Test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What anatomical line cuts the chest in half?

A

Midsternal line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the equal distance from the midsternal as it is to the shoulder on the other side?

A

Midclavicular line (MCL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Gives access to organs that are not accessible on the front or back?

A

Axillary lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What axillary line runs right down the middle of the armpit?

A

Midaxillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What axillary line is where the chest and the axilla meet?

A

Anterior axillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What axillary line is where the back and axilla meet?

A

Posterior axillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where does the vertical abdominal line run through?

A

The umbilical (separates left from right)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where does the horizontal abdominal line run through

A

Halfway between the pubic and upper portion of the abdomen (separates upper from lower)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The sternal notch, manubrium, Angle of Louis, Xyphoid process, ribs, ICS, and lower border of anterior ribs all lie within what part of the body?

A

Anterior thorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The C7 process, borders of the scapula, and lower border of posterior ribs all lie within what part of the body?

A

Posterior thorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The anterior superior iliac spine, pubic bone, and interior border of ribs all lie within what part of the body?

A

Abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What cervical process creates the bulge in the back of the neck?

A

C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What rib is usually a genetic trait?

A

13th rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the joint of the manubrium and sternum called?

A

Angle of Louis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which rib do you use to find the Angle of Louis?

A

2nd rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which rib is at the edge of the clavicle?

A

1st rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The first 5 ribs attach at the ________ or ________ in the front.

A

Sternum or Manubrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The first 5 ribs attach at the _____ _____ in the back.

A

Thoracic cage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which ribs can attach to one another (floating cage)?

A

Ribs 6-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which ribs are considered floating ribs?

A

11 and 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Transverse: Anterioposterior ratio for someone with a healthy chest?

A

2:1, twice as wide as you are deep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are abnormal visual findings in an abdominal assessment?

A

Pulsations at midline or waves of motion

Can be an aortic aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What hormone influences breast development?

A

Estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What should be documented on the appearance of skin on the chest and abdomen?

A
  • Color
  • Temperature
  • Texture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the difference between female and male breasts?

A

Males breasts have less adipose tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

During a health history for thorax and abdomen assessment, what should be assessed?

A

Occupational Hazards or Recent Travel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are two examples of occupational hazards that can affect the thorax/abdomen?

A

Trauma or chemical exposures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What occupational hazard can affect the respiratory system?

A

Inhaled dusts or gases (Coal miner’s lung)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hepatoxic chemicals can harm what part of the body?

A

Liver (abdominal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Why is recent travel important to ask about during an assessment?

A

Exposure to parasites, disease, ect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

True or False: Extra flatulence can be indicative of a problem

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the difference between history and subjective information?

A

History is past; subjective is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does PQRSTU stand for?

A
P: Palliative/Provocative 
Q: Quality
R: Radiate
S: Severity
T: Time
U: Understanding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How long a person can do an activity for.

A

Stamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Shortness of breath when lying down

A

Orthopnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Burning feeling in the abdomen

A

Pyrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which lung is wider and shorter?

A

The right lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

________ makes right lung more vulnerable to aspiration pneumonia

A

Asymmetry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

_______ makes left lung more vulnerable to pneumonia from pulmonary edema

A

Circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Duodenum of small intestine, gallbladder, liver, head of pancreas, right kidney, right adrenal gland, hepatic flexure of colon, and part of ascending and transverse colon are all part of which quadrant?

A

RUQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Left lobe of liver, stomach, spleen, body of pancreas, left kidney, left adrenal, splenic flexure of colon, and part of the transverse and descending color are all part of which quadrant?

A

LUQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Cecum, appendix, part of ascending colon, right ovary and tube, right ureter, and right spermatic cord are all part of which quadrant?

A

RLQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Part of descending color, sigmoid colon, left ovary and tube, left ureter, and left spermatic cord are all part of which quadrant?

A

LLQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Aorta, Uterus and Bladder are located where?

A

Midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Where is the ileocecal valve located?

A

RLQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where is the sigmoid located?

A

LLQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Where is the splenic fissure located?

A

LUQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Where is the hepatic fissure located?

A

RUQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A condition where the anterior wall (the front) of the abdomen has become sunken and hollow in appearance, or rather, has become convex rather than concave.

A

Scaphoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A bulging abdomen

A

Protuberant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When are waves in the abdomen normal?

A

Babies ONLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which valve in the large intestine is the noisest?

A

Ileocecal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the expected noises per minute for the bowel sounds?

A

5-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the proper order of abdominal assessment?

A
  1. Inspect
  2. Auscultate
  3. Palpate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What can cause absent bowel sounds?

A

Paralytic ileus, bowel obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What causes bowel sounds?

A

Movement of gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What can cause hypoactive bowel sounds?

A

Constipation, obstruction, or certain medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What can cause hyperactive bowel sounds?

A

Diarrhea, laxative use, gastroenteritis, early intestinal obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the name of loud, gurgling bowel sounds audible without a stethoscope?

A

Barborygmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How deep should you palpate the abdomen?

A

About 1/2 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How many fingers should be used for palpation of the abdomen?

A

The whole hand should be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How long should an abdominal assessment take?

A

1-2 minutes (if normal findings)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Where do you palpate for the bladder?

A

Above the suprapubic bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which sound is louder at the base of the heart?

A

S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What sound is louder at the apex of the heart?

A

S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Where are the semilunar valves located?

A

at the base of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Where at the AV valves located?

A

Apex of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Where is the majority of the heart located?

A

On the left side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Where can you find the aortic valve?

A

2ICS RSB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which heart sound is only heard on the right side?

A

Aortic Valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Where can you find the pulmonic valve?

A

2ICS LSB

72
Q

Where can Erb’s point be auscultated?

A

3ICS LSB

73
Q

Where can the Tricuspid valve be ausculated?

A

4ICS LSB

74
Q

Where can the mitral valve be auscultated?

A

5ICS MCL

75
Q

Where can both heart sounds be equally heard?

A

Erb’s point (3ICS LSB)

76
Q

What sound is the systole of the heart?

A

Lubdub

77
Q

What sound does the diastole of the heart give off?

A

No sound, the pause between heartbeats

78
Q

What is the pattern of the sounds called?

A

Rhythm

79
Q

Beats per minutes is called _____

A

rate

80
Q

Coincides with radial or carotid pulse

A

S1

81
Q

What sound represents the Lub?

A

S1

82
Q

What sound represents the Dub?

A

S2

83
Q

Coincides with the peripheral pulses

A

S1 (AV) valves closing– tricupid and mitral

84
Q

Coincides with the base of the heart, with the semilunar valves closing

A

S2 —aortic and pulmonic

85
Q

How long should you listen for a heartbeat?

A

30 seconds if regular, 60 seconds if irregular

86
Q

What should never be used as a landmark for a cardiac assessment?

A

The breasts

87
Q

What order should the cardiac assessment be done in?

A
Aortic
Pulmonic
Erb's
Tricuspid
Mitral
88
Q

What are the extra heart sounds called?

A

S3 and S4

89
Q

When is S3 heard?

A

After S2

Ken-S1, Tuck-S2, Y-S3

90
Q

When is S4 heard?

A

A sharp sound before S1

S4-Ten, Nes-S1, See-S2

91
Q

True or False: S3 and S4 are emergency sounds

A

False. Can be pathological; mainly a physiological condition

92
Q

A vascular sound caused by turbulent blood floor

A

Murmur

93
Q

Where can a murmur be heard?

A

Over the site of constriction

94
Q

What condition can cause a murmur?

A

Pregnancy

95
Q

True or False: Murmurs are only limited to heart valves

A

False; can be in artery, thyroid, or fistula created for dialysis

96
Q

What causes a murmur in the heart?

A

A constriction or regurgitation in the valve

97
Q

Where can the Apex of the heart be auscultated?

A

4th or 5th ICS

98
Q

Where is the apical impulse/point of maximal impulse?

A

5ICS MCL

99
Q

Which valve do you auscultate to determine the apical pulse?

A

Mitral valve

100
Q

The difference between the apical pulse and radial pulse

A

Apical radial deficit

101
Q

When is a apical radial deficit typically present?

A

in Cardiac arrhythmias (ie: atrial fibrillation)

102
Q

What measures the electrical conduction of the heart?

A

EKGs

103
Q

The _ waves should be measured to find the regularity of the rhythm on an EKG

A

R

104
Q

Space between __ waves should be exact the same

A

R

105
Q

The 12 lead measures what?

A

12 views of the heart

106
Q

A wireless transmission of EKG

A

Telemetry

107
Q

How long should a Holter Monitor be placed?

A

24 hours

108
Q

The ultrasound of a heart is called

A

An echocardiogram

109
Q

Percentage of blood ejected from the LV into circulation

A

Ejection fraction

110
Q

How many mL of blood can the LV hold?

A

100 mL

111
Q

What does the ejection fraction tell us?

A

How much blood is getting pumped out into the body’s circulation

112
Q

What is the normal ejection fraction?

A

40-60% (60% is ideal)

113
Q

What is the main cause of low ejection fraction?

A

Heart failure

114
Q

What are some symptoms of low ejection fraction?

A
  • pale
  • fatigued
  • high capillary refill
  • cool extremities
  • physical activity is harder
115
Q

How is a cardiac catheter placed?

A

Through a large peripheral artery (usually femoral or radial)

116
Q

What is injected to illuminate the arteries of the heart?

A

Dye

117
Q

True or False: Cardiac Catherization is an invasive procedure

A

True

118
Q

What does a cardiac catherization do?

A

Take pictures of blood vessels (angiogram); helps check patency of coronary arteries—circulation

119
Q

What kind of test is a dobutamine stress test?

A

chemical

120
Q

Where is a stress test performed?

A

On a treadmill

121
Q

What two stress tests uses an EKG?

A

Exercise stress test and dobutamine stress test

122
Q

What does the stress test do?

A

Measures the rhythm and function of the heart when stressed

123
Q

Enzymes released with damage to the heart muscle

A

Creatinine Kinase-MB

124
Q

Proteins released with ischemia to the heart muscle

A

Troponin

125
Q

What are the normal levels of troponin?

A

0-0.4

126
Q

Which blood test is done at time-repeated intervals: 3-4 hours post injury to 12, 24, and 36 hours?

A

Creatinine Kinase-MB

127
Q

Which blood test may be measurable up to 7 days after injury to the heart?

A

Troponin

128
Q

What is used to measure the severity of the heart failure?

A

NT pro-BNP (Brain natriuretic peptide)

129
Q

What is secreted by the LV in response to damage to flexibility?

A

NT pro-BNP (Brain natriuretic peptide)

130
Q

What is the normal values of NT pro-BNP (Brain natriuretic peptide)?

A

Norms depend on age, heart condition

131
Q

What is the optimal level of LDLs in the blood?

A

Less than 129

132
Q

What is the optimal levels of total cholesterol?

A

Less than 200

133
Q

What is the optimal levels of HDL?

A

Above 40; no upper limit

134
Q

What makes HDL and LDL?

A

Triglycerides

135
Q

_______ are good for structure in cell membranes and are a precursor for creating hormones

A

Cholesterol

136
Q

What should triglycerides optimal levels be?

A

Less than 150

137
Q

The valve between the the RV and the pulmonary artery

A

Pulmonic valve

138
Q

The valve between the LV and aorta

A

Aortic Valve

139
Q

The valve between the RA and RV

A

Tricuspid Valve

140
Q

The valve between the LA and LV

A

Mitral valve

141
Q

The apical impulse can be displaced laterally and lower due to what?

A

An enlarged ventricle

142
Q

What is the tightening of the aortic valve from scarring called?

A

Aortic Stenosis

143
Q

A leaflet of the valve that does not close all the way

A

Mitral valve prolapse

144
Q

Where can the upper lobes of the lung be accessible during an assessment?

A

Easiest on from the anterior chest; posterior: above the scapulae

145
Q

Where can the lower lobes of the lung be accessible during an assessment?

A

Anterior: lower lateral edge of anterior rib cage
Posterior: Easily accessible on posterior thorax

146
Q

What are the three types of normal lung sounds?

A
  1. Bronchial (Bronchiotracheal)
  2. Bronchovesicular
  3. Vesicular
147
Q

For a bronchiole breath sound, what is the normal rate of inspiration to expiration?

A

I < E

148
Q

For a bronchovesicular breath sound, what is the normal rate of inspiration to expiration?

A

I = E

149
Q

For a vesicular breath sound, what is the normal rate of inspiration to expiration?

A

I > E

150
Q

What are four adventitious lung sounds?

A
  1. Crackles
  2. Rhonchi
  3. Wheezes
  4. Stridor
151
Q

What adventitious lung sound is audible without a stethoscope?

A

Stridor

152
Q

What is a partial obstruction of the trachea or mainstem?

A

Stridor

153
Q

What is the feeling of being unable to breathe called?

A

Shortness of breath

154
Q

What part of the lung structure can vesicular sounds be heard?

A

Alveoli

155
Q

What part of the lung structure can bronchiole sounds be heard?

A

Traches

156
Q

What part of the lung structure can bronchovesicular sounds be heard?

A

Bronchioles

157
Q

What are occasionally called rales?

A

Crackles

158
Q

Where can crackles be heard?

A

Vesicular spaces

159
Q

What causes crackles?

A

Caused by alveoli expanding after collapse from mucus

160
Q

What condition is associated with crackles

A

Atelectasis

161
Q

What causes atelectasis?

A
  • General anesthesia
  • Infection (pneumonia)
  • Sleep (lack of deep breathing)
162
Q

What lung sounds are characterized by high pitched sounds?

A

Wheezes “Wee”

163
Q

What lung sounds are characterized by low pitch sounds?

A

Rhonchi

164
Q

What should you have a patient do if an adventitious sound is heard initially?

A

Cough

165
Q

What lung sound sounds more watery (bubbling through something thick)?

A

Rhonchi

166
Q

A scope passed through the mouth, trachea to the bronchioles to look at tissue in the bronchioles and lung

A

Bronchoscopy

167
Q

What is done to a patient’s airways before a bronchoscopy?

A

They are numbed

168
Q

What does a bronchoscopy do?

A

Biopsies and direct visualizations of obstructions

169
Q

Shows soft tissues, organs, hard tissues in multiple positions of the body?

A

CT scan

170
Q

What is the most common diagnostic testing for a lung condition?

A

Chest Xray

171
Q

What lung sound is comparable to rubbing hair back and forth by your ear?

A

Crackles

172
Q

On an xray, why do bones show up more white?

A

They are more dense

173
Q

How many alveoli in each lung?

A

300 million

174
Q

Plural effusion

A

Fluid in the interpleural space

175
Q

What breathing tool is not good for a patient with a bronchiole problem?

A

Incentive Spirometer