TEST 5 (OD, OS AND ROENTGENOLOGY) Flashcards
Which of the following techniques is best for wide based frenectomy?
A. Diamond excision
B. V-Y advancement
C. Z-plasty
D. Any of the abov
B. V-Y advancement
Incision and drainage in an area of acute infection should only be performed after:
A. A culture for antibiotic sensitivity has been
performed
B. Localization of the infection
C. A sinus tract is formed
D. The patients fever has cleared up
B. Localization of the infection
The unit that describes the amount of xray
exposure in the air is the :
A. Sievert
B. rem
C. Roentgen
D. rad
C. Roentgen
NOTES:
Sievert- biologic effct compared to other x-ray
Rad- energy absorbed by the tissue
The most common site of mandibular fracture:
A. angle
B. condylar neck
C. symphysis area
D. coronoid process
B. condylar neck
NOTES:
CASBARC
Condylar neck- 29.1%
Angle- 24.5%
Symphysis- 22%
Body- 16%
Alveolar- 3.1%
Ramus- 1.7%
Coronoid process- 1.3%
Multiple fractures of a single bone:
A. simple fracture
B. greenstick fracture
C. compound fracture
D. comminuted fracture
D. comminuted fracture
NOTES:
simple fracture- divided into 2 halves
greenstick fracture- crack
compound fracture- nalabas sa skin
comminuted fracture- hindi lumalabas sa skin
When infection has spread to submandibular,
sublingual and submental, it will lead to which of
the following conditions?
A. Vincents angina
B. Ludwig angina
C. Trismus
D. RHF
B. Ludwig angina
infection arises from MANDIBULAR MOLARS (2nd and 3rd)
NOTES:
Vincents angina- painful indition of the throat characterizes by local ulceration of the tonsils, mouth and pharynx.
Trismus- restriction of the patient to open his/her mouth
RHF- PECCS or FEVERSS
What is the most common type of mid-facial
fracture?
A. LeFort II
B. Zygomaticomaxillary complex
C. Zygomatic arch
D. Nasoorbital ethmoid fractures
B. Zygomaticomaxillary complex
NOTES:
Zygomaticomaxillary complex
- damage on the:
Zygomatic arch
Infroaorbital rim
Ant and Post max sinus walls
-Signs ans symptoms:
Facial asymmetry
Cheek swelling
Periorbital eccymosis
Subconjunctional hemmorhage
Trismus
V2 damage
The normal bleeding time is ______.
A. 2-4 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 5-10 minutes
D. 2-4 seconds
A. 2-4 minutes
NOTES:
Normal bleeding time: 2-7 minutes
Under which type of implant is blade-type
classified?
A. Endosseous
B. Transosseous
C. Subperiosteal
D. Osseointegration
A. Endosseous
NOTES:
Endosseous- inserted IN the bone
Transosseous- penetates the entire jaw
Subperiosteal- below the periosteum, above the bone
Osseointegration- the process when the implant and bone fused together
In a patient who is on long term steroid therapy, what precaution is to be taken prior to
tooth extraction?
A. Additional steroids to be given
B. Continue steroids as it is
C. More antibiotic cover
D. Stop steroids before extraction
B. Continue steroids as it is
NOTES:
Additional steroids to be given- if the patient will undergo general anesthesia
Dental radiographs are the legal property of
the:
A. dentist
B. state
C. patient
D. none of the above
E. all of the above
A. dentist
Which of the following positioning errors in
panoramic radiography is the most likely cause of an occlusal plane that shows an excessive upward curve (looks like a “big smile’’)?
A. Chin tilted too far upward
B. Chin tilted too far downward
C. Head turned slightly
D. None of the above
B. Chin tilted too far downward
NOTES:
Chin tilted too far upward-reverse occlusal plane (looks like frown)
Which of the following refers to healing
response indistinguishable to old tissue?
A. Regeneration
B. Repair
C. Regrowth
D. Refraction
A. Regeneration
NOTES:
Repair- patching
The number of electrons flowing per second is
measured by:
A. kvp
B. mA
C. Time (sec)
D. All of the above
B. mA
NOTES:
mAdami= numbers
kvp= Kwality, quality
In proper suturing, the needle should be passed from:
A. free side to the fixed side
B. fixed to free side
C. any choice of the surgeon
A. free side to the fixed side
NOTES:
Between sutures: 3-4mm
From the Margin: 2-3mm
Which of the following is caused by a fungus?
A. Herpangina
B. Histoplasmosis
C. Erythema multiforme
D. Herpes simplex
B. Histoplasmosis
NOTES:
Herpangina- virus
Erythema multiforme- can be bacterial (mycoplasma pneumonae), viral: HSV
Herpes simplex- virus
A palatal lesion in denture wearers that appears
as multiple inflamed small projections in the
vault area is called
A. Hyperkeratosis
B. Papillary hyperplasia
C. Papilloma
D. Epulis fissuratum
B. Papillary hyperplasia
NOTES:
Hyperkeratosis- overgrowth of cornified layer of epithelium
Papillary hyperplasia- caused by poor fitting dentures
Papilloma- benign tumor of the surface epithelium
Epulis fissuratum- caused by poor fitting dentures, enlargment of mucosa and fibrous tissue
Type of healing when loss of tissue occurs between the edges of an incision or laceration which prevents close approximation:
A. primary intention
B. secondary intention
C. tertiary intention
D. none of the above
B. secondary intention
NOTES:
primary intention- no loss of tissue
secondary intention- loss of tissue
tertiary intention- grafts/ inplant purposes
What is the advantage of chromic gut over
plain gut sutures in deep wounds?
A. greater strength
B. greater ease of use
C. delayed resorption
D. less tissue irritation
E. total nonabsorbability
C. delayed resorption
NOTES:
Plain catgut- resorbs more quickly (5 days)
Chromic catgut- resorbs less quickly (10-12 days)
The coronoid process often appears on what
periapical image?
A. maxillary incisor
B. maxillary molar
C. mandibular incisor
D. mandibular molar
B. maxillary molar
Water hammer pulse is a finding in
A. Rheumatic heart disease
B. Anemia
C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
D. Tetralogy of fallot
B. Anemia
Angulation needed to take a radiograph of an
adult using a posterior bitewing
A. +12x
B. +10x
C. +8x
D. +6x
B. +10x
NOTES:
Maxillary
CI, LI= +40
C= +45
PM= +30
M= +20
Mandibular
CI, LI= -15
C= -20
PM= -10
M= 0 to -5
What film is indicated for a 4 year old child?
A. 22mm x 35mm
B. 24mm x 40mm
C. 32mm x 41mm
D. 22mm x 41mm
A. 22mm x 35mm
NOTES:
0= 22mm x 35mm (PEDO)
1= 24mm x 40mm (ADULTS, ANTERIORS)
2= 32mm x 41mm (ADULTS, POSTERIORS, REGULAR)
3= 57 x 76 (EXTENDED BITEWING)
Dental elevators are used for which purpose?
A. Engage tooth apical to CEJ
B. Engage tooth coronal to CEJ
C. Reflect the full thickness flap
D. Detach the periodontal ligaments around
the roots of the tooth
A. Engage tooth apical to CEJ
NOTES:
PERIOTOMES- Detach the periodontal ligaments around
the roots of the tooth
Bleeding caused in an extraction socket due to
wound sepsis after a few days is called as
A. reactionary hemorrhage
B. primary hemorrhage
C. systemic hemorrhage
D. secondary hemorrhage
D. secondary hemorrhage
NOTES:
reactionary hemorrhage- during extraction
primary hemorrhage- after tooth has been removed
secondary hemorrhage- 7-10 days
systemic hemorrhage- drug induced; abnormal bleeding
Which ingredient of fixer solution functions to
remove all unexposed and underdeveloped silver halide crystals from the film emulsion?
A. Fixing agent
B. Acidifier
C. Hardening agent
D. Preservative
A. Fixing agent
NOTES:
Fixing agent- remove or clear all unexposed and underdeveloped silver halide crystals from the film emulsion (SODIUM THIOSULFATE, AMMONIUM THIOSULFATE)
Acidifier- to neutralize alkaline developer, any unneutralized alkali may cause the unexposed crystals to continue to develop in the fixer. also produces the necessary acidic environment required by the fixing agent. (ACETIC ACID OR SULFURIC ACID)
Hardening agent- shrinks and hardens the gelatin in the film elmulsion after it has been softened by the accelerator in the developing solution. Shortens drying time and protects the emulsion from abrasion. (POTASSIUM ALUM)
Preservative- prevents the chemical deterioration of the fixing agent. (SODIUM SULFITE)
A straight white border appears on the x-ray
film. What is the most likely cause of this?
A. Fixer cut-off
B. Developer cut-off
C. Overlapped films
D. Static electricity
B. Developer cut-off
NOTES:
Fixer cut-off- straight black border
Developer cut-off- straight white border
Overlapped films- white or dark overlapping
Static electricity- thin black branching lines
After the bombings of Hiroshima, there were
many patients who were in the radiation zone.
Although they were exposed, symptoms such as
hair loss didn’t occur until days later. This period of time between radiation exposure and the onset of symptoms is called the:
A. Latent period
B. Period of cell injury
C. Recovery period
D. Cumulative effects
A. Latent period
NOTES:
Latent period- period of time between the radiation exposure and onset of symptoms
Period of cell injury- cell death (after latent)
Recovery period- last events of radiation energy. some cells do recover especially in low levels of radiations
Cumulative effects- accumulation of effects
A patient has large SCC of lateral border of the
tongue which is going to require radical neck
dissection. Prophylactic extractions will be done in order to prevent which of the following?
A. Osteoradionecrosis
B. Bisphosphinate related Osteonecrosis of the
jaw
C. Rampant periodontal disease
D. None of the above
A. Osteoradionecrosis
Of the following factors affecting magnification,
which does the operator NOT have control over?
A. Source-film distance
B. Film-object distance
C. Focal spot size
D. Central ray direction
E. Film parallelism
C. Focal spot size (it determines the resolution)
NOTES:
The smaller the focal spot size the greater the resolution.
What is the consequence of the central beam
not centered on the film
A. Cone cut
B. Foreshortened
C. Root tip cut
D. Decreased vertical height of tooth
A. Cone cut
Strong apical pressure with small straight
elevator may displace root tips of maxillary
premolars and molars into the _____.
A. maxillary sinus
B. submandibular space
C. mandibular canal
D. infratemporal fossa
A. maxillary sinus
A comparison of screen film/intensifying screen
combinations with direct-exposure films reveals
that screen film/intensifying screen combinations _____.
A. Render less resolution
B. Require more exposure
C. Require special processing chemistry
D. Are preferred for intraoral radiography
A. Render less resolution
The water projection is a useful x-ray technique for examination of:
A. Torus lingualis
B. Torus palatinus
C. Genial tubercle
D. Maxillary sinus
E. None of the above
D. Maxillary sinus
NOTES:
Submento-Vertex Technique: information of zygoma, zygomatic archesan mandible
Jug Handle: information zygomatic arches and to evaluate midfacial fractures
Water’s View: for assesing sinuses
Towne’s view: inspect the interior of the skull, status of the condlye and rami
Reverse Towne: Condylar neck and ramus fractures
Lateral head: cephalometric/ orthodontic purposes
Yellow brown radiographs may result from:
A. too cool developing agent
B. insufficient fixation time
C. too long developing time
D. insufficient exposure
E. none of these
B. insufficient fixation time
NOTES:
too cool developing agent- slows the development action
insufficient fixation time- yellow-brown radiograph
too long developing time- will appear dark
insufficient exposure- overly white
The density of a radiograph is influenced by all
of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
A. kVp
B. rnA
C. Exposure time
D. Whether the film is a one-film packet or a two-film packet
D. Whether the film is a one-film packet or a two-film packet
NOTES:
Miiliamperage
↑Ma= ↑density
↓Ma= ↓density
Kilovoltage
↑kVp= ↑density
↓kVp= ↓density
Exposure time
↑TIME= ↑density
↓TIME= ↓density
Subject thickness
↑Thickness= ↓density
↓Thickness=↑density
The most common papule found in the oral cavity is _____.
A. Herpes simplex
B. Sialodochitis
C. Lichen planus
D. Leukoedema
C. Lichen planus
What is an acceptable instrument to remove bone?
A. Adamson Forceps
B. Ronguer Forceps
C. Russian Tissue Forceps
D. College Forceps
B. Ronguer Forceps
NOTES:
Adamson Forceps- hook for retractions
College Forceps- cotton plier
What is the minimal alveolar concentration of nitrous oxide?
A. 30
B. 50
C. 70
D. 105
D. 105%
Leukoplakia of the oral mucosa may predispose
the patient to which of the following conditions?
A. Malignancy
B. Lichen planus
C. Leukoedema
D. Syphilis
A. Malignancy
NOTES:
Leukoplakia- cannot be scrapped off
Oral Candidiasis-can be scrapped off
This space is usually infected by maxillary 3rd
molars?
A. pterygomandibular space
B. buccal space
C. infratemporal space
D. masseteric space
C. infratemporal space
NOTES:
Maxillary spaces: usual site of infection
Canine space- Canine
Buccal space- Maxillary molars and premolars
Infratemporal space- Mandibular 3rd molar
Which of the following statements regarding
cortical plates is CORRECT?
A. They are made up of spongy bone
B. They are thicker in the lingual than in the
buccal
C. They are thicker in the maxilla than in the
mandible
D. They are very thick on the labial of the
mandibular anterior teeth
B. They are thicker in the lingual than in the
buccal
Most important principle during extraction is
A. least trauma to bone while extracting whole
tooth out
B. least trauma to mucosa while extracting the
whole tooth out
C. none of each part should be left behind.
D. least trauma to both bone and mucosa
while extracting the tooth in pieces
A. least trauma to bone while extracting whole
tooth out
All of the following are contraindications to
tooth extraction EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
A. Acute pericoronitis
B. Acute dentoalveolar abscess
C. End-stage renal disease
D. Acute infectious stomatitis
B. Acute dentoalveolar abscess
The most likely cause of trismus after block
anesthesia for surgery in the mandibular molar area is
A. excessive edema.
B. damage to the medial pterygoid muscle on
injection.
C. stretching of the pterygomandibular raphe.
D. myositis of the lateral pterygoid muscle.
E. submandibular cellulitis.
B. damage to the medial pterygoid muscle on
injection.
A patient develops facial edema one day after
removal of a tooth. Instructions to the patient should be to use:
A. warm, wet applications outside and inside
the mouth.
B. cold applications outside and inside the
mouth.
C. intraoral cold applications only.
D. intraoral hot applications only.
B. cold applications outside and inside the
mouth.
The root of which tooth is most often dislodged
into the maxillary sinus during an extraction
procedure?
A. Palatal root of the maxillary first premolar
B. Palatal root of the maxillary first molar
C. Palatal root of the maxillary second molar
D. Palatal root of the maxillary third molar
B. Palatal root of the maxillary first molar
Forty-eight hours following the removal of a left
impacted mandibular third molar, the patient returns to your office complaining of moderate pain radiating to the left ear. His temperature is 99⁰F and swelling is minimal. The most probable diagnosis is
A. traumatic injury to the inferior alveolar nerve
during the injection procedure.
B. postoperative infection involving the
masticator fascial space.
C. postoperative infection involving the parotid
space.
D. postextraction alveolitis.
E. None of the above
D. postextraction alveolitis.
Which type of Le Fort fracture is often referred
to as a pyramidal fracture?
A. LeFort I
B. Le Fort II
C. LeFort III
D. leFort IV
B. Le Fort II
NOTES:
LeFort I- Transmaxillary/ Horizontal Guerin
Le Fort II- Balony/ Pyramidal
LeFort III- Transverse/ Craniofacial dysjuction/ Racoon eyes
Whether a bone cyst or other cysts are completely enucleated or treated by marsupialization depends on the:
A. Duration
B. Origin
C. Color
D. Size and location to vital structures
D. Size and location to vital structures
NOTES:
Enucleation (Size: small)
Marsupialization (Size: big)
Of the following the most common postoperative complication after surgical removal of mandibular teeth is
A. myositis
B. paresthesia
C. loss of the blood clot
D. postoperative hemorrhage
E. difficulty in swallowin
C. loss of the blood clot (dry socket)
which of the following is the most common
technique used for mandibular advancement?
A. The step osteotomy
B. Mandibular ramus sagittal split osteotomy
C. The vertical ramus osteotomy
D. The vertical bodies osteotomy
B. Mandibular ramus sagittal split osteotomy
Indurating, movable retroauricular lymph nodes
suggest examination of which area for etiology?
A. Auricular tragus
B. Zygomatic region
C. Maxillary posterior teeth
D. Scalp behind ear
D. Scalp behind ear
The Caldwell-luc procedure is an approach to
the
A. Masticator space
B. Maxillary sinus
C. Ethmoid sinus
D. Mediastinum
E. Submandibular space
B. Maxillary sinus
Radiopaque tissues:
A. absorb little of the x-rays
B. absorb x-rays more fully
C. none of the choices
D. are hollow regions
E. are cysts, granulomas or abscesses
B. absorb x-rays more fully
Which of the following describes a graft material derived from genetically unrelated members of the same species?
A. Autogenous
B. Allogeneic
C. Xenogeneic
D. Synthetic
B. Allogeneic
NOTES:
Autogenous- same person
Allogeneic- genetically unrelated
Xenogeneic- derived from a different species
Synthetic- chemically made
In case of facial injuries with voluntary control lost over tongue, the best emergency treatment
to prevent tongue from falling back is
A. deep traction silk suture of tongue
B. oropharyngeal airway
C. towel clipping of tongue
D. definitive treatment
C. towel clipping of tongue
The nerve injury classified as neurotmesis is
described as?
A. A contusion of the nerve
B. Complete loss of nerve continuity
C. Loss of epineural sheath but intact axon
D. A stretching of the nerve
B. Complete loss of nerve continuity
NOTES:
NEURAPRAXIA- A contusion of the nerve
NEUTROKESIS- Complete loss of nerve continuity
AXONOTMESIS- Loss of epineural sheath but intact axon
NEURAPRAXIA- A stretching of the nerve
Bremsstrahlung radiation results from _____.
A. X-rays interacting with electrons
B. Electrons interacting with electrons
C. Electrons interacting with nuclei
D. L shell electrons falling into the K shell
E. Photons interacting with nuclei
C. Electrons interacting with nuclei
NOTES:
X-rays interacting with electrons- PHOTOELECTRIC EFFECT
Electrons interacting with electrons- REPEL with each other through coulumb forces
L shell electrons falling into the K shell- emits K Alpa Xray
Photons interacting with nuclei- PHOTONUCLEAR SCATTERING
Currently, the most popular used implants are:
A. Blade form implants
B. Subperiosteal implants
C. Transosseous implants
D. Root form implants
D. Root form implants
NOTES:
Endossesous- frequently used implants today
X-rays are produced in most conventional
dental x-ray machines _____.
A. Continuously during operation
B. When there is a large space charge
C. Half the time during operation
D. When the anode carries a negative charge
E. Only when the beam is collimated
C. Half the time during operation
Which of the following is a major disadvantage
of the paralleling technique?
A. The image formed on the film will not have
dimensional accuracy
B. Due to the amount of distortion, periodontal
bone height cannot be accurately diagnosed
C. An increase in exposure time is necessary to the use of a long cone
D. An increase in exposure time is necessary
due to the use of a short cone
C. An increase in exposure time is necessary to the use of a long cone
Which of the following is not a disadvantage of the bisecting technique?
A. Image on x-ray film may be dimensionally distorted (amount may vary)
B. Increased exposure time
C. Due to the use of a short cone (which results in divergent rays), the image is not a true reproduction of the object
D. May not be able to judge the correct alveolar bone height
B. Increased exposure time
What is the standard periapical film size for
children
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
A. 0
NOTES:
0= 22mm x 35mm (PEDO)
1= 24mm x 40mm (ADULTS, ANTERIORS)
2= 32mm x 41mm (ADULTS, POSTERIORS, REGULAR)
3= 57mm x 76mm (EXTENDED BITEWING)
A surgical procedure used to recontour the supporting bone structures in preparation of a complete or partial denture is called a (an)
A. Closed reduction
B. Operculoectomy
C. Alveoloplasty
D. Gingivoplasty
C. Alveoloplasty
Cavernous sinus thrombosis may occur as a
consequence of the hematogenous spread of a
maxillary odontogenic infection via the venous
drainage of the maxilla. The causative agent is
generally:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococci
C. Pneumococci
D. Fungi
A. Staphylococcus aureus
It is acceptable for the operator to hold the film
in a patient’s mouth _____.
A. If the patient is a child
B. If the patient or parent grants permission
C. If the patient has a handicap
D. If no film holder is available
E. Never
E. Never
NOTES:
If someone mus hold a film and a patient cannot, then it should be a family member or a friend
It is important that the film base be _____.
A. Opaque
B. Very rigid
C. Flexible
D. Completely clear
E. Sensitive to x-rays
C. Flexible
Excessive vertical angulation causes _____.
A. Overlapping
B. Foreshortening
C. Elongation
D. Cone-cutting
B. Foreshortening
To obtain the most geometrically accurate
image, which of the following is false?
A. The film should be parallel to the object.
B. The central ray should be parallel to the object.
C. The central ray should be perpendicular to
the film.
D. The object-to-film distance should be short.
E. The object-to-anode distance should be
long.
B. The central ray should be parallel to the object.❌
The size of the x-ray tube focal spot influences
radiographic _____.
A. Density
B. Contrast
C. Resolution
D. Magnification
E. Both C and D
C. Resolution
The primary function of developer is to _____.
A. Reduce crystals of silver halide to solid silver
grains
B. Reduce solid silver grains to specks of silver
halide
C. Remove unexposed silver halide crystals
D. Remove exposed silver halide crystals
A. Reduce crystals of silver halide to solid silver
grains
If an exposed radiograph is too dark after proper development, one should _____.
A. Place it back in the fixer
B. Place it back in the developer
C. Decrease development time
D. Increase milliamperage
E. Decrease exposure time
E. Decrease exposure time
NOTES:
Do not change development parameters if they are correct.
The radiolucent portions of the images on a
processed dental x-ray film are made up of _____.
A. Microscopic grains of silver halide
B. Microscopic grains of metallic silver
C. A gelatin on a cellulose acetate base
D. Unexposed silver bromide
B. Microscopic grains of metallic silver
The purpose of the “penny test” is to check _____.
A. Developer action
B. Fixer action
C. For proper development temperature
D. For proper safelighting conditions
D. For proper safelighting conditions
Proper radiographic infection control includes all of the following except _____.
A. Wearing gloves while making radiographs
B. Disinfecting x-ray machine surface
C. Covering working surfaces with barriers
D. Sterilizing nondisposable instruments
E. Sterilizing film packets
E. Sterilizing film packets❌
Occlusal radiographs are useful for all of the following except _____.
A. For views of the TMJ
B. For displaying large segments of the mandibular arch
C. When the patient has limited opening
D. When there are sialoliths in the floor of the
mouth
E. When there is buccal-lingual expansion of the mandible
A. For views of the TMJ❌
Inflammation is the local reaction of vascular
connective tissue to injury and your body’s frontline defense to fight bacterial invasion and trauma.
While swelling is the localized enlargement or distentation of an injured part of the body that may result from trauma due to extraction impacted 3rd molars. Which of the following best describes both statements?
A. Both statements are true
B. Second statement is true, first statement is
false
C. Both statements are false
D. First statement is true, second staterment is
false
B. Second statement is true, first statement is
false
While swelling is the localized enlargement or distentation of an injured part of the body that may result from trauma due to extraction impacted 3rd molars❌
NOTES:
Line of defenses
FIRST- intact skin, mucous membranes and their secretions, normal microbiota
SECOND- natural killer cells and phagocytic wbc, inflammation, fever, antimicrobial substances
THIRD- specialized lymphocytes: Tcells and Bcells and antibiodies
What is the classification of a maxillary impacted tooth that is above the occlusal plane but is below the cervical line?
A. Class A
B. Class I
C. Class C
D. Class B
D. Class B
NOTES:
Roman Numeral: I, II, III
- relationship of the 8s with the anterior border of the ramus
Letter: A,B,C
- relationship with the occlusal plane
In reference to the bone-implant interface,
which of the following yields the most predictable long-term stability?
A. Fibro-osseous integration
B. Osseointegration
C. Biointegration
D. Any of the above
B. Osseointegration
The following are indications of using “Figure of
8” suturing technique, EXCEPT _____.
A. coaptate wound margins
B. close adaptation of gingival papilla
C. keep blood clot in place
D. approximate extraction site as close as possible simulating primary intention healing
A. coaptate wound margins❌
The act of delivering tooth from the socket
once bony expansion is achieved:
A. extraction
B. dehiscence
C. tractional force
D. odontectomy
E. none of the above
A. extraction
Open technique of extraction is also known as:
A. simple forcep technique
B. flap technique
C. elevator technique
D. none of the above
B. flap technique
NOTES:
Closed: Simple or forceps technique
Open: Surgical or Flap techniques
Post-extraction bleeding in a leukemic patient is
due to
A. Increase in leukocytes
B. Low calcium level
C. Deficiency of clotting factors
D. Platelet disorder
D. Platelet disorder
NOTES:
LEUKOCYTOSIS- Increase in leukocytes
HYPOCALCEMIA- Low calcium level
HEMOPHILIA- Deficiency of clotting factors
THROMBOCYTOPENIA- Low platelet
THROMBOCYTOSIS- High platelet
Excisional biopsy should be employed on small lesions that on clinical examination appear benign and measuring about:
A. less than 1 cm in diameter
B. less than 1 mm in diameter
C. more than 1 cm in diameter
D. more than 1 mm in diameter
A. less than 1 cm in diameter
NOTES:
EXCISIONAL- <1cm ; removal of the entire lesion, 2mm of the normal tissue
INCISIONAL- >1cm ; only a portion of the lesion
The nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome includes multiple basal cell carcinomas, bone abnormalities, and which of the following?
A. Osteomas
B. Café-au-lait macules
C. Odontogenic keratocysts
D. Hypoplastic teeth
E. Lymphoma
C. Odontogenic keratocysts
NOTES:
Benign: -oma
Fibroma- cancer of fibrous tissue origin
Chondroma- neoplasm composed of chondrocytes
Adenoma- ducts/ glands
Papilloma- epithelium
Cystadenoma- ovary
Choristoma- misplaces within another organ
Hamartoma- overgrowth affected organ
Hemangioma- accumulation of blood vessel
Myxoma- connective tissue
Malignant: -sarcoma, -carsinoma
Fibrosarcoma- fibrous tissue
Chondrsarcoma- Cartilage
Osteosarcoma- bone
Leiomyosarcoma- smooty muscle
Rhabdosarcoma- skeletal (common in children)
Liposarcoma- addipose tissue
Leukemia or lymphoma- blood
Carcinoma- malignant neoplasm of epithelial cell
Adenocarcinoma- malignant neoplasm of epithelium of the gland
Sqamous cell carcinoma- skin, mouth, esophagus, vagina, bronchal epithelial
Transitional cell carcinoma- urninary bladder
EXCEPTION: Lymphoma and Melanoma: always malignant
Which of the following commonly used vasoconstrictors is most efficient when used with dental anesthetic solutions?
A. Nordefrin hydrochloride
B. Norepinephrine
C. Levonordefrin
D. Epinephrine
D. Epinephrine
A tooth that is tender to percussion indicates
that
A. the pulp is necrotic
B. the periodontal ligament is inflamed
C. condensing osteitis is present
D. the pulp is vital
B. the periodontal ligament is inflamed
NOTES:
Thermal tests- Vitality
Reversible Pulpitis- (+) cold
Irreversible Pulpitis - (+) cold, (+) hot
Palpation- presence of pus
Acute Apical abscess- (+) palpation
Percussion- Periodontal ligament
Symptomatic Apical Periodontitis- (+) percussion test
Except: Asymptomtic, Chronic, Necrotic
Asymptomtic Apical Periodontitis
- percussion with slight discomfort
Chronic Apical Periodontitis
-mobility
Chronic Apical Abcess
- gum boil
Nectotic Pulp
- gray-black in color
On the way out of your dental chair, the patient
gets up too fast, feels dizzy, and falls chin first onto your tiled operatory floor. Suspecting bilateral subcondylar fractures, which of the following projections would best allow for this examination?
A. Waters projection
B. Transcranial projection
C. Townes projection
D. Submentovertex projection
C. Townes projection
NOTES:
Waters projection- sinus
Transcranial projection- TMJ
Townes projection- interior of the skull, status of the condyles
Submentovertex projection- zygoma, zygmatic arches and mandible
What physical type of lesion is characterized by
small loculation of cloudy or white fluid, the color resulting from polymorphonuclear leukocytes?
A. Nodule
B. Macule
C. Papule
D. Pustule
D. Pustule
NOTES:
Nodule- elevated palpable solid mass that extends deeper into the dermis
Macule- flat area of color change (no elevation or depression)
Papule- solid elevation less than 0.5 cm in diameter
Pustule- vesicle rilled with pus/ bulla
All of the following characteristically present
under the age of 20 except _____.
A. Traumatic bone cyst
B. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
C. Ameloblastic fibroma
D. Compound odontoma
E. Ameloblastoma
E. Ameloblastoma❌
NOTES:
The mean age for ameloblastoma is 40 years old and above
Oral and genital lesions are seen in patients
with which of the following diseases?
A. Behçet’s syndrome
B. Peutz–Jegher’s syndrome
C. Herpangina
D. Wegener’s granulomatosis
E. Hairy leukoplakia
A. Behçet’s syndrome
A 32-year-old male patient presented with a 1 ¥
2-cm macular red-blue lesion in his hard palate.
The lesion was asymptomatic and had been
present for an unknown duration. He had no dental abnormalities and no significant periodontal disease. This could be all the following except _____.
A. Vascular malformation
B. Nicotine stomatitis
C. Ecchymosis
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
E. Erythroplasia
B. Nicotine stomatitis
NOTES:
Ecchymosis- due to trauma
Kaposi’s sarcoma- HSV8 can cause lots of other symptoms (KAPOS8)
Erythroplasia- lesion that bleeds easily upon scraping
Median rhomboid glossitis is an area typically
demonstrating
A. atrophic fungiform papilla of the tongue
B. failure of the tuberculum impar to obliterate
during odontogenesis
C. atrophic filiform papilla of the tongue
D. inflammation of the tongue
B. failure of the tuberculum impar to obliterate
during odontogenesis
atrophic fungiform papilla of the tongue- anterior or tip of the tongue
atrophic filiform papilla of the tongue- anterior 2/3 of the tongue
Deterministic effects are those that _____.
A. Show a severity of response proportional to
dose
B. Are seen only in the oral cavity
C. Are found following exposure to low levels
of radiation
D. Result from particulate radiation such as
alpha and beta particles, but not x-rays
E. None of the above
A. Show a severity of response proportional to
dose
In the radiolysis of water, _____.
A. Free radicals are formed which are
nonreactive
B. The presence of dissolved O2 reduces the
number of free radicals
C. The formation of free radicals is the “direct effect”
D. The resultant free radicals may alter
biological molecules
E. Two of the above
C. The formation of free radicals is the “direct effect”
The radiosensitivity of cells depends upon _____.
A. Mitotic future
B. Mitotic activity
C. Degree of differentiation
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
D. All of the above
Rectangular collimation is recommended because it _____.
A. Deflects scatter radiation
B. Decreases patient dose
C. Increases film density
D. Increases film contrast
B. Decreases patient dose
_______ is used to restrict the size and shape of the x-ray beam and to reduce patient exposure?
A. Discrimination
B. Collimation
C. Filtration
D. Barrier placement
B. Collimation
A disease characterized by punched out ulceration with a gray pseudomembrane and fetid odor.
A. ANUG
B. Gingivitis
C. acute periodontitis
D. Desquamative gingivitis
A. ANUG
