TEST 5 (OD, OS AND ROENTGENOLOGY) Flashcards by Jobelle Claire Cinco

Which of the following techniques is best for wide based frenectomy?

A. Diamond excision
B. V-Y advancement
C. Z-plasty
D. Any of the abov

B. V-Y advancement

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Incision and drainage in an area of acute infection should only be performed after:

A. A culture for antibiotic sensitivity has been
performed
B. Localization of the infection
C. A sinus tract is formed
D. The patients fever has cleared up

B. Localization of the infection

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The unit that describes the amount of xray
exposure in the air is the :

A. Sievert
B. rem
C. Roentgen
D. rad

C. Roentgen

NOTES:
Sievert- biologic effct compared to other x-ray
Rad- energy absorbed by the tissue

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The most common site of mandibular fracture:
A. angle
B. condylar neck
C. symphysis area
D. coronoid process

B. condylar neck

NOTES:
CASBARC
Condylar neck- 29.1%
Angle- 24.5%
Symphysis- 22%
Body- 16%
Alveolar- 3.1%
Ramus- 1.7%
Coronoid process- 1.3%

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Multiple fractures of a single bone:

A. simple fracture
B. greenstick fracture
C. compound fracture
D. comminuted fracture

D. comminuted fracture

NOTES:
simple fracture- divided into 2 halves
greenstick fracture- crack
compound fracture- nalabas sa skin
comminuted fracture- hindi lumalabas sa skin

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When infection has spread to submandibular,
sublingual and submental, it will lead to which of
the following conditions?

A. Vincents angina
B. Ludwig angina
C. Trismus
D. RHF

B. Ludwig angina
infection arises from MANDIBULAR MOLARS (2nd and 3rd)

NOTES:
Vincents angina- painful indition of the throat characterizes by local ulceration of the tonsils, mouth and pharynx.

Trismus- restriction of the patient to open his/her mouth

RHF- PECCS or FEVERSS

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What is the most common type of mid-facial
fracture?

A. LeFort II
B. Zygomaticomaxillary complex
C. Zygomatic arch
D. Nasoorbital ethmoid fractures

B. Zygomaticomaxillary complex

NOTES:
Zygomaticomaxillary complex
- damage on the:
Zygomatic arch
Infroaorbital rim
Ant and Post max sinus walls

-Signs ans symptoms:
Facial asymmetry
Cheek swelling
Periorbital eccymosis
Subconjunctional hemmorhage
Trismus
V2 damage

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The normal bleeding time is ______.

A. 2-4 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 5-10 minutes
D. 2-4 seconds

A. 2-4 minutes

NOTES:
Normal bleeding time: 2-7 minutes

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Under which type of implant is blade-type
classified?

A. Endosseous
B. Transosseous
C. Subperiosteal
D. Osseointegration

A. Endosseous

NOTES:
Endosseous- inserted IN the bone
Transosseous- penetates the entire jaw
Subperiosteal- below the periosteum, above the bone
Osseointegration- the process when the implant and bone fused together

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In a patient who is on long term steroid therapy, what precaution is to be taken prior to
tooth extraction?

A. Additional steroids to be given
B. Continue steroids as it is
C. More antibiotic cover
D. Stop steroids before extraction

B. Continue steroids as it is

NOTES:
Additional steroids to be given- if the patient will undergo general anesthesia

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Dental radiographs are the legal property of
the:

A. dentist
B. state
C. patient
D. none of the above
E. all of the above

A. dentist

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Which of the following positioning errors in
panoramic radiography is the most likely cause of an occlusal plane that shows an excessive upward curve (looks like a “big smile’’)?

A. Chin tilted too far upward
B. Chin tilted too far downward
C. Head turned slightly
D. None of the above

B. Chin tilted too far downward

NOTES:
Chin tilted too far upward-reverse occlusal plane (looks like frown)

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Which of the following refers to healing
response indistinguishable to old tissue?

A. Regeneration
B. Repair
C. Regrowth
D. Refraction

A. Regeneration

NOTES:
Repair- patching

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The number of electrons flowing per second is
measured by:

A. kvp
B. mA
C. Time (sec)
D. All of the above

B. mA

NOTES:
mAdami= numbers
kvp= Kwality, quality

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In proper suturing, the needle should be passed from:

A. free side to the fixed side
B. fixed to free side
C. any choice of the surgeon

A. free side to the fixed side

NOTES:
Between sutures: 3-4mm
From the Margin: 2-3mm

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Which of the following is caused by a fungus?

A. Herpangina
B. Histoplasmosis
C. Erythema multiforme
D. Herpes simplex

B. Histoplasmosis

NOTES:
Herpangina- virus
Erythema multiforme- can be bacterial (mycoplasma pneumonae), viral: HSV
Herpes simplex- virus

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A palatal lesion in denture wearers that appears
as multiple inflamed small projections in the
vault area is called

A. Hyperkeratosis
B. Papillary hyperplasia
C. Papilloma
D. Epulis fissuratum

B. Papillary hyperplasia

NOTES:
Hyperkeratosis- overgrowth of cornified layer of epithelium

Papillary hyperplasia- caused by poor fitting dentures

Papilloma- benign tumor of the surface epithelium

Epulis fissuratum- caused by poor fitting dentures, enlargment of mucosa and fibrous tissue

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Type of healing when loss of tissue occurs between the edges of an incision or laceration which prevents close approximation:

A. primary intention
B. secondary intention
C. tertiary intention
D. none of the above

B. secondary intention

NOTES:
primary intention- no loss of tissue
secondary intention- loss of tissue
tertiary intention- grafts/ inplant purposes

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What is the advantage of chromic gut over
plain gut sutures in deep wounds?

A. greater strength
B. greater ease of use
C. delayed resorption
D. less tissue irritation
E. total nonabsorbability

C. delayed resorption

NOTES:
Plain catgut- resorbs more quickly (5 days)
Chromic catgut- resorbs less quickly (10-12 days)

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The coronoid process often appears on what
periapical image?

A. maxillary incisor
B. maxillary molar
C. mandibular incisor
D. mandibular molar

B. maxillary molar

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Water hammer pulse is a finding in

A. Rheumatic heart disease
B. Anemia
C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
D. Tetralogy of fallot

B. Anemia

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Angulation needed to take a radiograph of an
adult using a posterior bitewing

A. +12x
B. +10x
C. +8x
D. +6x

B. +10x

NOTES:
Maxillary
CI, LI= +40
C= +45
PM= +30
M= +20

Mandibular
CI, LI= -15
C= -20
PM= -10
M= 0 to -5

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What film is indicated for a 4 year old child?

A. 22mm x 35mm
B. 24mm x 40mm
C. 32mm x 41mm
D. 22mm x 41mm

A. 22mm x 35mm

NOTES:
0= 22mm x 35mm (PEDO)
1= 24mm x 40mm (ADULTS, ANTERIORS)
2= 32mm x 41mm (ADULTS, POSTERIORS, REGULAR)
3= 57 x 76 (EXTENDED BITEWING)

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Dental elevators are used for which purpose?

A. Engage tooth apical to CEJ
B. Engage tooth coronal to CEJ
C. Reflect the full thickness flap
D. Detach the periodontal ligaments around
the roots of the tooth

A. Engage tooth apical to CEJ

NOTES:
PERIOTOMES- Detach the periodontal ligaments around
the roots of the tooth

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Bleeding caused in an extraction socket due to wound sepsis after a few days is called as A. reactionary hemorrhage B. primary hemorrhage C. systemic hemorrhage D. secondary hemorrhage

D. secondary hemorrhage NOTES: reactionary hemorrhage- during extraction primary hemorrhage- after tooth has been removed secondary hemorrhage- 7-10 days systemic hemorrhage- drug induced; abnormal bleeding

Which ingredient of fixer solution functions to remove all unexposed and underdeveloped silver halide crystals from the film emulsion? A. Fixing agent B. Acidifier C. Hardening agent D. Preservative

A. Fixing agent NOTES: Fixing agent- remove or clear all unexposed and underdeveloped silver halide crystals from the film emulsion (SODIUM THIOSULFATE, AMMONIUM THIOSULFATE) Acidifier- to neutralize alkaline developer, any unneutralized alkali may cause the unexposed crystals to continue to develop in the fixer. also produces the necessary acidic environment required by the fixing agent. (ACETIC ACID OR SULFURIC ACID) Hardening agent- shrinks and hardens the gelatin in the film elmulsion after it has been softened by the accelerator in the developing solution. Shortens drying time and protects the emulsion from abrasion. (POTASSIUM ALUM) Preservative- prevents the chemical deterioration of the fixing agent. (SODIUM SULFITE)

A straight white border appears on the x-ray film. What is the most likely cause of this? A. Fixer cut-off B. Developer cut-off C. Overlapped films D. Static electricity

B. Developer cut-off NOTES: Fixer cut-off- straight black border Developer cut-off- straight white border Overlapped films- white or dark overlapping Static electricity- thin black branching lines

After the bombings of Hiroshima, there were many patients who were in the radiation zone. Although they were exposed, symptoms such as hair loss didn't occur until days later. This period of time between radiation exposure and the onset of symptoms is called the: A. Latent period B. Period of cell injury C. Recovery period D. Cumulative effects

A. Latent period NOTES: Latent period- period of time between the radiation exposure and onset of symptoms Period of cell injury- cell death (after latent) Recovery period- last events of radiation energy. some cells do recover especially in low levels of radiations Cumulative effects- accumulation of effects

A patient has large SCC of lateral border of the tongue which is going to require radical neck dissection. Prophylactic extractions will be done in order to prevent which of the following? A. Osteoradionecrosis B. Bisphosphinate related Osteonecrosis of the jaw C. Rampant periodontal disease D. None of the above

A. Osteoradionecrosis

Of the following factors affecting magnification, which does the operator NOT have control over? A. Source-film distance B. Film-object distance C. Focal spot size D. Central ray direction E. Film parallelism

C. Focal spot size (it determines the resolution) NOTES: The smaller the focal spot size the greater the resolution.

What is the consequence of the central beam not centered on the film A. Cone cut B. Foreshortened C. Root tip cut D. Decreased vertical height of tooth

A. Cone cut

Strong apical pressure with small straight elevator may displace root tips of maxillary premolars and molars into the _____. A. maxillary sinus B. submandibular space C. mandibular canal D. infratemporal fossa

A. maxillary sinus

A comparison of screen film/intensifying screen combinations with direct-exposure films reveals that screen film/intensifying screen combinations _____. A. Render less resolution B. Require more exposure C. Require special processing chemistry D. Are preferred for intraoral radiography

A. Render less resolution

The water projection is a useful x-ray technique for examination of: A. Torus lingualis B. Torus palatinus C. Genial tubercle D. Maxillary sinus E. None of the above

D. Maxillary sinus NOTES: Submento-Vertex Technique: information of zygoma, zygomatic archesan mandible Jug Handle: information zygomatic arches and to evaluate midfacial fractures Water's View: for assesing sinuses Towne's view: inspect the interior of the skull, status of the condlye and rami Reverse Towne: Condylar neck and ramus fractures Lateral head: cephalometric/ orthodontic purposes

Yellow brown radiographs may result from: A. too cool developing agent B. insufficient fixation time C. too long developing time D. insufficient exposure E. none of these

B. insufficient fixation time NOTES: too cool developing agent- slows the development action insufficient fixation time- yellow-brown radiograph too long developing time- will appear dark insufficient exposure- overly white

The density of a radiograph is influenced by all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. kVp B. rnA C. Exposure time D. Whether the film is a one-film packet or a two-film packet

D. Whether the film is a one-film packet or a two-film packet NOTES: Miiliamperage ↑Ma= ↑density ↓Ma= ↓density Kilovoltage ↑kVp= ↑density ↓kVp= ↓density Exposure time ↑TIME= ↑density ↓TIME= ↓density Subject thickness ↑Thickness= ↓density ↓Thickness=↑density

The most common papule found in the oral cavity is _____. A. Herpes simplex B. Sialodochitis C. Lichen planus D. Leukoedema

C. Lichen planus

What is an acceptable instrument to remove bone? A. Adamson Forceps B. Ronguer Forceps C. Russian Tissue Forceps D. College Forceps

B. Ronguer Forceps NOTES: Adamson Forceps- hook for retractions College Forceps- cotton plier

What is the minimal alveolar concentration of nitrous oxide? A. 30 B. 50 C. 70 D. 105

D. 105%

Leukoplakia of the oral mucosa may predispose the patient to which of the following conditions? A. Malignancy B. Lichen planus C. Leukoedema D. Syphilis

A. Malignancy NOTES: Leukoplakia- cannot be scrapped off Oral Candidiasis-can be scrapped off

This space is usually infected by maxillary 3rd molars? A. pterygomandibular space B. buccal space C. infratemporal space D. masseteric space

C. infratemporal space NOTES: Maxillary spaces: usual site of infection Canine space- Canine Buccal space- Maxillary molars and premolars Infratemporal space- Mandibular 3rd molar

Which of the following statements regarding cortical plates is CORRECT? A. They are made up of spongy bone B. They are thicker in the lingual than in the buccal C. They are thicker in the maxilla than in the mandible D. They are very thick on the labial of the mandibular anterior teeth

B. They are thicker in the lingual than in the buccal

Most important principle during extraction is A. least trauma to bone while extracting whole tooth out B. least trauma to mucosa while extracting the whole tooth out C. none of each part should be left behind. D. least trauma to both bone and mucosa while extracting the tooth in pieces

A. least trauma to bone while extracting whole tooth out

All of the following are contraindications to tooth extraction EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Acute pericoronitis B. Acute dentoalveolar abscess C. End-stage renal disease D. Acute infectious stomatitis

B. Acute dentoalveolar abscess

The most likely cause of trismus after block anesthesia for surgery in the mandibular molar area is A. excessive edema. B. damage to the medial pterygoid muscle on injection. C. stretching of the pterygomandibular raphe. D. myositis of the lateral pterygoid muscle. E. submandibular cellulitis.

B. damage to the medial pterygoid muscle on injection.

A patient develops facial edema one day after removal of a tooth. Instructions to the patient should be to use: A. warm, wet applications outside and inside the mouth. B. cold applications outside and inside the mouth. C. intraoral cold applications only. D. intraoral hot applications only.

B. cold applications outside and inside the mouth.

The root of which tooth is most often dislodged into the maxillary sinus during an extraction procedure? A. Palatal root of the maxillary first premolar B. Palatal root of the maxillary first molar C. Palatal root of the maxillary second molar D. Palatal root of the maxillary third molar

B. Palatal root of the maxillary first molar

Forty-eight hours following the removal of a left impacted mandibular third molar, the patient returns to your office complaining of moderate pain radiating to the left ear. His temperature is 99⁰F and swelling is minimal. The most probable diagnosis is A. traumatic injury to the inferior alveolar nerve during the injection procedure. B. postoperative infection involving the masticator fascial space. C. postoperative infection involving the parotid space. D. postextraction alveolitis. E. None of the above

D. postextraction alveolitis.

Which type of Le Fort fracture is often referred to as a pyramidal fracture? A. LeFort I B. Le Fort II C. LeFort III D. leFort IV

B. Le Fort II NOTES: LeFort I- Transmaxillary/ Horizontal Guerin Le Fort II- Balony/ Pyramidal LeFort III- Transverse/ Craniofacial dysjuction/ Racoon eyes

Whether a bone cyst or other cysts are completely enucleated or treated by marsupialization depends on the: A. Duration B. Origin C. Color D. Size and location to vital structures

D. Size and location to vital structures NOTES: Enucleation (Size: small) Marsupialization (Size: big)

Of the following the most common postoperative complication after surgical removal of mandibular teeth is A. myositis B. paresthesia C. loss of the blood clot D. postoperative hemorrhage E. difficulty in swallowin

C. loss of the blood clot (dry socket)

which of the following is the most common technique used for mandibular advancement? A. The step osteotomy B. Mandibular ramus sagittal split osteotomy C. The vertical ramus osteotomy D. The vertical bodies osteotomy

B. Mandibular ramus sagittal split osteotomy

Indurating, movable retroauricular lymph nodes suggest examination of which area for etiology? A. Auricular tragus B. Zygomatic region C. Maxillary posterior teeth D. Scalp behind ear

D. Scalp behind ear

The Caldwell-luc procedure is an approach to the A. Masticator space B. Maxillary sinus C. Ethmoid sinus D. Mediastinum E. Submandibular space

B. Maxillary sinus

Radiopaque tissues: A. absorb little of the x-rays B. absorb x-rays more fully C. none of the choices D. are hollow regions E. are cysts, granulomas or abscesses

B. absorb x-rays more fully

Which of the following describes a graft material derived from genetically unrelated members of the same species? A. Autogenous B. Allogeneic C. Xenogeneic D. Synthetic

B. Allogeneic NOTES: Autogenous- same person Allogeneic- genetically unrelated Xenogeneic- derived from a different species Synthetic- chemically made

In case of facial injuries with voluntary control lost over tongue, the best emergency treatment to prevent tongue from falling back is A. deep traction silk suture of tongue B. oropharyngeal airway C. towel clipping of tongue D. definitive treatment

C. towel clipping of tongue

The nerve injury classified as neurotmesis is described as? A. A contusion of the nerve B. Complete loss of nerve continuity C. Loss of epineural sheath but intact axon D. A stretching of the nerve

B. Complete loss of nerve continuity NOTES: NEURAPRAXIA- A contusion of the nerve NEUTROKESIS- Complete loss of nerve continuity AXONOTMESIS- Loss of epineural sheath but intact axon NEURAPRAXIA- A stretching of the nerve

Bremsstrahlung radiation results from _____. A. X-rays interacting with electrons B. Electrons interacting with electrons C. Electrons interacting with nuclei D. L shell electrons falling into the K shell E. Photons interacting with nuclei

C. Electrons interacting with nuclei NOTES: X-rays interacting with electrons- PHOTOELECTRIC EFFECT Electrons interacting with electrons- REPEL with each other through coulumb forces L shell electrons falling into the K shell- emits K Alpa Xray Photons interacting with nuclei- PHOTONUCLEAR SCATTERING

Currently, the most popular used implants are: A. Blade form implants B. Subperiosteal implants C. Transosseous implants D. Root form implants

D. Root form implants NOTES: Endossesous- frequently used implants today

X-rays are produced in most conventional dental x-ray machines _____. A. Continuously during operation B. When there is a large space charge C. Half the time during operation D. When the anode carries a negative charge E. Only when the beam is collimated

C. Half the time during operation

Which of the following is a major disadvantage of the paralleling technique? A. The image formed on the film will not have dimensional accuracy B. Due to the amount of distortion, periodontal bone height cannot be accurately diagnosed C. An increase in exposure time is necessary to the use of a long cone D. An increase in exposure time is necessary due to the use of a short cone

C. An increase in exposure time is necessary to the use of a long cone

Which of the following is not a disadvantage of the bisecting technique? A. Image on x-ray film may be dimensionally distorted (amount may vary) B. Increased exposure time C. Due to the use of a short cone (which results in divergent rays), the image is not a true reproduction of the object D. May not be able to judge the correct alveolar bone height

B. Increased exposure time

What is the standard periapical film size for children A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

A. 0 NOTES: 0= 22mm x 35mm (PEDO) 1= 24mm x 40mm (ADULTS, ANTERIORS) 2= 32mm x 41mm (ADULTS, POSTERIORS, REGULAR) 3= 57mm x 76mm (EXTENDED BITEWING)

A surgical procedure used to recontour the supporting bone structures in preparation of a complete or partial denture is called a (an) A. Closed reduction B. Operculoectomy C. Alveoloplasty D. Gingivoplasty

C. Alveoloplasty

Cavernous sinus thrombosis may occur as a consequence of the hematogenous spread of a maxillary odontogenic infection via the venous drainage of the maxilla. The causative agent is generally: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococci C. Pneumococci D. Fungi

A. Staphylococcus aureus

It is acceptable for the operator to hold the film in a patient’s mouth _____. A. If the patient is a child B. If the patient or parent grants permission C. If the patient has a handicap D. If no film holder is available E. Never

E. Never NOTES: If someone mus hold a film and a patient cannot, then it should be a family member or a friend

It is important that the film base be _____. A. Opaque B. Very rigid C. Flexible D. Completely clear E. Sensitive to x-rays

C. Flexible

Excessive vertical angulation causes _____. A. Overlapping B. Foreshortening C. Elongation D. Cone-cutting

B. Foreshortening

To obtain the most geometrically accurate image, which of the following is false? A. The film should be parallel to the object. B. The central ray should be parallel to the object. C. The central ray should be perpendicular to the film. D. The object-to-film distance should be short. E. The object-to-anode distance should be long.

B. The central ray should be parallel to the object.❌

The size of the x-ray tube focal spot influences radiographic _____. A. Density B. Contrast C. Resolution D. Magnification E. Both C and D

C. Resolution

The primary function of developer is to _____. A. Reduce crystals of silver halide to solid silver grains B. Reduce solid silver grains to specks of silver halide C. Remove unexposed silver halide crystals D. Remove exposed silver halide crystals

A. Reduce crystals of silver halide to solid silver grains

If an exposed radiograph is too dark after proper development, one should _____. A. Place it back in the fixer B. Place it back in the developer C. Decrease development time D. Increase milliamperage E. Decrease exposure time

E. Decrease exposure time NOTES: Do not change development parameters if they are correct.

The radiolucent portions of the images on a processed dental x-ray film are made up of _____. A. Microscopic grains of silver halide B. Microscopic grains of metallic silver C. A gelatin on a cellulose acetate base D. Unexposed silver bromide

B. Microscopic grains of metallic silver

The purpose of the “penny test” is to check _____. A. Developer action B. Fixer action C. For proper development temperature D. For proper safelighting conditions

D. For proper safelighting conditions

Proper radiographic infection control includes all of the following except _____. A. Wearing gloves while making radiographs B. Disinfecting x-ray machine surface C. Covering working surfaces with barriers D. Sterilizing nondisposable instruments E. Sterilizing film packets

E. Sterilizing film packets❌

Occlusal radiographs are useful for all of the following except _____. A. For views of the TMJ B. For displaying large segments of the mandibular arch C. When the patient has limited opening D. When there are sialoliths in the floor of the mouth E. When there is buccal-lingual expansion of the mandible

A. For views of the TMJ❌

Inflammation is the local reaction of vascular connective tissue to injury and your body's frontline defense to fight bacterial invasion and trauma. While swelling is the localized enlargement or distentation of an injured part of the body that may result from trauma due to extraction impacted 3rd molars. Which of the following best describes both statements? A. Both statements are true B. Second statement is true, first statement is false C. Both statements are false D. First statement is true, second staterment is false

B. Second statement is true, first statement is false While swelling is the localized enlargement or distentation of an injured part of the body that may result from trauma due to extraction impacted 3rd molars❌ NOTES: Line of defenses FIRST- intact skin, mucous membranes and their secretions, normal microbiota SECOND- natural killer cells and phagocytic wbc, inflammation, fever, antimicrobial substances THIRD- specialized lymphocytes: Tcells and Bcells and antibiodies

What is the classification of a maxillary impacted tooth that is above the occlusal plane but is below the cervical line? A. Class A B. Class I C. Class C D. Class B

D. Class B NOTES: Roman Numeral: I, II, III - relationship of the 8s with the anterior border of the ramus Letter: A,B,C - relationship with the occlusal plane

In reference to the bone-implant interface, which of the following yields the most predictable long-term stability? A. Fibro-osseous integration B. Osseointegration C. Biointegration D. Any of the above

B. Osseointegration

The following are indications of using "Figure of 8" suturing technique, EXCEPT _____. A. coaptate wound margins B. close adaptation of gingival papilla C. keep blood clot in place D. approximate extraction site as close as possible simulating primary intention healing

A. coaptate wound margins❌

The act of delivering tooth from the socket once bony expansion is achieved: A. extraction B. dehiscence C. tractional force D. odontectomy E. none of the above

A. extraction

Open technique of extraction is also known as: A. simple forcep technique B. flap technique C. elevator technique D. none of the above

B. flap technique NOTES: Closed: Simple or forceps technique Open: Surgical or Flap techniques

Post-extraction bleeding in a leukemic patient is due to A. Increase in leukocytes B. Low calcium level C. Deficiency of clotting factors D. Platelet disorder

D. Platelet disorder NOTES: LEUKOCYTOSIS- Increase in leukocytes HYPOCALCEMIA- Low calcium level HEMOPHILIA- Deficiency of clotting factors THROMBOCYTOPENIA- Low platelet THROMBOCYTOSIS- High platelet

Excisional biopsy should be employed on small lesions that on clinical examination appear benign and measuring about: A. less than 1 cm in diameter B. less than 1 mm in diameter C. more than 1 cm in diameter D. more than 1 mm in diameter

A. less than 1 cm in diameter NOTES: EXCISIONAL- <1cm ; removal of the entire lesion, 2mm of the normal tissue INCISIONAL- >1cm ; only a portion of the lesion

The nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome includes multiple basal cell carcinomas, bone abnormalities, and which of the following? A. Osteomas B. Café-au-lait macules C. Odontogenic keratocysts D. Hypoplastic teeth E. Lymphoma

C. Odontogenic keratocysts NOTES: Benign: -oma Fibroma- cancer of fibrous tissue origin Chondroma- neoplasm composed of chondrocytes Adenoma- ducts/ glands Papilloma- epithelium Cystadenoma- ovary Choristoma- misplaces within another organ Hamartoma- overgrowth affected organ Hemangioma- accumulation of blood vessel Myxoma- connective tissue Malignant: -sarcoma, -carsinoma Fibrosarcoma- fibrous tissue Chondrsarcoma- Cartilage Osteosarcoma- bone Leiomyosarcoma- smooty muscle Rhabdosarcoma- skeletal (common in children) Liposarcoma- addipose tissue Leukemia or lymphoma- blood Carcinoma- malignant neoplasm of epithelial cell Adenocarcinoma- malignant neoplasm of epithelium of the gland Sqamous cell carcinoma- skin, mouth, esophagus, vagina, bronchal epithelial Transitional cell carcinoma- urninary bladder EXCEPTION: Lymphoma and Melanoma: always malignant

Which of the following commonly used vasoconstrictors is most efficient when used with dental anesthetic solutions? A. Nordefrin hydrochloride B. Norepinephrine C. Levonordefrin D. Epinephrine

D. Epinephrine

A tooth that is tender to percussion indicates that A. the pulp is necrotic B. the periodontal ligament is inflamed C. condensing osteitis is present D. the pulp is vital

B. the periodontal ligament is inflamed NOTES: Thermal tests- Vitality Reversible Pulpitis- (+) cold Irreversible Pulpitis - (+) cold, (+) hot Palpation- presence of pus Acute Apical abscess- (+) palpation Percussion- Periodontal ligament Symptomatic Apical Periodontitis- (+) percussion test Except: Asymptomtic, Chronic, Necrotic Asymptomtic Apical Periodontitis - percussion with slight discomfort Chronic Apical Periodontitis -mobility Chronic Apical Abcess - gum boil Nectotic Pulp - gray-black in color

On the way out of your dental chair, the patient gets up too fast, feels dizzy, and falls chin first onto your tiled operatory floor. Suspecting bilateral subcondylar fractures, which of the following projections would best allow for this examination? A. Waters projection B. Transcranial projection C. Townes projection D. Submentovertex projection

C. Townes projection NOTES: Waters projection- sinus Transcranial projection- TMJ Townes projection- interior of the skull, status of the condyles Submentovertex projection- zygoma, zygmatic arches and mandible

What physical type of lesion is characterized by small loculation of cloudy or white fluid, the color resulting from polymorphonuclear leukocytes? A. Nodule B. Macule C. Papule D. Pustule

D. Pustule NOTES: Nodule- elevated palpable solid mass that extends deeper into the dermis Macule- flat area of color change (no elevation or depression) Papule- solid elevation less than 0.5 cm in diameter Pustule- vesicle rilled with pus/ bulla

All of the following characteristically present under the age of 20 except _____. A. Traumatic bone cyst B. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor C. Ameloblastic fibroma D. Compound odontoma E. Ameloblastoma

E. Ameloblastoma❌ NOTES: The mean age for ameloblastoma is 40 years old and above

Oral and genital lesions are seen in patients with which of the following diseases? A. Behçet’s syndrome B. Peutz–Jegher’s syndrome C. Herpangina D. Wegener’s granulomatosis E. Hairy leukoplakia

A. Behçet’s syndrome

A 32-year-old male patient presented with a 1 ¥ 2-cm macular red-blue lesion in his hard palate. The lesion was asymptomatic and had been present for an unknown duration. He had no dental abnormalities and no significant periodontal disease. This could be all the following except _____. A. Vascular malformation B. Nicotine stomatitis C. Ecchymosis D. Kaposi’s sarcoma E. Erythroplasia

B. Nicotine stomatitis NOTES: Ecchymosis- due to trauma Kaposi’s sarcoma- HSV8 can cause lots of other symptoms (KAPOS8) Erythroplasia- lesion that bleeds easily upon scraping

Median rhomboid glossitis is an area typically demonstrating A. atrophic fungiform papilla of the tongue B. failure of the tuberculum impar to obliterate during odontogenesis C. atrophic filiform papilla of the tongue D. inflammation of the tongue

B. failure of the tuberculum impar to obliterate during odontogenesis atrophic fungiform papilla of the tongue- anterior or tip of the tongue atrophic filiform papilla of the tongue- anterior 2/3 of the tongue

Deterministic effects are those that _____. A. Show a severity of response proportional to dose B. Are seen only in the oral cavity C. Are found following exposure to low levels of radiation D. Result from particulate radiation such as alpha and beta particles, but not x-rays E. None of the above

A. Show a severity of response proportional to dose

In the radiolysis of water, _____. A. Free radicals are formed which are nonreactive B. The presence of dissolved O2 reduces the number of free radicals C. The formation of free radicals is the “direct effect” D. The resultant free radicals may alter biological molecules E. Two of the above

C. The formation of free radicals is the “direct effect”

The radiosensitivity of cells depends upon _____. A. Mitotic future B. Mitotic activity C. Degree of differentiation D. All of the above E. None of the above

D. All of the above

Rectangular collimation is recommended because it _____. A. Deflects scatter radiation B. Decreases patient dose C. Increases film density D. Increases film contrast

B. Decreases patient dose

_______ is used to restrict the size and shape of the x-ray beam and to reduce patient exposure? A. Discrimination B. Collimation C. Filtration D. Barrier placement

B. Collimation

A disease characterized by punched out ulceration with a gray pseudomembrane and fetid odor. A. ANUG B. Gingivitis C. acute periodontitis D. Desquamative gingivitis

A. ANUG