch?

A. 2.5 mm
B. 2.0 mm
C. 1.5 mm
D. 1.0 mm

A

C. 1.5 mm

NOTES:
Max: 1.5
Mand: 2.5

86
Q

Specialized area of dentistry limited to the care of children from birth through adolescence, routine care usually from 2-12 years old, with additional focus in providing oral health care to patients with special needs

A. General dentistry
B. Periodontics
C. Endodontics
D. Pediatric dentistry

A

D. Pediatric dentistry
90. Early removal of __

87
Q

Early removal of ________will prevent the lingual
locking of permanent maxillary lateral incisors

A. Leaving it alone
B. Extract primary lateral incisor
C. Extract primary central incisor
D. Extract the maxillary deciduous cuspid

A

D. Extract the maxillary deciduous cuspid

88
Q

When calcium hydroxide is placed on the pulp
chamber of a primary teeth, what failure will occur?

A. Alveolar bone resorption
B. External resorption
C. Pulp gangrene
D. Internal resorption

A

D. Internal resorption

89
Q

The antibiotic of choice to standard prophylactic
regimen of antibiotic coverage for the prevention of bacterial endocarditis for children _____.

A. Tetracycline 50 mg/kg, 30 min to 1 hr. Before
procedure
B. Erythromycin 100mg/kg, 30 min to 1 hr. Before
procedure
C. Penicillin vk 50mg/kg, 30 min to 1 hr. Before
procedure
D. Amoxicillin 50 mg/kg, 30 min to 1 hr. Before
procedure

A

D. Amoxicillin 50 mg/kg, 30 min to 1 hr. Before
procedure

90
Q

A mesognathic description of dentition pertains to what angle’s classification of malocclusion?

A. Class iii
B. Class i
C. Class ii
D. None of the above

A

B. Class i

91
Q

An end to end bite is characterized by?

A. Absence of occlusion between mandibular and
maxillary teeth (anterior or posterior)
B. A cusp to cusp occlusion of premolars and molars
C. The incisal edges of mandibular and maxillary
dentition contact each other
D. None of the above

A

B. A cusp to cusp occlusion of premolars and molars

NOTES:
The incisal edges of mandibular and maxillary
dentition contact each other (edge to edge)

92
Q

Child lethal dose of flouride toxicity

A. 15 mg/kg
B. 10 mg/kg
C. 5 mg/kg

A

A. 15 mg/kg

NOTES
Child: 15 mg/kg
Adult: 5mg/kg

93
Q

In the early childhood caries, what primary tooth
is/are commonly involved?
A. Maxillary canines
B. Maxillary incisors
C. Mandibular incisors
D. Mandibular canines

A

B. Maxillary incisors

94
Q

Methods employed in orthodontic treatment to
align a crowded dentition include:

A. Extraction of teeth
B. Expansion of arches
C. Distalization of teeth
D. Interproximal reduction of teeth
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

95
Q

Long face syndrome is almost always associated
with:

A. Nail biting
B. Tongue thrusting
C. Mouth breathing
D. Depression

A

C. Mouth breathing

96
Q

Which headgear is used for advancement of the
maxilla and prevent further growth of mandible?

A. Reverse face mask
B. Cervical pull
C. High pull
D. Low pull

A

A. Reverse face mask

97
Q

During the 9th or 10th intrauterine week, the
palatal shelves are ready to fuse with each other, but a failure of which of the following structures to move forward and fall into the oral cavity may cause failure of the fusion of the palatal shelves, causing cleft palate.

A. Vomer
B. Tongue
C. Nasal floor
D. Premaxilla

A

B. Tongue

NOTES
Vomer
- located in the sphenoid portion of skull
- posterior to the palatal shelves and oral cavity

Tongue
- located within the oral cavity

Nasal floor
- does not depend in the oral cavity
- superior border of the oral cavity

Premaxilla
- in the frontal portion of the maxilla
- anterior in location relative to the oral cavity