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Health Assessment > Test 5 > Flashcards

Test 5 Flashcards

1
Q

The male urethra is _____ and protected from secretions and stool.

A

Long

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2
Q

_____ surrounds the urethra and hypertrophies as men gets older

A

Prostate

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3
Q

Prostate will narrow the _____ ______ and patient will likely end up with urinary retention and incontinence

A

urethral canal

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4
Q

With prostate enlargement, urinary frequency may ______ and volume can be ______mL or less due to blockage.

A

increase; 100

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5
Q

Which gender is more prone to UTIs and why?

A

Women due to the shorter urethra

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6
Q

Prepuce clitoris is equivalent to what?

A

Foreskin in males

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7
Q

Part of vagina that is made up of epidermis and hair

A

Labia majora

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8
Q

Part of vagina that has characteristics of MM (thinner skin and darker colors)

A

Labia minora

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9
Q

Glands found in the female vagina that promote lubrication

A

Bartholin’s glands

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10
Q

True or False: Bartholin’s gland cysts are very common and recognizable

A

True

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11
Q

Expected findings of vagina

A

Skin intact; mucous membranes are moist and uniform in colors with no lesions

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12
Q

Skin color of penis should be

A

Uniform and appropriate to race/ethnicity

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13
Q

True or False: Smegma is an abnormal finding on a penis assessment

A

False; it is a naturally secreted lubricant which is a normal finding

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14
Q

What is prepuce?

A

Foreskin

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15
Q

Urethra meatus should be located where on a penis?

A

The center of glans

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16
Q

Where is the scrotum located?

A

Behind the penis

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17
Q

Which teste is larger out of the two?

A

Left

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18
Q

What can the testes do in response to termperature?

A

Retract

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19
Q

True or False: The penis can retract as a defense mechanism

A

True

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20
Q

What are the normal findings for the anus?

A

Tight closure, skin around anus is moist and darkened (appropriate for ethnicity), hair may be present

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21
Q

What are abnormal findings for the anus?

A

Bleeding, redness, inflammation, lesions, fissures, or hemorrhoids

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22
Q

A tear in the rectum or anus usually caused from mechanical trauma

A

Fissure

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23
Q

A swollen, dilated vein in the anus that is often caused by increased abdominal pressure

A

Hemorrhoid

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24
Q

How are hemorrhoids treated?

A

With comfort meds and steroid creams

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25
Q

How are Fissures treated?

A

Stool softeners and increased fluids

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26
Q

What is the medical term for a bladder infection?

A

Cystitis

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27
Q

Signs and Symptoms of Cystitis include:

A

Frequency, IBE, suprapubic pain/discomfort, cloudy urine (from WBCs), malodorous urine

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28
Q

What can cause genital yeast infection?

A
  • Increased blood sugars
  • Decreased Immune System
  • Taking Antibiotics
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29
Q

What are signs and symptoms of yeast infection?

A
  • Itching
  • Pain
  • Fissures (advanced form)
  • Red, Flake, Red Papules
  • Mass of Papules (Plaque)
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30
Q

Inflammation or infection of the rectal mucosa

A

Proctitis

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31
Q

Number one sign of proctitis

A

Pain

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32
Q

What causes proctitis?

A
  • Chronic constipation

- STDs (Chlamydia, Syphilis, and sometimes Gonorrhea)

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33
Q

How much does the anal mucosa measuring before joining the rectum?

A

2-5 cm (internally)

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34
Q

What is Type I of FGM (Female Genital Mutilation)?

A

Removal of the clitoris or clitoral hood

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35
Q

What is Type II of FGM (Female Genital Mutilation)?

A

Removal of clitoris and labia minora

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36
Q

What is Type III of FGM (Female Genital Mutilation)?

A

Narrowing of a vaginal opening with a covering seal (infibulation)

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37
Q

What is Type IV of FGM (Female Genital Mutilation)?

A

Any nonmedical procedure; pricking, piercing, incising, scraping, cauterizing

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38
Q

What is the most common STD in young adults?

A

Chlamydia

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39
Q

What is one of the key nursing goals in pediatrics to reduce traumatization?

A

Prevent/minimize separation

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40
Q

Name 5 nursing interventions used in pediatrics

A
  1. Utilizing comfort positions
  2. Comfort holds
  3. Therapeutic hugging
  4. Distraction methods
  5. Utilizing autonomy
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41
Q

What do infants/toddlers like to do when having an assessment performed?

A

Sit on parent’s lap

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42
Q

Preschoolers may want to inspect _______ prior to a medical procedure

A

equipment

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43
Q

Adolescents and teens prefer ______ during an assessment

A

Privacy

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44
Q

With younger teens, questions should be directed to who?

A

The parent or caregiver

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45
Q

With older teens, questions should be directed to who?

A

The teen

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46
Q

Which age group should invasive procedures be performed last?

A

Infants, Toddlers, Preschoolers

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47
Q

At what point of the exam on a teen, should the genitalia be exposed?

A

Last (provide privacy!!!)

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48
Q

Increase in physical size

A

Growth

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49
Q

Sequential process of skill attainment

A

Development

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50
Q

Increased functionality of body systems or developmental skills

A

Maturation

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51
Q
  • Compares children to other children of the same age and gender
  • Normal genetic variation
  • Sudden sustained changes require further investigation
A

Growth charts

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52
Q

What three things are plotted on a growth chart?

A
  • Height
  • Length
  • Weight
  • FOC (Frontal head circumference)
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53
Q

When should infants weight double?

A

By 4-6 months after birth

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54
Q

When should infants weight triple?

A

By 12 months

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55
Q

When should infants weight quadrupule?

A

By 4 years

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56
Q

How much weight should toddlers gain a year?

A

3-5 lbs

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57
Q

How many inches should a toddler grow per year?

A

3 inches

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58
Q

When does the anterior fontanel close?

A

9- 18 months

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59
Q

At what age is the head size proportional to the rest of the body?

A

3 years

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60
Q

What is the average weight of a preschooler (4 yrs old)?

A

41 lbs

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61
Q

How much weight should a preschooler gain each year?

A

4-5 lbs

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62
Q

At what point in school are girls and boys around the same height and weight?

A

Early school age

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63
Q

During later school age years, which gender is usually taller and weighs more?

A

Girls

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64
Q

What age does puberty begin in boys?

A

10-11

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65
Q

What age does puberty begin in girls?

A

9-10

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66
Q

What age does rapid physical growth take place second to infancy?

A

Adolescence

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67
Q

What does the patient demographics for a peds patient include?

A
  • child’s name
  • nickname
  • language child speaks
  • birthdate
  • gender
68
Q

What is the chief complaint of a health history?

A

The general idea/reason that made the child come into the office today

69
Q

Why is it important to look over family medical history for a pediatric patient?

A

Can predispose the child to health conditions

70
Q

What is the functional history of a health history?

A

Asks about daily routines

71
Q

What does the peds health history help assess

A
  • If child is on track with milestones
  • Functional history
  • Daily routines
  • Family composition, resources, health insurance, and home environment
72
Q

Steps to a Complete Physical Health Assessment for a Peds Patient

A
  1. Measure (Weight, length, head circum, vital signs)
  2. Take General Survey
  3. Physical Assessment
73
Q

How long should respirations be counted for in a child <1 years old?

A

1 full min

74
Q

How long should respirations be counted for in a child >1 years old?

A

30 seconds

75
Q

What is LOC?

A

Level of Consciousness (Alert, Oriented, Ect)

76
Q

When does the posterior fontanel close?

A

By 2 months of age

77
Q

Peds patient will have abdominal respirations until what age?

A

7 years old

78
Q

Peds patients will have ______ respirations > 7 years old.

A

Thoracic

79
Q

PMI can be located here up until the age of 4

A

Left 3-4 ICS (medial of MCL)

80
Q

PMI can be located here between ages 4-6

A

Left 4 ICS (MCL)

81
Q

PMI can be located here at ages 7 and up

A

Left 5 ICS (MCL)

82
Q

True or False: Sinus arrhythmias in an infant are normal

A

True

83
Q

Apical pulse should be counted on a child less than 10 years old for how long?

A

1 full minute

84
Q

What factors influence pediatric pain?

A
  • Age
  • Cognitive ability
  • Previous pain experience
  • Situational factors
  • Gender
  • Temperament
  • Family and cultural background
85
Q

What age group should the Wong-Baker FACES scale be used?

A

Ages 3+

86
Q

What age group should the Oucher pain rating scale be used?

A

Ages 3+ (must know number values)

*These pictures include photos of children

87
Q

What age group should the Poker Chip tool be used?

A

Ages 3+

Uses 1-4 poker chips to describe pain

88
Q

What age group should the Visual analog scale be used?

A

Ages 5+

89
Q

What age group should the Numerical Scale be used?

A

Ages 5+

Usually 8+ understand numerical order

90
Q

What age group should the Adolescent Pediatric Pain tool be used?

A

Ages 8-15

Measures pain location, intensity, and quality

91
Q

What is the most appropriate pain assessment tool for adolescents?

A

Numeric Pain Scale

92
Q

What must be used when discussing pain with pediatric patients?

A

Appropriate Language (Ex: toddlers may say “owie,” preschoolers may need coaxed to talk about pain, teens may need educated on pain)

93
Q

What scale is used for Neonates postoperative pain assessment?

A

CRIES scale

94
Q

What behavioral scale is used for Young Children in postoperative pain?

A

FLACC scale

95
Q

What behavioral scale can be used in children with cognitive delays?

A

FLACC scale

96
Q

What does QUESTT stand for?

A 
Question
Use reliable and valid pain scale
Evaluate behavior and physiological changes
Secure parent's involvement
Take cause of pain into account
Take action
97
Q

What must be monitored when narcotics are administered?

A

Respirations

98
Q

Where is skin turgor assessed on an infant?

A

Abdomen

99
Q

What are signs of increased work of breathing in a pediatric patient?

A
  • Retractions
  • Nasal flaring
  • Grunting
100
Q

What is the normal RR for an infant?

A

30-53

101
Q

What is the normal RR for a toddler?

A

22-37

102
Q

What is the normal RR for a preschooler?

A

20-28

103
Q

What is the normal RR for a school aged kid?

A

18-25

104
Q

What is the normal RR for an adolescent?

A

12-20

105
Q

What is the normal HR for a neonate?

A

100-205

106
Q

What is the normal HR for an infant?

A

100-180

107
Q

What is the normal HR for a toddler?

A

98-140

108
Q

What is the normal HR for a preschooler?

A

80-120

109
Q

What is the normal HR for a school aged child?

A

75-118

110
Q

What is the normal HR for an adolescent?

A

60-100

111
Q

What is the normal systolic rate for a newborn less than 12 hours old?

A

39-59

112
Q

What is the normal systolic rate for a newborn more than 12 hours old?

A

60-76

113
Q

What is the normal systolic rate for a neonate?

A

67-84

114
Q

What is the normal systolic rate for an infant?

A

72-104

115
Q

What is the normal systolic rate for a toddler?

A

86-106

116
Q

What is the normal systolic rate for a preschooler?

A

89-112

117
Q

What is the normal systolic rate for a school aged child?

A

97-115

118
Q

What is the normal systolic rate for a preadolescent?

A

102-120

119
Q

What is the normal systolic rate for an adolescent?

A

110-131

120
Q

What is the normal diastolic rate for a newborn less than 12 hours old?

A

16-36

121
Q

What is the normal diastolic rate for a newborn more than 12 hours old?

A

31-45

122
Q

What is the normal diastolic rate for a neonate?

A

35-53

123
Q

What is the normal diastolic rate for an infant?

A

37-56

124
Q

What is the normal diastolic rate for a toddler?

A

42-63

125
Q

What is the normal diastolic rate for a preschooler?

A

46-72

126
Q

What is the normal diastolic rate for a school aged child?

A

57-76

127
Q

What is the normal diastolic rate for a preadolescent?

A

61-80

128
Q

What is the normal diastolic rate for an adolescent?

A

64-83

129
Q

What is the final Erikson’s stage?

A

Ego Integrity Vs Despair

130
Q

What was the life expectancy for men and women in 1950?

A

Men-65

Women-71

131
Q

What is the average life expectancy for men and women today?

A

Men-75

Women-81

132
Q

What are the four stages of Cohen’s Theory of Adult Development?

A
  1. Midlife reevaluation (mid 30s-mid 60s)
  2. Liberation (mid 50s-mid 70s)
  3. Summing up (Late 60s to 80s)
  4. Encore (Late 70s to end of life)
133
Q

True or False: There is a clear reason as to why human systems break down or deteriorate

A

False

134
Q

What are the four things Snyder from Stanford theorized about about ageotypes?

A
  1. Metabolic (ie: diabetes)
  2. Hepatic (ie: fatty liver disease)
  3. Immunological (ie: autoimmune)
  4. Nephrotic (ie: kidney disease)
135
Q

Normal findings in an aged older individual?

A
  • skin is thinner
  • they may be more “cold”
  • wrinkles
  • wounds heal more slowly
  • easier to bruise
  • thinning hair
  • facial hair unruly
136
Q

What are acrochordan and where are they found?

A

Skin tags; intertriginous

137
Q

What is solar lentigo?

A

Liver spots; hyperpigmented macules

138
Q

Cherry hemangiomas

A

pinpoint red spots

139
Q

Seborrheic keratosis

A

pigmented, waxy raised lesions; light tan to dark brown in color

140
Q

Senile purpura

A

Ruptured fragile arteries; bruising of skin

141
Q

Why do bones get weaker in aging?

A

Osteoclast activity more prominent than osteoblastic activity

142
Q

What happens to muscles in aging?

A

Atrophy

143
Q

What happens to joints in aging?

A

Stiffen

144
Q

What part of femur is prone to fractures?

A

The neck

145
Q

What bones of the body are especially prone to fractures in the elderly?

A

Radius, ulna, vertebrae, femur

146
Q

True or False: Disorientation, confusion, and forgetfulness are all normal parts of aging

A

False

147
Q

What are the 3 D’s of neurological in aging patients?

A
  1. Dementia
  2. Delirium
  3. Depression
148
Q

What happens to the brain in aging?

A

Loses weight; gets smaller

149
Q

What happens in the cardiovascular system of elderly people?

A
  • Blood pressure increases
  • Higher pulse pressure
  • Arteries stiffen
150
Q

What is the most common cardiovascular condition in the elderly population?

A

Atrial fibrillation

151
Q

Frequency of heart attacks ______ with age

A

Increase

152
Q

Why do older people have a higher risk of developing pneumonia?

A

Shallower breaths; MSK changes

153
Q

What is called the “old man’s friend?”

A

Pneumonia

154
Q

How does thirst effect the elderly?

A

Decreased thirst=more increased mucus

Chance for aspiration or pneumonia

155
Q

Decreased _______ result in increased falls in the elderly

A

reflexes

156
Q

What happens to neural cells in the CNS in the aging population?

A

They decrease

157
Q

What cardiac conditions increase in the elderly population?

A
  • Higher blood pressure
  • Atrial fibrillation
  • Heart failure
  • Peripheral vascular disease (PAD)
158
Q

What are GI changes in the elderly population?

A
  • decrease peristalsis
  • decrease nutrient absorption
  • increased constipation
  • abdomen greater fat deposition
  • pernicious anemia
  • food intolerances
159
Q

When we get older, liver function decreases which results in:

A
  1. poor absorption of medications

2. poor detox of blood

160
Q

Signs and symptoms of frailty:

A
  • increased fatigue
  • unexplained weight loss, muscle wasting
  • balance and gait impairments
  • frequency of infections
  • daily changes of ADLs
161
Q

Snyder’s ageotype states if one declines, what happens to the others?

A

They decline as well

162
Q

All adults need a functional assessment when?

A

after serious illness or disability

163
Q

What are the ADLs?

A
  • toileting
  • bathing
  • eating
  • moving in the environment
164
Q

What are I-ADLs?

A
  • driving
  • shopping
  • balancing a checkbook
  • cleaning
  • lawncare
165
Q

How many seconds does a person need to complete the get up and go test?

A

10 seconds

Health Assessment (7 decks)

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