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Health Assessment > Test 2 Review > Flashcards

Test 2 Review Flashcards

1
Q

What skeleton is compose of the head, vertebrae, ribs and sternum?

A

Axial

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2
Q

What skeleton is compose of the upper and lower limbs, pelvis, clavicles, and scapulae?

A

Appendicular

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3
Q

Involuntary movement that happens from a response

A

Reflex

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4
Q

Movement within the skeletal system is typically ________

A

Voluntary

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5
Q

What is the outermost layer of bone?

A

Compact bone

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6
Q

What is the innermost layer of bone?

A

Trabecular bone

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7
Q

What bone is more loosely packed and more porous?

A

Trabecular bone

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8
Q

What bone is dense and compactly packed?

A

Compact bone

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9
Q

What are the cells that build bone called?

A

Osteoblasts

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10
Q

What are the cells that remove and remodel bone called?

A

Osteoclasts

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11
Q

What are involved in the production of bone marrow and blood cells?

A

Long bones

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12
Q

What bones allow motion to occur in more than one place?

A

Irregular/short bones

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13
Q

Name 5 short bones

A
  • talus
  • navicular
  • cuboid
  • phalanx
  • metacarpals
  • calcaneus
  • cuneiform
  • metatarsals
  • carpals
  • phalanges
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14
Q

What is two or more bones coming together called?

A

A joint

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15
Q

What is stabilized by ligaments?

A

A joint

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16
Q

A joint capsule that keeps the fluid in the joint

A

Synovial

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17
Q

No fluid within the joint

A

Nonsynovial

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18
Q

What type of joint is irregular and flat; found primarily in the skull?

A

Fused

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19
Q

What type of joint is found in the shoulder and hip?

A

Ball and socket joint

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20
Q

What types of joints are found in the elbow, finger, knees, and toes?

A

Hinge joints

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21
Q

What type of joint is found in the wrists, ankles, hands, and feet?

A

Gliding joints

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22
Q

What type of joint is primarily found in the vertebrae?

A

Plane

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23
Q

What joint it is found primarily in the wrists?

A

Condyloid

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24
Q

How many bones are in the vertebrae?

A

33 bones

12-thoracic; 7-cervical; 5-lumbar; 5-sacral; 1-coccyx

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25
Q

How many muscles are in the human body?

A

Over 600

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26
Q

Protects bones and helps circulate blood throughout the body.

A

Muscles

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27
Q

Type of muscle that is involuntarily controlled and self-contracting.

A

Cardiac

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28
Q

What type of muscle is responsible for contractile type of hollow organs?

A

Smooth muscle

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29
Q

What type of muscle is voluntarily controlled by the somatic nervous system?

A

Skeletal muscle

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30
Q

What type of joint movement is movement away from the midline?

A

Abduction

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31
Q

What type of joint movement is movement towards the midline?

A

Adduction

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32
Q

What type of joint movement is rotational movement away from the anatomical neutral?

A

Pronation

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33
Q

What type of joint movement is rotational movement toward the anatomical neutral?

A

Supination

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34
Q

What type of joint movement is moving away from the midline of the body?

A

Eversion

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35
Q

What type of joint movement is moving toward the midline of the body?

A

Inversion

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36
Q

What type of joint movement is the upward flexion of the foot?

A

Dorsiflexion

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37
Q

What type of joint movement is downward flexion of the foot?

A

Plantar flexion

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38
Q

What type of joint movement is moving toward the body?

A

Flexion

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39
Q

What type of joint movement is moving away from the body?

A

Extension

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40
Q

What type of joint movement is movement that raises a body part in its plant (ex: shoulder shrug)?

A

Elevation

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41
Q

What allows for the attachment of muscle to bone?

A

Tendon

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42
Q

What is injury to a tendon called?

A

Strain

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43
Q

What attaches bone to bone?

A

Ligament

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44
Q

What is injury to a ligament called?

A

Sprain

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45
Q

What are the 5 P’s?

A
  • Pain
  • Paralysis
  • Paresthesia
  • Pallor
  • Pulselessness
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46
Q

What is the sequence of assessments for musculoskeletal assessment?

A
  1. Inspection
  2. Palpation
  3. Assessing ROM
  4. Assessing strength
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47
Q

Patient’s ability to ambulat

A

Gait

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48
Q

The type of gait where the leg swings across the midline; seen in cerebral palsy.

A

Scissor gait

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49
Q

The type of gait seen in Parkinson’s disease

A

Shuffling gait

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50
Q

What type of muscle is striated?

A

Voluntary (skeletal)

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51
Q

What are the components of the central nervous system (CNS)?

A

The brain and spine

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52
Q

What are the components of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

A

Cranial nerves, spinal nerves, and peripheral nerves

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53
Q

What are components of the autonomic system?

A

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic (Vagus Nerve-Cranial to Body)

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54
Q

What do sensory nerves innervate?

A

Dermatomes

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55
Q

What do motor nerves innervate?

A

Myotomes

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56
Q

Which bones build red marrow which builds red blood cell production?

A

Long bones and flat bones

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57
Q

What is the purpose of skeletal muscles?

A

Movement, posture, and generate heat

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58
Q

What is the purpose of involuntary muscles?

A

Respiration, digestion, urination, birth, ect.

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59
Q

What is the best way to determine how a joint should move?

A

Move your own

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60
Q

The communication between the periphery of the body and the brain.

A

Spinal nerves

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61
Q

What coordinates activities of the organs and glands with the center of the brain?

A

Autonomic function

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62
Q

What balances the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems?

A

The feedback loop

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63
Q

Arc through the spinal cord for a faster reaction to protect extremities?

A

Deep tendon reflex

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64
Q

What is the normal stride length?

A

1.5 m

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65
Q

What is normal gait characterized by?

A

Alternate steps and contra lateral arm swing

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66
Q

What causes a limp?

A

Muscle weakened, joint stiffness, injury, or chronic malformation

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67
Q

What is neurologically generated unsteady gait?

A

Ataxia

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68
Q

In a normal posture, the spine should be _____.

A

Straight

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69
Q

What is the lateral curve of the spine called?

A

Scoliosis

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70
Q

What is the exaggerated curve of the lower back called?

A

Lordosis

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71
Q

What is the upper back spine forward and head tilted up called?

A

Kyphosis

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72
Q

What causes kyphosis?

A

Old age and osteoporosis

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73
Q

What in the spine with palpation may indicate injury, inflammation, or displaced vertebrae?

A

Tenderness

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74
Q

What is the muscle strength grading scale?

A

0- no muscle; no twitch
1- muscle twitch; slight movement
2- muscle contracts/expensed when weight of joint is supported
3-move against gravity
4- move against some resistance through entire range
5- move against full resistance

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75
Q

What are autonomic functions of the PNS?

A

Heart rate, respirations, bowel motility, urinary bladder function

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76
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is what kind of genetic disorder?

A

X linked

77
Q

Give an example of a familial nerve disorder

A

Amotropic lateral sclerosis

78
Q

What is the thin layer of stratus, corneum and melanocytes called?

A

Epidermis

79
Q

What is the majority of skin; often shiny and pink?

A

Dermis

80
Q

What is the conduit for circulation, nerves and glands?

A

Subcutaneous tissue

81
Q

What is the intertriginous area?

A

The area where skins rubs together (axilla and genital areas)

82
Q

What three things are important to know when assessing skin?

A
  • Color
  • Temperature
  • Texture
83
Q

Where are two of the BEST indications for vascularity in the skin?

A

Eyes and mouth

84
Q

Pallor

A

White

85
Q

Cyanosis

A

Blue (due to low oxygen; hypoxia)

86
Q

Jaundice

A

Yellow

87
Q

Where can jaundice best be seen?

A

In the sclera of the eye or hard palate of the mouth

88
Q

How should temperature be taken?

A

Back of fingers

89
Q

_________ is better than terminology

A

Descriptor

90
Q

Primary lesions are what kind of changes?

A

Changes within a person

91
Q

Reactions to the external or internal environment?

A

Primary lesions

92
Q

A flat, nonpalpable lesion that is usually red, brown, or white in color?

A

Macule

93
Q

A normal macule should be how large?

A

Less than 0.5 cm

94
Q

A bunch of macules that have joined together (visible but not palpable)

A

Patch

95
Q

A patch should be how large?

A

Greater than 1 cm

96
Q

A solid, elevated lesion that has a rough texture (ex: a mole)

A

Papule

97
Q

A papule should be how large?

A

No bigger than 0.5 cm

98
Q

Multiple papules closely grouped together is called

A

Plaque

99
Q

A rash of bumps that are surrounded by macules (usually inflammed and can be minor/major)

A

Maculopapular rash

100
Q

A raised lesion filled with blood or fluid

A

Vesicle

101
Q

How large should a vesicle be?

A

No bigger than 0.5 cm

102
Q

What is a very large blister referred to as?

A

Bola

103
Q

A very small lesion that is filled with pus, often due to an infection?

A

Pustule

104
Q

A pustule should be how large?

A

No bigger than 0.5 cm

105
Q

A larger, elevated/encapsulated lesion that is deeper in the tissue and has a thicker layer of skin covering it

A

Cyst

106
Q

A cyst should be how large?

A

Bigger than 1 cm

107
Q

A small solid mass

A

Nodule

108
Q

How large should a nodule be?

A

Less than 0.5 cm

109
Q

Large solid mass than can be malignant or benign?

A

Tumor

110
Q

How large should a tumor be?

A

Bigger than 1 cm

111
Q

What type of rash is associated with an allergic reaction?

A

Wheals

112
Q

Puritis

A

Severe itching

113
Q

Occurs when the skin is already affected by a primary lesion?

A

Secondary lesion

114
Q

A hollow crusted area where the epidermis is los and the dermis is exposed; caused by friction (scratching)

A

Excoriation

115
Q

Moist, shiny, usually red depressed area where the epidermis is usually worn away by the infection (usually a fungus)- there may be itching and pain associated with it

A

Erosion

116
Q

The skin begins to wrinkle and lose its color due to hyper hydration due to water exposure (happens when the moisture is trapped against the skin—think a bandaid!)

A

Maceration

117
Q

What is a mole referred to as?

A

Nevi (Nevus)

118
Q

What is the normal color variation for a mole?

A

Red, brown, black

119
Q

How many nevi (moles) do people commonly have on their bodies?

A

10-40

120
Q

What is the mnemonic to evaluate a mole?

A

ABCDE

121
Q

What is the ABCDE mnemonic?

A 
A-Asymmetry 
B-Borders
C-Color
D-Diameter
E-Evolving (Elevation)
122
Q

Moles should be what size?

A

Less than 6 mm

123
Q

Fine hair that covers the body

A

Vellus

124
Q

Thick, pigmented hair that can be found on the scalp, axillae or pubic area

A

Terminal area

125
Q

Terminal hair is controlled by

A

Hormones

126
Q

______ hair can turn to _____ hair.

A

Vellus; Terminal

127
Q

Hair does not grow where?

A

Mucous membranes or behind the ears or soles of hands or feet

128
Q

Familial trait of hair loss from scalp

A

Male patterned baldness

129
Q

Hair Loss

A

Alopecia

130
Q

Hair loss in patches secondary to an autoimmune disease

A

Alopecia arrested

131
Q

Loss of all hair on the body

A

Alopecia Universalis

132
Q

Hormonal determined male-patterned hair grown in women; excess androgens

A

Hirsutism

133
Q

What are the primary techniques to assess nails?

A

Inspection and palpation

134
Q

Red, swollen, and tender tissue surrounding the nail

A

Paronychia

135
Q

Yellow, thickened rough-textured nails usually r/t fungus

A

Onchomyosis

136
Q

A condition in the nails typically related to vascular disease, diabetes, or old age

A

Onchomyosis

137
Q

What are the systems in the peripheral vascular assessment?

A
  1. Arterial
  2. Venous
  3. Lymphatic
138
Q

What system carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body?

A

Arterial

139
Q

The arterial system consists of how many layers?

A

3

140
Q

What are three ways the arterial system can be assessed?

A
  1. Temperature of skin
  2. Locating/Grading of pulses
  3. Measuring blanching/capillary refill
141
Q

Assess the temporal pulse for ________

A

Temperature

142
Q

Asses the carotid to assess ________

A

Circulation to the brain

143
Q

Assess the brachial pulse for _______

A

Blood pressure

144
Q

Assess the radial pulse for ________

A

Heart rate

145
Q

Assess the ulnar pulse for ________

A

Perfusion of the hand if the radial is occluded

146
Q

The femoral artery is used for _______

A

Large artery cannulation during emergencies

147
Q

The popliteal artery is used for ______

A

Blood pressure in the thigh

148
Q

What is the scale used to grade a pulse?

A

0-3

0: absent
1: weak
2: normal
3. Bounding

149
Q

What is the most common grade of the pulse?

A

2+

150
Q

The amount of time it takes for the blood to refill in the capillary bed after gentle pressure pushes all the blood out

A

Capillary refill

151
Q

What is the expected capillary refill time

A

Less than 3 seconds

152
Q

Where is the capillary refill performed on?

A

Fingernails or toenails

153
Q

Measures the same thing as capillary refill except not on a fingernail or toenail.

A

Blanching

154
Q

What is blanching useful for?

A
  • Checking perfusion of the tissues

- Determining if an area is temporarily inflammed or pressure wound

155
Q

What happens to the skin with poor arterial circulation?

A
  • thinner
  • more translucent
  • shiny
156
Q

What happens to the hair in poor arterial circulation?

A
  • scarce

- absent

157
Q

What happens to the nails in poor arterial circulation?

A
  • discolored
  • misshaped
  • thickened
158
Q

Carries deoxygenated blood from the arterial capillary beds back to the central circulation

A

Veins

159
Q

Which vein carries oxygenated blood?

A

Pulmonary vein

160
Q

Larger veins have ______

A

Valves

161
Q

True or False: Smaller veins called venules have valves.

A

False

162
Q

Contraction of what muscles help move venous blood against gravity out of the lower extremities?

A

Leg and thigh skeletal muscles

163
Q

Directly accepts the venous return from the arms, head, neck, and upper trunk.

A

Right atrium of the heart

164
Q

Accepts the venous return from the lower extremities and lower trunk and then to the right atrium?

A

Inferior vena cava

165
Q

How many valves are in the inferior vena cava?

A

None

166
Q

What skin changes a occur due to poor venous circulation?

A
  • discolored purple or brown
  • itching
  • pinpoint scars
167
Q

Skin changes with venous insufficiency are related to:

A

Stasis of the blood

168
Q

What happens to the hair due to venous insufficiency?

A

Hair growth is normal

169
Q

What happens with the nails due to venous insufficiency?

A
  • thickened

- discolored

170
Q

What is common in the lower extremities with venous insufficiency?

A

Edema or fluid accumulation

171
Q

What does the lymphatic system consist of?

A
  • Lymphatic vessels

- Lymph nodes

172
Q

What carries lymph?

A

Lymphatic vessels

173
Q

What is responsible for the lymphocyte production to clean up bacteria in the blood stream and interstitial tissue?

A

Lymph nodes

174
Q

What are the same structure as veins?

A

Lymph vessels

175
Q

_________ capillaries are intertwined around venous and arterial capillaries.

A

Lymphatic

176
Q

Picks up excess fluid and protein molecules from subcutaneous tissue

A

Lymph capillaries

177
Q

This duct drains:

  • the right side of the head and neck
  • right arm
  • right side of thorax
  • right lung and pleura
  • right side of heart
  • right upper section of the liver
A

Right lymphatic duct

178
Q

This duct drains:

-the rest of the head, neck, torso, left arm, and lower extremities into the left subclavian vein

A

Thoracic duct

179
Q

The right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct both dump where?

A

Into a subclavian vein

180
Q

Where is lymphatic tissue found? (Name 5)

A
  • thorax
  • thymus
  • abdomen
  • bone marrow
  • pharynx
  • appendix
  • tonsils
  • spleen
  • adenoids
  • Peyer’s patches
181
Q

What is a normal result for assessment of the lymphatic system?

A

Nothing found

182
Q

If a lymph node is found, what are its limits?

A

Less than 1 cm
Soft
Mobile

183
Q

Nodes larger than 1 cm, should be assessed after how long?

A

1 month

184
Q

Edema in the dependent parts of the body is typically an indication of what problem?

A

Lymphatic

185
Q

Unilateral edema is usually caused by what?

A

Thrombosis

186
Q

How is edema graded?

A

How deep of a dent left in the tissue and how long the dent lasts

187
Q

What is the grading scale for edema?

A

1- 2 mm of pitting that disappears rapidly
2-4 mm of pitting that disappears within 10-15 seconds
3- 6 mm of depression that lasts more than 1 min
4- 8 mm of depression that lasts 2-3 min

188
Q

What are 3 reasons for severe lymph edema?

A
  • Heart failure
  • Reaction to chemo/radiation
  • Inflammation due to cellulitis

Health Assessment (7 decks)

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